Taking a stimulant might be particularly useful in the event that you have bulimia. Antidepressants can likewise assist with diminishing side effects of sadness or tension, which regularly happen alongside dietary problems.
There are a few unique kinds of medications accessible to treat psychological sicknesses. Probably the most usually utilized are antidepressants, against uneasiness, antipsychotics, temperament balancing out, and energizer meds. The main upper explicitly supported by the Food and Medication Organization to treat bulimia is fluoxetine (Prozac), a kind of specific serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which might help regardless of whether you're not discouraged. Medications, for example, Zyprexa and Eli Lilly have been utilized to assist animate hunger and weight gain in people with anorexia. These medications might be valuable for a patient whose unfortunate craving is keeping them from eating during treatment.
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a nurse is administering iv acyclovir to a client. the pharmacy sent the correct dose in an iv bag with the instructions to give over one hour. the nurse realizes that the dose was ordered to be administered 1 pm and it is now 1:45 pm. what should the nurse do?
A nurse is administering iv acyclovir to a client and realizes that the dose was ordered to be administered 1 pm and it is now 1:45 pm therefore the nurse should do the following below:
Run the infusion as directed (over one hour) and note the time that it was started in the chart. Fill out any medication discrepancy reports that the institution requires when a medication is given late.Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in the taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent various forms of complications.
In a scenario in which a drug was given late, a medication discrepancy report should be filled for future reference and the infusion should be given immediately the nurse remembers.
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which would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder (bpd)?which would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder (bpd)?
The priority nursing diagnosis for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder (BPD) is Risk for Self-Harm related to Impulsivity and Chronic Feelings of Emptiness and Helplessness.
Nursing Diagnosis for Borderline Personality DisorderImpaired social interaction related to difficulty trusting others and unstable relationships Impulse control deficit related to impaired decision-making and difficulty regulating emotions Self-care deficit related to impaired self-esteem, feelings of inadequacy and a lack of insight Chronic low self-esteem related to distorted perceptions of self-worth and distorted self-image Risk for self-harm related to impulsivity and chronic feelings of emptiness and helplessness.BPD is a serious mental health disorder characterized by instability in moods, behavior, and relationships. People with BPD often experience impulsivity, chronic feelings of emptiness, and hopelessness, which can lead to a heightened risk of self-harm.
Since the question is not complete, here's the full task:
Which would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder (BPD)?
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a client is admitted to the hospital with a fever and extreme weakness. which laboratory studies are likely to be elevated if the client is experiencing an infection? select all that apply.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a fever and extreme weakness therefore the laboratory studies which are likely to be elevated if the client is experiencing an infection is white blood cell and is therefore denoted as option A.
What is an Infection?This is referred to as an invasion of the body by harmful microorganisms or parasites due to various conditions and factors.
A bacterial infection in the body of organisms often raises the white cell count with neutrophilia and symptoms such as fever and weakness are usually observed which is as a result of the immune system of the body fighting them and ensuring that there is no serious damage to the cells of the body which is therefore the reason why it was chosen a s the correct choice.
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The options are:
White blood cellRed blood cellPlateletsPlasmatrue or false? cpt is a listing of descriptive terms and identifyin codes for reporting medical seervices and procedures performed by physicians.
CPT is a listing of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physicians. Given Statement are true.
Medical professionals record medical, surgical, and diagnostic operations and services to organizations including doctors, health insurance providers, and accreditation bodies using the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code set.
During the computerized medical billing process, CPT codes are combined with ICD-9-CM or ICD-10-CM numerical diagnostic coding.
There are three different categories of CPT codes: 1, 2, and 3. CPT is a trademark that the American Medical Association has registered.
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which finding should alert the nurse to a potential cushing's syndrome manifestation presented by a client prescribed long-term corticosteroid therapy?
A sudden and rapid weight gain of more than 10 pounds in a month is a potential Cushing's syndrome manifestation that should alert the nurse.
Other manifestations include thinning of the skin, stretch marks, easy bruising, hirsutism (excess facial or body hair), abdominal obesity, and fatigue. Long-term corticosteroid therapy can lead to a number of side effects, including an increased risk of infection, increased risk of osteoporosis, and increased risk of metabolic syndrome.
Other side effects include weight gain, increased blood pressure, increased risk of diabetes, increased risk of cataracts, and mood changes. In addition, long-term use of corticosteroids can lead to serious psychological side effects such as depression and anxiety.
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the nurse is reviewing the criteria for early discharge of a newborn infant with a new mother. which data, if noted in the infant, indicate that the criterion for early discharge has not been met?
Based on the given situation of early discharge of a newborn infant with a new mother, the infant has evidence of significant jaundice.
Both healthy first-time mothers and newborns frequently undergo discharge within 24 hours of giving birth. In a research on the length of stay following birth that included 30 low- and middle-income nations, it was discovered that 28% of first-time moms were released from the hospital within 24 hours of giving birth normally.
Furthermore, since the 1950s, the length of stay in a facility care unit following delivery has significantly declined in Western nations2,3.
The interest in the available data about the early discharge of first-time moms is sparked by the new trend in Denmark. Regarding the timing of discharge following delivery, the requirements for early discharge, and the follow-up methods, international recommendations on early discharge procedures for healthy first-time moms and newborns vary.
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a pre-event meal should: a pre-event meal should: be eaten less than 1 hour before the event. be high in carbohydrates without providing large amounts of fiber. contain at least 800 calories. be high in fat to prevent hunger.
A pre-event meal should : be high in carbohydrates without providing large amounts of fiber.
The correct option is B.
What are carbohydrates?A carbohydrate is a biomolecule consisting of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms, usually with a hydrogen–oxygen atom ratio of 2:1.
Foods that are rich in carbohydrates are an important part of a healthy diet as they provide the body with glucose, which is converted to energy used to support bodily functions and physical activity.
So a pre-event meal should : be high in carbohydrates without providing large amounts of fiber so as to support bodily functions and physical activity.
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rosa is 20 years old and beginning an exercise program. her goal is to exercise at moderate intensity. what target heart rate range (beats per minute) should she try to maintain during exercise? a. 80 to 90 bpm b. 100 to 140 bpm c. 160 to 180 bpm d. 185 to 200 bpm
Rosa should try to maintain (b) 100 to 140 bpm target heart rate range during exercise.
Adults' resting heart rates normally range from 60 to 100 beats per minute. An increased level of cardiovascular fitness and better cardiac function are often indicated by a lower resting heart rate. A well-trained athlete may have a typical resting heart rate closer to 40 beats per minute.
You can determine your maximal heart rate based on your age. Subtract your age from 220 to get a ballpark idea of your maximal age-related heart rate.
Example:
The predicted maximum age-related heart rate for a 50-year-old person would be computed as 220 - 50 years = 170 beats per minute (bpm).
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an immunocompromised client with a diagnosis of candidiasis has failed to respond to conservative therapy and has consequently begun treatment with amphotericin b. the nurse is aware that this drug achieves a therapeutic effect by its influence on:
an immunocompromised client with a diagnosis of candidiasis begun treatment with amphotericin b. the nurse is aware that this drug achieves a effect by its influence on the permeability of fungal cell walls.
The majority of fungi's cell membranes contain ergosterol, which is how amphotericin B works. After forming ion channels with ergosterol, it causes the loss of monovalent cations and protons, which induces depolarization and concentration-dependent cell death. The production of free radicals and the accompanying increase in membrane permeability caused by amphotericin B also cause oxidative damage to the cells. Additionally, amphotericin B stimulates phagocytic cells, which aids in the removal of fungal infections. Amphotericin B has a half-life of between 24 and 15 days.
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Various combinations of mA and exposure time that produce the same mAs value should produce constant radiation output; this is termed
A half-value layer
B exposure linearity
C exposure reproducibility
D positive beam limitation (PBL)
Various combinations of mA and exposure time that produce the same mAs value should produce constant radiation output; this is termed Exposure linearity
Linearity in radiography, according to Venes & Taber (2005), is the creation of a constant amount of radiation for various milliamperage and exposure period combinations. All general x-ray devices must generate a proportional change in exposure when milliamperage (mA) varies in the clinical scenario.the capacity of an Exposure linearitysystem to repeatedly replicate an exposure. It can be stated as a percent exposure change or as a log exposure. The system is more repeatable the smaller the change.
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which change would the nurse expect when a child transitions from toddlerhood to the stage of preschooler
When a child goes through a transition from toddlerhood to the stage of preschoolers, the nurse would expect changes in the "develops later bedtime". The correct answer is C.
Preschoolers are kids that are three or four years old. They are no longer toddlers, regardless of whether the child is enrolled in a structured preschool program. Preschoolers are distinct from toddlers simply because they are beginning to acquire the fundamental independence and information as well as the practical skills that they will need once they start school.
Due to their inherent circadian rhythms and biological sleep-wake cycles, naturally, preschoolers develop later bedtimes. In contrast to appearing to be peacefully asleep, preschoolers have quite active sleep patterns. Midday naps are uncommon in preschoolers. At night, preschoolers sleep for roughly 12 hours. Preschoolers are frequently ready for bed around 7:30 p.m., especially if they had a long day.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. Begins sleeping soundly at nightB. Naps frequently during the dayC. Develops later bedtimeD. Sleeps less, about 9 hours each nightThe correct answer is C.
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the nurse received an order for a postoperative patient in an acute care facility. the order stated: morphine, 4.0 mg iv every 2 hours as needed for pain. what should the nurse question about this order?
The nurse should question the order to ensure it is safe and appropriate for the postoperative patient.
The nurse should check that the ordered dose of morphine is appropriate for the patient's age, weight, and medical condition and that it is in line with the patient's usual dose of opioids. The nurse should also verify whether the drug is contraindicated for the patient and that there are no other pharmacological treatments that could be used instead of morphine. The nurse should also ensure that the patient has been informed about the side effects and risks of opioid use and has agreed to receive the medication. Additionally, the nurse should assess whether the postoperative patient has any allergies or sensitivities to morphine, as well as any other drugs or dietary supplements the patient may be taking. Finally, the nurse should be aware of any local regulations regarding the prescribing and administration of opioids, including restrictions on the amount of morphine that can be administered at one time.
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when a nurse removes an i.v. from an client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids), blood splashes into the nurse's eyes. what should the nurse do next?
Schilling's test determines a patient's capacity to absorb vitamin B12, aiding in the diagnosis of pernicious anaemia. When radioactive vitamin B12 has been consumed, the amount of vitamin B12 in the urine is assessed.
Iron deficiency anaemia is one of the hypochromic, microcytic anemias. Eggs are an excellent source of iron, which is essential in the diet. Organ and muscle (dark) meats, shellfish, shrimp, and tuna, enhanced, whole-grain, and fortified cereals and breads, legumes, nuts, dried fruits, and beans, oats, and sweet potatoes are some more foods high in iron. Citrus fruits and dark green leafy vegetables are both excellent sources of vitamin C. A good source of calcium is cheese.
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Your friend is concerned about developing cancer and wants to know how to lower his or her risk. Which of the following dietary recommendations would you make to your friend to help lower their risk for cancer? Check all that apply.
Decrease salt-cured, char-broiled, pickled, and smoked foods
Increase fiber intake
Eat more fruits and vegetables
Answer:
To help lower their risk for cancer, your friend should:
Decrease salt-cured, char-broiled, pickled, and smoked foods
Increase fiber intake
Eat more fruits and vegetables
Eating a diet that is high in fruits, vegetables, and fiber and low in salt-cured, char-broiled, pickled, and smoked foods can help lower a person's risk for cancer. This is because fruits, vegetables, and fiber-rich foods provide the body with essential vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants that can help protect against the development of cancer. Salt-cured, char-broiled, pickled, and smoked foods, on the other hand, can contain chemicals that may increase a person's risk for cancer.
breastfeeding is better than formula because it leads to a lower incidence of responses ear inflammation. ear inflammation. respiratory illness. respiratory illness. allergies. allergies. all of the above.
Breastfeeding is better than formula because it leads to a lower incidence of ear inflammation, respiratory illness. ,allergies. Thus correct option all of the above (D)
Babies who are breastfed may be more resistant to several short- and long-term illnesses and disorders. Babies that are breastfed are less likely to develop asthma, obesity, type 1 diabetes, and SIDS (SIDS). Babies who are breastfed are also less likely to get stomach illnesses and ear infections.
Breastfeeding mothers typically have quicker postpartum recovery than mothers who decide not to breastfeed. Your risk of breast and ovarian cancer may be lower if you breastfeed. As you get older, it could also lower your risk of getting diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and rheumatoid arthritis.
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Answer: ALL OF THE ABOVE
Explanation: Children and Adults who have been breastfeed have a lower chance for almost all sicknesses, due to the fact, that they are getting protection from their mother's antibodies.
I hope this helped & Good Luck !!
a 12-year-old boy presents to the office with his mother with concerns about daily underwear soiling with loose stools as well as small, hard stools
Encopresis, a disorder that most frequently results from persistent constipation, is what a 12-year-old kid is experiencing. It causes the involuntary spilling of feces.
Encopresis is the frequent flow of feces into clothes, typically unintentionally. It is also known as fecal incontinence or soiling. The colon gets too full and liquid feces escapes around the delayed stool, staining underpants. This is what often happens when affected stool gathers in the rectum and colon.
When they are older, many individuals who do not receive treatment can fix the issue on their own, although it may take them several years to do so. Adulthood can bring about the issue.
When a youngster gets constipated to the point that a huge, hard piece of poop becomes lodged at the ends of their gut, this is known as soiling (rectum).
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the first class of drugs developed to treat aids, such as azt, were known as reverse transcriptase inhibitors. they worked because they .
The drug molecules bonded to the viral reverse transcriptase enzyme, thus preventing the virus from making a DNA copy of its RNA genome.
Drugs called reverse transcriptase inhibitors are used to treat and control HIV. The medicine belongs to the class of antiretrovirals. This exercise examines the benefits, side effects, and indications for RTIs as an effective HIV management tool (and other disorders when applicable). This activity will highlight the mechanism of action, adverse event profile, and other critical elements important for members of the interprofessional healthcare team in the management of patients with HIV and related conditions, such as off-label uses, dosing, pharmacodynamics, pharmacokinetics, monitoring, and relevant interactions.There are two subclasses of medications under the category of reverse transcriptase inhibitors. The first class of reverse transcriptase inhibitors are nucleoside/nucleotide inhibitors, and the second class is non-nucleoside inhibitors.
The FDA initially approved the nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) as the first class of antiretroviral medications. NRTIs are administered as prodrugs and must enter the host cell where they must be phosphorylated in order to function. Cellular kinases inside the host cell will then cause the medication to become active.
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a school nurse is educating a group of adolescents on the dangers of anabolic steroids. what statement by the nurse would explain why they are dangerous specifically to this age group?
The nurse presents a class, in which the discussion was about health and health-related problems. The goal of the food guide pyramid is to promote health and give advice for protection from diseases.
Why food is important?Food is a basic requirement of an individual. Health is all associated with food. Food can make a person healthy, but in some cases, food is the major cause of certain diseases. Nutrients such as calcium and iron are responsible for building body parts.
A balanced amount of nutrients can make a person healthy. But, an unbalanced intake of nutrients can make the person unhealthy, and diseases like obesity can affect a person.
Therefore, The nurse presents a class, in which the discussion was about health and health-related problems. The goal of the food guide pyramid is to promote health and give advice for protection from diseases.
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why would a patient need to be in the prone position? to keep airways clear to keep airways clear to limit the patient's movement to limit the patient's movement to treat cardiovascular problems to treat cardiovascular problems back treatment or examination
A patient would need to be in the prone position so as to keep the airways clear and is therefore denoted as option A.
What is Prone position?This is referred to as a type of body position in which the individual lies flat on the stomach with the chest down and the back up due to various types of conditions or distress.
It promotes drainage from the mouth and it is often used to improve breathing in patients experiencing respiratory distress due to it helping to keep the airways clear and is therefore the treason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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a client has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. which statement constitutes a long-term outcome for this client?
The patient will be able to perform daily living functions (ADLs) at home without getting out of breath.
Why is breathing so crucial?Oxygen is essential to every system within the body. Effective breathing can enhance everything from brain to digestion, including sleep, digestion, immunity, and stress levels. Secondly, it can help you feel less stressed and more cognitively clear.
What would this breathing power entail?The terms belly, deep, relaxed, and abdominal breathing are all used to describe diaphragmatic breathing. Slower, deeper breathing is the outcome, as it maximizes the use of the diaphragm, the primary muscle of breathing. It might be a crucial tool in the self-management toolkit of a patient.
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the nurse is caring for the 5-year-old just diagnosed with von willebrand disease after a tooth extraction with increased bleeding. the family asks the nurse how the signs and symptoms of von willebrand disease are manifested. what will the nurse tell the family? select all that apply.
low amounts of hemoglobin After a tooth extraction that caused excessive bleeding, the 5-year-old was just diagnosed with von Willebrand disease and is being cared for by the nurse.
What sort of bleeding is critical?
The most deadly type of bleeding is arterial bleeding, often known as pulsatile bleeding. Major injuries are usually what trigger it. arterial blood is oxygenated and brilliant red because it originates from the heart.
Explain what bleeding is.
Blood is lost when someone bleeds. When you get a cut or wound, for instance, it can be external, or outside the body. Additionally, it can occur internally, or inside the body, such as when an internal organ is damaged.
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a female adolescent is reporting general malaise and lethargy. which clinical assessment should the nurse perform in an effort to confirm or rule out infectious mononucleosis?
A female adolescent is reporting general malaise and lethargy. Palpating the client's lymph nodes is the clinical assessment the nurse perform in an effort to confirm or rule out infectious mononucleosis.
A lymph node, also called a lymph gland, is a kidney-shaped lymphatic and immune system component. Lymphatic veins connect the body's numerous lymph nodes to one another. They are very important for the growth of lymphocytes like B and T cells. Despite not cleansing the body, lymph nodes are crucial for the immune system's efficient operation since they serve as filters for foreign substances like cancer cells. A lymph node is a secondary lymphoid organ of the lymphatic system. An outer cortex and an inner medulla make up a lymph node, which is protected by a fibrous capsule.
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the home health nurse is gathering a client's medication prior to going to see the physician. the nurse cannot find the bottle for the methylphenidate, daytrana. what would be the reason for this?
This is a transdermal patch medication, so the nurse cannot find the bottle for the methylphenidate.
A specific dosage of medication is applied to the skin using transdermal patches, where it is absorbed into the blood. Numerous problems, including migraines, motion sickness, pain, and hypertension, are treated and managed with the use of transdermal drugs. methylphenidate-containing transdermal patches are used to treat the symptoms of ADHD (ADHD; Methylphenidate is a member of the group of drugs referred to as CNS stimulants. It modifies certain chemical components' concentrations in the brain.
Transdermal use of methylphenidate-containing skin patches is one option. It is typically applied once per day in the morning, two hours before an effect is needed, and left on for up to nine hours. Any prescription label instructions that you are unsure about following, ask your doctor or pharmacist to explain. Observe the methylphenidate patch directions exactly.
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a sexually active 20-year-old client has been diagnosed with viral hepatitis. which statement made by the client would indicate a need for further teaching?
To lessen the chance of bleeding, patients must lay on their right side for up to two hours following the biopsy. After the biopsy, patients are observed for a further 2 to 4 hours before being discharged.
Transjugular liver biopsy yields smaller liver samples, making it less desirable than other methods. Blood will be collected to test its capacity to clot before a liver biopsy. Prior to a liver biopsy, patients should avoid taking certain drugs for three to five days, including oral warfarin sodium (Coumadin®), injectable ardeparin (Indeparin®), dalteparin (Fragmin®), enoxaparin (Lovenox®, Clexane®, Cutenox®), and fondaparinux (Arixtra®) (you will be instructed). Additionally, a week before the liver biopsy, patients should refrain from taking any drugs that impair platelet function.
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the nurse is providing care to multiple clients. during which client interaction(s) will the nurse ask about the level of pain the client is experiencing? select all that apply.
While helping a freshly admitted client, the medic is filling out her intake info. After a vasectomy, the man is being held by the doctor while lying supine. The nurse checks a client's vitals while making mandates.
What is a nurse's job description?The primary duty of a pharmacist seems to be to provide patient care by responding to their physical needs, preventing illness, and treating medical conditions. Nurses must keep an eye out and be patient while recording any relevant information to aid in therapeutic decision-making.
What should be the highest title for a nurse?Chief nursing administrators are healthcare administrators that are a part of a healthcare organization's executive team. They are seen to be the pinnacle of nursing leadership.
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What benefits can you expect from we are relaunch
The new development that known should make it possible to the relaunch the industrial-port zone has the funding of the industrial projects that focus on the logistics and the maritime economy.
What is the Industrial Port Zone?Industrial Port Zone has been the term that has been used to describe the industrial zone near the port services and also offers highly advantageous financial programs to companies.
The Industrial-Port Zone has been known for its proximity to the port which has been also has several benefits in terms of the access to imports and effective distribution of goods to the international markets.
Therefore, The new development that known should make it possible to the relaunch the industrial-port zone has the funding of the industrial projects that focus on the logistics and the maritime economy.
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the nurse is assessing a child who is receiving growth hormone therapy. what would the nurse identify as suggesting glucose intolerance?
Describe the specific ways that growth hormones work. The main goals are to speed up the breakdown of lipids in adipose tissue and the use of fatty acids as fuel while lowering the rate at which glucose is used by the body as a whole. The blood glucose levels are often raised by these actions.
Which hormones promote physical development in children, particularly the development of the bones and muscles?
A component of our brain called the pituitary gland produces a variety of specialized hormones, including growth hormone (also referred to as human growth hormone or HGH). Growth hormone affects our height and aids in the development of our bones and muscles, among other things.
What does a growth hormone quizlet ask you to define?
Work of growth hormone. -Increases the liver's production of somatomedins, such as IGF-1. -Controls and stimulates the growth of most tissues. -Stimulates the absorption of amino acids and the synthesis of proteins. -Prevents the deterioration of proteins.
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diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of small cell lung cancer (sclc) in an older adult client. when exploring the etiology of the client's disease, what assessment question is most relevant?
Do you smoke often is the most relevant question for the assessment.
A lung cancer that is commonly caused by smoking and has fast growth.
This deadly type of lung cancer is more common in smokers than in non-smokers. It frequently starts in the bronchi, where it quickly grows and forms large tumors before spreading (metastasizing) throughout the body.
Symptoms include bloody phlegm, coughing, chest pain, and shortness of breath.
Chemotherapy and surgery (for small tumors) are other therapeutic options that are occasionally combined with radiation therapy.
The typical 5-year survival rate for people with SCLC is 7%. It is crucial to keep in mind that a lot of factors, most notably the stage of the illness, impact survival chances. For patients with locally advanced SCLC, the overall 5-year survival rate is 27%, indicating that the illness has not spread externally.
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AIDS is caused by a ________ infection spread primarily through ________.
A.viral; the exchange of bodily fluids
B.bacterial; the exchange of bodily fluids
C.viral; airborne molecules
D.bacterial; airborne molecules
AIDS is caused by a viral infection spread primarily through the exchange of body fluids.
Acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome, AIDS,is "a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)". It primarily spreads through the exchange of body fluids.
It is a sexually transmitted disease. It can also be transmitted through infected blood, sharing needles, from mother to child during childbirth, pregnancy and lactation.
It affects the immune system and makes the patient susceptible to life threatening infections.
So AIDS is a viral disease, which is transmitted through body fluids.
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match the antifungal agent with the correct description. diflucan newer class of antifungals used to treat aspergillus micafungin trade name for fluconazole one of the most widely prescribe antifungal agents nystatin used for severe systemic, potentially fatal candida infections amphotercin b used to treat oral candidiasis
We match the antifungal agent with the correct description:
Diflucan, goes with the description of a trade name of fluconazole, one of the most prescribed antifungal agents. Correct answer: 1-B.Micafungin, goes with the description of a new class of antifungals used to treat aspergillus. Correct answer: 2-A.Nystatin, goes with the description of a used to treat oral candidiasis. Correct answer: 3-D.Amphotercin B, goes with the description of a used for severe systemic, potentially fatal candida infections. Correct answer: 4-C.What are antifungal agents?Are a class of drugs used to treat fungal infections. These medications work by killing the fungus or preventing its growth and spread. Some examples of antifungal agents are:
AzolesAllylaminesPolyethersOthersThese agents are available in both topical and systemic forms. Topical medications are applied directly to the skin to treat infection of the skin's surface. Systemic drugs, on the other hand, are taken by mouth and work in the body to treat severe or deep-seated infections.
Antifungal agents are commonly used to treat infections such as:
CandidiasisCryptococcosisDeep mycosisAspergillosisIn addition, they are also used for the treatment of skin infections such as ringworm, tinea versicolor, and dermatophytosis.
Match the antifungal agent with the correct description:
1. Diflucan
2. Micafungin
3. Nystatin
4. Amphotercin B
A) Newer class of antifungals used to treat aspergillus.
B) Trade name for fluconazole, one of the most widely prescribe antifungal agents.
C) Used for severe systemic, potentially fatal candida infections.
D) Used to treat oral candidiasis.
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