The correct answer is D). an advertisement for the civil rights movement. In a case regarding the government's restriction of commercial speech, the Supreme Court initially determined that the First Amendment afforded some protection.
First, the commercial communication must not be deceptive and must relate legitimate activities in order to qualify as protected speech under the First Amendment.
Blackmun came to the conclusion that the First Amendment protects commercial speech, even communications like advertisements that only hint at a business transaction.
An online advertisement, such as those found in video games, is an illustration of commercial speech. Flyer distribution to raise awareness of a product is another example of a commercial speech. Another excellent example of advertising communication is on television.
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a defendant in a criminal case is entitled to have the jury instructed on the law applicable to any legitimate theory of defense supported by the evidence at trial. True or False
The given statement is true, that is any valid theory of defense that is supported by the evidence at trial is entitled to have the jury instructed on the law that applies.
The evidence presented to the jury in court should be the basis for their decision. Based on their assessment of the evidence and what the judge instructs them regarding the law, they determine what has been proven and what has not, and they render a verdict on each count. A defendant must be found guilty if the jury is unanimous in its conviction. The highly dramatic phrase "beyond a reasonable doubt" may have been used. However, we now only inquire as to the jurors' level of certainty rather than saying that. The jury must acquit if they aren't certain of the defendant's guilt. The judge must determine if information is pertinent and whether it is appropriate for the jury to be informed of it.
The judge must determine if information is pertinent and whether it is appropriate for the jury to be informed of it. He might determine that it is irrelevant and out-of-date evidence that is just being used to malign the husband's reputation and sway the jury against him. In that case, he would disregard the proof.
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which of the following is the best example of a constitutional concept that supports the vision of the united states as a union of states, rather than a union of individual citizens? responses supremacy clause supremacy clause judicial review judicial review the electoral college the electoral college separation of powers
The best example of a constitutional concept that supports the vision of the united states as a union of states, rather than a union of individual citizens is the electoral college.
The Electoral College is a method, not a physical location. It was established in the Constitution by the Founding Fathers as a compromise between electing the President through a vote in Congress and electing the President through a popular vote of qualified citizens.
'How does the procedure work?'
The Electoral College process consists of the electors being chosen, meeting to vote for President and Vice President, and the electoral votes being counted by Congress.
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Answer: THE ANSWER IS A) preserve the Union of states under control of the federal government.
Explanation: I GOT A 100 ON THE 35 QUESTION TEST
advocates of the responsible party model believe parties should craft a platform, candidates should run on that platform, and the majority party should _____ .
The responsible party model's advocates contend that parties ought to develop a platform, candidates ought to run on it, and the majority party ought to implement it.
The responsible party system is what?
The "responsible party" is the person or organization that controls, manages, or oversees the entity and the distribution of the entity's finances and assets, in contrast to a nominee, who is given little to no authority over the entity's assets.
What are the objectives of political parties' platforms?
Winning elections is the main objective of a party platform in order to control governmental power and carry out its objectives. This fundamental goal distinguishes parties from interest groups, who also seek to influence election outcomes but are not authorized to propose candidates for public office.
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what is the purpose of bail?a. to insure that the defendant shows up for trialb. to compensate victims of crimesc. to restrict the physical activities of the defendant before triald. to begin the process of punishment and rehabilitation before the tria
Bail is only intended to guarantee that defendants will show up for their trial and any required pretrial hearings. When a defendant's trial is over, several states deduct a processing fee before returning their bail to them.
The sum of money known as bail is required from defendants in order to be freed from custody prior to their trial. A bond is not a fine. It shouldn't be applied as a form of discipline. Bail is only intended to guarantee that defendants will show up for their trial and any required pretrial hearings. In some places, bail is refunded to defendants upon the conclusion of their case, less a processing charge.
The court or magistrate considers a number of issues when determining the bond amount: the possibility that the criminal may flee, the alleged offense, the "dangerousness" of the defendants, and the public safety.
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which of the following best explains the three laws of mastery?
Having faith in your ability to complete the task, working diligently to correct your flaws, and understanding that mastery may never truly be attained.
What is the mastery art?Even when it seems like you are making no progress, practice is essential for mastery. Knowing how the journey towards Mastery functions really aids in taking it. In essence, competence is that enigmatic process that occurs as something initially challenging becomes increasingly simple and enjoyable with repetition.
What is the fundamental issue with mastery learning?Allowing up some of your classroom management and giving your students more authority is the single most difficult hard achievement that mastery learning entails. The learners, not your daily schedule, will determine how quickly the class moves forward and what projects they are working on.
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which of the following transactions would not be exempt from the sales literature and advertising filing requirements of the uniform securities act? a
Even though the bonds are an exempt security, the sale to an person consumer is now not an exempt transaction. Sales to institutions, income by fiduciaries, or unsolicited transactions are all exempt.
An exempt transaction is a type of securities transaction the place a commercial enterprise does now not need to file registrations with any regulatory bodies, supplied the wide variety of securities concerned is enormously minor in contrast to the scope of the issuer's operations and that no new securities are being issued.
What does exempt from transaction tax mean?Being tax-exempt skill that some or all of a transaction, entity or person's profits or enterprise is free from federal, country or neighborhood tax. Tax-exempt groups are normally charities or non secular companies diagnosed by using the IRS. Internal Revenue Service. Exempt Organization Types. Accessed Sep 14, 2022.
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https://brainly.com/question/14319801#SPJ4FILL IN THE BLANK. one example of ___ is the fact that a lawsuit filed by washington against nevada over river pollution goes directly before the supreme court.
One example of original jurisdiction is the fact that a lawsuit filed by Washington against Nevada over river pollution goes directly before the supreme court.
What is original jurisdiction?In common law legal systems, a court's original jurisdiction is its authority to hear a case for the first time, as opposed to an appellate court's authority to review a lower court's ruling.
Certain instances, such as lawsuits involving two or more states and/or cases involving ambassadors and other public ministers, fall under the Court's original jurisdiction (a matter is tried before the Court).
When a court has the power to hear a case for the first time, we say that court has original jurisdiction.
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Is Stevens correct in holding that our privacy interests in our residence, after the issuance of a no-knock warrant, consistent with the privacy interests we retain after the police are in the residence, in the context of a protective sweep? Same question, only consistent with the privacy interests we retain in our personal autonomy in the frisk aspect of a Terry stop? Is there a difference based on the status of the police intrusion? In other words, in the no-knock context, the citizen's interests are defined in the context of immediately prior to, or during the entry into the premises (i.e. the execution of the warrant), while in the protective sweep and the Terry frisk the defendant's privacy interests are already intruded upon.
Citizens have the right to refuse a search at any time thanks to the Fourth Amendment.
What safeguards are provided for citizens by the Fourth Amendment?
People are shielded from government unreasonable searches and seizures by the Fourth Amendment to the Constitution. However, only those searches and seizures that are deemed unreasonable by law are protected by the Fourth Amendment.
In public, do you have the right to privacy?
Expectation of Privacy in Public Although a person may not have the right to privacy when in public, the law can still protect them from having their private information broadcast or from being portrayed in a way that could be considered humiliating.
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The rules that govern the corporation, including the number of directors it will have, the method of electing directors, the time and place of shareholder meetings, etc., are found in the corporation's ____ .
a. By laws
b. Articles of incorporation
c. Charter
d. State incorporation code
a. By laws
the state supreme court has appellate jurisdiction. which situation is an example of a case they might hear?
The state supreme court has Appellate jurisdiction. The best illustration is, a politician is charged with stealing finances from a department in the executive branch.
Jurisdiction is the legal term for the legal authority granted to a legal reality to legislate justice. Appellate jurisdiction includes the power to reverse or modify the lower court's decision.
Appellate governance exists for both civil law and criminal law. In an appellate case, the party that appealed the lower court's decision is called the appellate, and the other party is the user.
The Supreme Court has also a genuinely wide appellate governance over all Courts and Bars in India is as important as it may, in its discretion, entitlement special leave to appeal under Composition 136 of the Constitution from any judgment, decree, determination, judgment, or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any Court.
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Which of the following statements about the Affordable Care Act (ACA) are true, if any?
The true statements about the Affordable Care Act (ACA) is that its eliminates lifetime limits on total health care insurance payments by insurers. The Option E is correct.
What is the Affordable Care Act?In U.S., the Affordable Care Act is a reform signed into law by President Barack Obama in March 2010 which includes a list of health care policies intended to expand access to health insurance to millions of uninsured Americans.
The reform legislation expanded the Medicaid eligibility, created a health insurance exchanges, mandated that Americans purchase of health insurance and prohibited insurance companies from denying coverage due to pre-existing conditions.
Missing options "The ACA decides the insurance payments for dependents. The ACA limits the total number of surgeries for the insurers. The ACA provides major medical insurance with low deductibles to protect against catastrophic illnesses. The ACA requires employers to reimburse the cost of hospital stay of the insured. The ACA eliminates lifetime limits on total health care insurance payments by insurers.
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generally, the liability of a principal on a contract formed by an agent with a third party depends on whether the agent was authorized to act.
The liability of a principal on a contract formed by an agent with a third party depends on whether the agent was authorized to act. This statement is true.
What is a contract?A legally enforceable agreement between two or more parties known as a contract establishes, clarifies, and regulates the parties' respective rights and obligations.
The liability is is on the authorization of the agent to work on the contract on behalf of the principal
The foundation of contract law, which is the area of the law of obligations pertaining to contracts, is the idea that agreements must be upheld.
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T/F generally, the liability of a principal on a contract formed by an agent with a third party depends on whether the agent was authorized to act.
what are the goals of the affordable care act?
a women needs to take some time off from work to care for her ill mother. which of the following health policies allows her to take an extended leave from work to care for a family member?
The Family and Medical Leave Act provides job protection leave to certain workers when they need time off from work due to a serious health condition.
she may leave from work also take up to 12 workweeks in a 12 month period to care for her ill mother who has serious health condition. which is generally involves a period of incapacity. it means an individual is unable to work, attend school, doing regular daily activities because of the serious health condition, due to treatment or for recovery from condition.
she could eligible to take up if:
has worked for her employer for at least 12 monthshas at least 1250 hours of service with employer during the 12 months before starting her leaveworking at location where the employer has at least 50 employees within 75 miles.Learn more about leave from work at: https://brainly.com/question/1425386
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as a private institution, georgia southern university has no obligation to protect the free speech rights of students.A. TrueB. False
True. Georgia Southern University is committed to the freedoms of speech, expression, and assembly.
Georgia Southern University is focused on the abilities to speak freely, articulate, and get together. Individuals have the option to collect, to talk, and to endeavor to attract the consideration of others, and relating privileges to hear the discourse of others when they pick to listen, and to overlook the discourse of others when they decide not to listen.
The guidelines enunciated in this strategy apply to all understudies, workforce, staff, and their registered associations, as well as different people and gatherings visiting Georgia Southern. Due to practical administrative real factors, this strategy doesn't have any significant bearing to University specialists and representatives when they are acting in the course and extent of their organization or employment.
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when a serious offense is involved, the court will hold an adjudicatory hearing to determine if the case should be transferred to adult court.
This claim is untrue. The court will hold an adjudicatory hearing when a significant offense is involved to decide whether the case has to be transferred to adult court.
What are adjudicatory hearings used for?An adjudicatory hearing, which is essentially a "trial," is used to determine if the criminal needs court supervision or is delinquent. Defense attorneys may be present during the adjudicatory hearing in juvenile courts.
Hearing (Trial) for adjudication in juvenile proceedings in California. In juvenile delinquency court, an adjudication hearing is a trial in front of the judge during which the judge decides whether or not the child disobeyed the law and has to be punished.
What happens at an adjudication hearing?Participants in the adjudication hearing testify about the charge in front of the judge after appearing in court and swearing to tell the truth. The court may additionally receive materials introduced during the trial in order to evaluate the charge. The first testimony that the court hears during a trial is from the prosecution.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. the___defines stiffer penalties for prosecution of terrorist crimes. economic espionage act sarbanes-oxley act usa patriot act gramm-leach-bliley act
The USA PATRIOT Act defines stiffer penalties for prosecution of terrorist crimes.
Under the USA PATRIOT Act which was formulated in the year 2001, efforts were made to stiffer the punishments of people who were included in terrorist crimes.
This act was formulated so that the crime rates by terrorists could be reduced not only in the USA but all over the world. The terrorists were subjected to severe punishments and penalties under the USA PATRIOT act. After this act, the criminals feared the penalties for prosecution and the crime rates were reduced.
The question will correctly be written as:
the___defines stiffer penalties for prosecution of terrorist crimes.
a) economic espionage act
b) sarbanes-oxley act
c) USA PATRIOT act
d) gramm-leach-bliley act
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Why do you think the requirement are different for memberhip in each of the two houe of Congre?
The Senate and the House of Representatives are each a separate chamber of Congress. Typically, the top and lower chambers are referred to as the House and the Senate, respectively.
Why do the two houses of Congress have different representations?Members of the House represent particular districts, whereas senators represent their entire states. The population of a state determines how many districts it has. There is a minimum of one representative from each state in Congress. As institutions, the House and the Senate have developed very differently.
Why are the numbers of members in each House different?The two senators that each state sends to the U.S. Senate serve as its representatives. However, a state's population is what determines how many representatives it has in the House of Representatives. Larger states like California, for instance, have 53 representatives, but smaller states like Vermont and Delaware only have one.
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which of the following is a correct description or assumption of pluralism as a theory that explains interest groups as group politics?
Which of the following is an assumption of pluralism?
A. Only wealthy interests have influence over government decisions.
B. Government decisions reflect the preferences of elites.
C. Interest groups are integral to government decisions.
D. Policy makers care more about public opinion than interest groups' preferences.
E. Political parties matter more than interest groups in shaping government policies.
The correct answer is option C, the correct assumption of pluralism is Government choices are heavily influenced by interest groups.
The idea that political and decision-making processes take place inside the framework of the government but that non-governmental organizations can still have an impact is known as classical pluralism. The distribution of influence and authority within the political system is the key issue for traditional pluralism.
According to pluralism, disputes frequently arise when different groups of people attempt to maximize their own interests, and the shifting of power is effective in negotiating power between different interest groups.
According to pluralists, there would still be inequities, but these would be leveled by the allocation of resources among a population. They favor an electoral system with a minimum of two parties, as well as freedom of association and religion.
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The Constitution establishes the jobs and strictures of the operational institution of government, the Bill of Rights and subsequent amendments set out the protections for the individuals served by the government.
True
The Constitution establishes the jobs and strictures of the operational institution of government, the Bill of Rights and subsequent amendments set out the protections for the individuals served by the government. Given Statement are true.
The first ten amendments to the United States Constitution are known as the Bill of Rights. The Bill of Rights amendments, proposed following the often bitter 1787-88 debate over the ratification of the Constitution and written to address the objections raised by Anti-Federalists, add specific guarantees of personal freedoms and rights to the Constitution, clear limitations on the government's power in judicial and other proceedings, and explicit declarations that all powers not expressly granted to the federal government by the Constitution are reserved to the states.
These amendments codify concepts from earlier documents, particularly the Virginia Declaration of Rights (1776), as well as the Northwest Ordinance (1787), the English Bill of Rights (1689), and Magna Carta.
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police officers received an uncorroborated and anonymous tip that a farmer was growing marijuana on his property. the police went out to the farm, and finding no one home, went around the back, and followed a path that led out to the adjacent fields where cattle and horses were grazing. at the farthest edge of the property there were about two dozen marijuana plants. the plants were obscured by a high hedge fence, but the officers walked through the hedges and found the plants.
Police officers walked through the dense hedge and discovered the plants, which were hidden by it. The plants were in open areas, thus the farmer had no Fourth Amendment expectation of privacy there.
The main issue here is whether the invasion into the garden that was hidden by shrubs was protected by the Fourth Amendment, despite hints and irrelevant circumstances like the police having no probable cause and peering into the farmer's home.
The location is comparable to an open field, and society does not respect privacy rights in such situations, hence the answer is no.
Regardless of fences, no-trespassing signs (or regulations), the landowner's efforts to keep people out or wants to maintain the privacy, or any other irrational expectation of seclusion. The Fourth Amendment does not apply to areas that are outside of the home's boundaries.
Complete question:
Police officers received an uncorroborated and anonymous tip that a farmer was growing marijuana on his secluded property at the edge of the county line. The police went out to the farm, and finding no one home, looked into the windows of the house, went around the back, and followed a path that led out to the adjacent fields where cattle and horses were grazing. At the farthermost point on the property, about one quarter of a mile from the house, there were about two dozen marijuana plants. The plants were obscured by a high hedge fence, but the officers walked through the hedges and found the plants.
Which of the following statements is the most accurate and appropriate?
(a) The farmer has no Fourth Amendment expectation of privacy in the plants because they were contraband.
(b) The farmer has no Fourth Amendment expectation of privacy in the plants because they were located in open fields.
(c) The farmer has no Fourth Amendment expectation of privacy in the plants because they could readily be observed by aircraft or a helicopter flying at very low altitudes.
(d) Whatever Fourth Amendment expectation the farmer has in the plants, the police had adequate reasonable suspicion to look around the property.
(e) The farmer has a Fourth Amendment expectation of privacy in the plants because they fell within an area known as the curtilage.
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the national safety council reports that distracted driving leads to 16 thousand crashes each year.
The National Safety Council estimates that distracted driving contributes to 16,000 collisions per year. The percentage of texting drivers who are not in their own lane on the road is around 10%.
According to statistics, texting while driving is one form of driver distraction that accounts for a sizable portion of collisions. Cell phone usage or texting while driving was a contributing factor in 13% of distracted driving collisions that resulted in fatalities, according to 2020 NHTSA statistics. a week ago
Over 3,000 people will pass away in 2022 as a result of distracted driving, according to the CDC. How many fatalities result from texting while driving? According to statistics, texting while driving causes 400 fatalities annually in the US.
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which of the following statements describes why ross perot won zero electoral votes in the 1992 presidential election? choose 1 answer:
The candidate who received the most votes in that state received the most electoral votes under the winner-take-all system.
Persons actually vote for a group of people known as electors when they cast a ballot. Each state receives an identical number of electors as its total number of senators and representatives in Congress. The Electoral College is made up of 538 electors in total. Upon the completion of the general election, each elector casts one vote.
Simple math is used to determine how many votes each state receives: each state receives two votes for each of its two US senators, plus one additional vote for each representative it has in the House of Representatives.
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penalties for unlawful or accidental removal, defacing, alteration, or destruction of federal records or the attempt to do so, include a fine, imprisonment, or both. t or f
Federal records removal, defacing, alteration, or destruction that is unauthorised or unintentional, as well as the attempt to do so, are punishable by penalties, incarceration, or both. Hence, the given statement is true.
Due to their penal nature, penalties in English law are contractual clauses that are not enforceable in court. Since at least 1720, it has been recognised under English contract law that if a clause in a contract creates a punishment, the parties cannot enforce that clause.
But throughout time, the criteria for determining what counts as a penalty have changed. Without any general statutory intervention, the common law judges of England have totally evolved the law relating to contractual penalties.
However, in addition to the common law standards concerning penalties, there are regulations that specifically address how onerous clauses should be avoided.
Therefore, the given statement is true.
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a temporary drivers license is an acceptable form of client identification for bank product purposes
No, a temporary drivers license is not an acceptable form of client identification for bank product purposes.
What is a bank?
A bank is a financial institution that is licensed to accept checking and savings deposits and make loans.
Banks also provide related services such as individual retirement accounts (IRAs), certificates of deposit (CDs), currency exchange, and safe deposit boxes.
There are several types of banks including retail banks, commercial or corporate banks, and investment bank
They provide a safe place for consumers and business owners to stow their cash and a source of loans for personal purchases and business ventures.
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what does the oil pollution act of 1990 legislate for environmental disasters such as the one pictured below?
The Oil Pollution Act (OPA) of 1990 streamlined and strengthened EPA's capacity to prevent and answer catastrophic oil spills.
The Oil Pollution Act (OPA) of 1990 streamlined and strengthened EPA's capacity to prevent and answer catastrophic oil spills. A trust store funded by an expense on oil is available to tidy up spills when the party in question is unfit or reluctant to do as such. The OPA requires oil storerooms and vessels to submit to the Federal government plans enumerating how they will answer huge discharges. EPA has published guidelines for aboveground storage spaces; the Coast Watchman has done as such for oil big haulers. The OPA likewise requires the development of Region Emergency courses of action to get ready and plan for oil spill reaction on a local scale.
The Federal Pollution Prevention Act of 1990 established pollution prevention as the public strategy of the United States. The Federal Act pronounces that pollution ought to be prevented or diminished at the source wherever practical, while pollution that can't be prevented ought to be reused in an environmentally protected way.
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if victims wish to recoup their losses following a crime, they must rely on: group of answer choices a. substantive criminal law. b. procedural criminal law. c. real estate law. d. civil law.
Answer:
d. civil law.
Explanation:
If victims wish to recoup their losses following a crime, they must rely on civil law. In general, criminal law is concerned with punishing offenders for their actions, while civil law is concerned with providing remedies to individuals who have been wronged. This means that if a victim has suffered losses as a result of a crime, they may be able to file a civil lawsuit against the perpetrator in order to seek compensation for their losses. This is different from criminal law, which focuses on punishing the perpetrator through penalties such as fines or imprisonment.
in some campaigns, which of the following has begun to replace in the political party as the nominating and electing agent?
The political parties in the US hold national conventions to select the candidates for the presidency in the summer of the election year. At the convention, the democratic nominees are chosen.
What does the term "political views" mean?A political ideology, as used in social studies, is a particular collection of moral ideals, principles, doctrines, myths, or symbols of a mass group, institution, class, or large group that provides some political and social blueprint for a particular social order and explains how society should function.
What does the term "political issue" mean?A political issue is described as "any subject that deals by how power is dispersed and how it works within human group, and how individuals think about and engage in their communities" in the Global Economics course manual.
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Cooperation among oligopolies runs counter to the public interest because it leads to underproduction and high prices. In an effort to bring resource allocation closer to the social optimum, public officials attempt to force oligopolies to compete instead of cooperating. Consider the following scenario: Suppose that executives working for two different automobile manufacturers exchange emails in which they discuss jointly increasing prices for their latest hybrid electric SUVs. This illegal communication would violate which of the following laws? The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 The Celler-Kefauver Act of 1950 The Robinson-Patman Act of 1936 The Clayton Act of 1914
In an effort to improve resource allocation closer to the optimal point, government employees try to force oligopolies to compete rather than to cooperate. The given statement is true.
What was "interest" supposed to convey exactly?
The cost of a loan is referred to as interest. As a yearly percentage of the loan amount, interest is most frequently expressed. The interest rate on the loan is shown by this percentage.
Which four categories of interests are there?
The most prevalent types of interest include fixed interest, variable interest, annual percentage rate first interest rate, discounted interest rate, simple involvement, and compound interest.
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which of the following does the ftc funeral rule not prohibit you from doing? question 121 options: embalming for a fee without permission requiring the purchase of a casket for direct cremation requiring consumers to buy certain funeral goods and services as a condition for furnishing other funeral goods or services listing options such as direct cremation with memorial service on the gpl
Embalming for a fee without permission requiring the purchase of a casket for direct cremation requires consumers to buy certain funeral goods and services as a condition for furnishing other funeral goods or services listing options such as direct cremation with memorial service on the GPL.
The Funeral Rule, enacted by the Federal Trade Commission on April 30, 1984, and amended effective 1994, was designed to shield customers by requiring that they receive adequate info regarding the products and repairs they will purchase from a ceremonial provider.
All funeral suppliers should go with The ceremonial Rule. The ceremonial Rule defines such terms as, among others, funeral provider, funeral goods, and funeral services and specifies varied client rights, also as specific parameters within which funeral business goods and service providers must respect consumer rights and conduct their business. The ceremonial Rule defines clearly many funeral varieties to reduce the possibility of miscommunication or misunderstanding between the ceremonial service supplier and customer.
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