operon operator repressor regulatory gene corepressor trp operon tryptophan lac operon allolactose inducible operon vs. repressible operon activator inducer cyclic amp positive vs. negative gene regulation differential gene expression histone acetylation dna methylation epigenetic inheritance control elements micrornas small interfering rnas nucleic acid hybridization in situ hybridization

Answers

Answer 1

Operons are a type of gene regulatory structure found in prokaryotes. They consist of an operator and a series of structural genes that are transcribed together as a single mRNA. The operator is a DNA sequence that binds repressor proteins, which can then bind to the operator and prevent transcription of the structural genes.

There are two types of operons: the trp operon, which controls the synthesis of tryptophan, and the lac operon, which controls the metabolism of lactose.

The repressor proteins that bind to the operator sequences of operons can be either repressible or inducible. Repressible operons are activated by a corepressor molecule, which binds to the repressor and causes it to unbind from the operator. Inducible operons, on the other hand, are regulated by an activator molecule, which binds to the repressor and causes it to bind to the operator, thus activating transcription.

In addition to operons, gene expression can also be regulated by other mechanisms. Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is a molecule that can bind to DNA and activate transcription. This process is known as positive gene regulation. Negative gene regulation, on the other hand, is the process by which a repressor protein binds to a DNA sequence and prevents transcription.

Differential gene expression is the process by which the same gene is expressed at different levels in different cells or tissues. This can be regulated by epigenetic modifications, such as histone acetylation and DNA methylation. These modifications are heritable, and can be passed on from one generation to the next, leading to a form of epigenetic inheritance.

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Explain in detail?


Related Questions

Cell theory began to develop in 1839, following the research of Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann into plant and animal tissues. Both the botanist Schleiden and the physiologist Schwann noticed that every organism they viewed under a microscope, whether plant or animal, was composed of cells. Their observations that all living species are made up of one or more cells led to the early formation of cell theory. Which tenet of cell theory is described by the paragraph about the historical observations of cells? All cells come from preexisting cells. O The cell is the basic unit of every organism. An organism is dependent on the total activity of all its cells. O All organisms are composed of one or more cells.

Answers

All organisms are composed of one or more cells.

Give a brief description of cell theory.  

The scientific idea that cells make up living organisms, that they are the fundamental structural and organizational unit of all species, and that they all originate from previously existing cells is known as cell theory. It was first proposed in the middle of the nineteenth century. Because cells are the foundation of all life, this is essential for our understanding of biology. We can have single-celled organisms like yeasts and bacteria. All living things grow and develop on the basis of cell division, which is the division of a cell from one to two to four.

Hence, the answer is all organisms are composed of one or more cells.

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Which of the following occurs late in chronic glomerulonephritis?
a) Peripheral neuropathy
b) Nosebleed
c) Stroke
d) Seizure
a) Peripheral neuropathy
Explanation:
Peripheral neuropathy with diminished deep tendon reflexes and neurosensory changes occur late in the disease. The patient becomes confused and demonstrates a limited attention span. An additional late finding includes evidence of pericarditis with or without a pericardial friction rub. The first indication of disease may be a sudden, severe nosebleed, a stroke, or a seizure.

Answers

The final stage is chronic glomerulonephritis A. Peripheral neuropathy

Glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease caused by inflammation of the small intestine in the kidneys or glomeruli. The kidneys contain glomeruli which function to remove excess waste and fluid from the bloodstream which is excreted in the urine. Glomerulonephritis can be caused by infection, autoimmune disease, vessels in the blood vessels, or certain diseases. The stages of this disease range from nosebleeds, blows, attacks and peripheral neuropathy.

Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that occurs due to damage to the peripheral nerves and occurs late in the disease. At this stage a person will often experience falls due to lack of coordination and paralysis of the muscles if the motor nerves are disturbed.

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Changes in air pressure are caused by differences in air temperature
above the earth, and the temperature of an air mass is determined by
its location. For example, air masses above oceans are typically cooler
than air masses above continents. Air temperature differences create
wind and cause pressure systems to develop. The wind moves
pressure systems and these systems tend to change as they pass over
mountains, oceans, and other areas.


HOW IS THIS RELATED TO MY RESEARCH QUESTION WHICH IS

WHAT EFFECT DOES THE AMOUNT OF AIR PRESSURE HAVE ON HOW FAR A SOCCER BALL TRAVELS WHEN KICKED?

Answers

Answer:

The amount of air pressure in the area where the soccer ball is kicked can affect its trajectory and distance traveled. If the air pressure is lower, the ball may travel further due to less resistance from the air. On the other hand, if the air pressure is higher, the ball may not travel as far due to increased resistance from the air. Therefore, understanding the relationship between air pressure and the distance a soccer ball travels when kicked can be useful in predicting and analyzing the performance of a soccer player or team.

nk cells derive from the same stem cells as b and t cells. these cells differentiate self from nonself through choose one: a. tlrs. b. mhcs. c. macs. d. mamps.

Answers

NK cells are derived from the same stem cells as b and t cells, these cells differentiate self from nonself through (b) MHCs.

The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) is an essential component in the immune system's ability to distinguish among self and non-self antigens. MHC limits how an antigen is presented to the outside.

The remaining choices are incorrect due to the fact that they do not play a role in the mentioned discrimination but rather play different roles. The membrane attack complex, often known as MACs, is created in the complement pathway. Its purpose is to eliminate antigens; it does not distinguish across self and nonself antigens. Similar to this, TLRs (toll-like receptors) play a receptor role in the innate immune system and do not distinguish among self and nonself.

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Help please, info in the pic

Answers

Differentiation- An increase in the specialization of a cell.

Homologous chromosomes- Pairs of chromosomes that have similar lengths, centromere locations, and gene position.

Cancer- A disease caused by disruptions in the cell cycle that leads to uncontrollable growth and reproduction of certain cell types.

Senescent cells- A cell that cannot reproduce itself any longer but can still carry out its function.

Apoptosis- The series of steps a cell takes to self-destruct.

Gene expression- The process by which instructions in DNA are used to produce a protein or other functional product.

Fibroblasts- Cells that make tissues.

Multipotent- Can become many different types of specialized cells within a tissue or organ.

Which of the following factors DOES NOT affect the pulmonary and systemic gas exchange rate?
a. Molecular weight and solubility of the gases
b. All are factors that affect gas exchange rate
c. Partial Pressure difference of gases
d. Diffusion distance
e. Surface area available for gas excha

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:

cause you it is telling you your factors and you dont need that

Atmospheric
pressure is also known as barometric pressure because it
is measured using a barometer. A rising barometer indicates increasing
atmospheric pressure and a falling barometer indicates decreasing
atmospheric pressure.

HOW DOES THIS FACT FROM MY SUB QUESTION ANSWER THAT COMES FROM A ARTICLE RELATE TO MY RESEARCH QUESTION WHICH IS

What effect does the amount of air pressure have on how far a soccer ball travels when kicked?

Answers

Answer:

The greater the air pressure in the ball, the farther it will travel when a force is applied,the lower the friction, the farther the ball will go.

Atmospheric pressure may also affect how far the ball will travel.

TRUE/FALSE. three types of threats to biodiversity are: habitat loss and fragmentation the introduction of exotic, or non-native, species overexploitation, or overharvesting

Answers

The statement above is true that three types of threats to biodiversity are: habitat loss and fragmentation the introduction of exotic, or non-native, species overexploitation, or overharvesting.

What is Biodiversity?

Biodiversity is a term used for the diversity of natural resources, including the number and frequency of ecosystems, species and genes in a place.

Biodiversity Level

Gene level: Rice (Oryza sativa), Mango (Mangifera indica), Dog (Canis familiaris), Cat (Felis catus).Species level: lime (Citrus aurantifolia), sweet orange (Citrus nobilis), leopard cat (Felis bengalensis), domestic cat (Felis silvestris).Ecosystem Level: Moss ecosystems are located in areas around mountain peaks or in cold areas around the poles and are dominated by mosses. Animals that can be found in it are thick furry animals such as polar bears.

Biodiversity Benefits:

Clothing and Food Sector: Humans can meet their protein needs from animal products, namely eggs and fish meat and various other marine animals.Field of Ecology: Acts as the lungs of the earth and maintains global climate stability.Pharmaceutical Field: Honey is believed to increase the immune system of anyone who drinks it.Field of Science and Technology: Until now there are still many animals and plants that have not been studied and their benefits are not known. Thus this situation can still be used as a means of developing knowledge and research for various fields of knowledge.

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A chemist is trying to get two substances to react, but he is unsuccessful. He knows that the two substances should react with one another. Which of the following could he do to possibly get the substances to react? (Select all that apply)

a
increase the concentration of one of the substances
b
crush up one of the substances
c
decrease the concentration of one of the substances
d
cool the substances
e
heat the substances

Answers

Answer:

heat the substances

If we heat the substances because heating will make any substances react

By heating the substance, it is possible that the substances react to form the product. Heating a substance will increase the kinetic energy of the substance. Thus, the correct option is E.

What is a Chemical reaction?

A chemical reaction is a process during which one or more substances, known as reactants, are converted to different substances, known as products. The substances are either chemical elements or compounds depending upon the reactants.

Heating the solution will result into formation of product as an increase in temperature will typically increases the rate of reaction by increasing the average kinetic energy of the reactant molecules in a solution. This will increase the collision frequency between substances in a solution which will lead to formation of products.

Therefore, the correct option is E.


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Part 1: Crossing Beak Color and Tail-Feather Length
Cross a YyLl (heterozygous parent with dominant traits) with yyll (homozygous parent with recessive traits). Look at the number of genotypes of the F1 generation:
YyLl: 400
Yyll: 100
yyLl: 100
yyll: 400

1. Which offspring are the recombinant offspring in this cross?
Answer:
2. How far apart are Y and L? Give your answer in map units. (Hint: Add the numbers of the two recombinant types, divide by the total number of offspring, and multiply by 100.)
Answer:
Part 2: Crossing Beak Color and Feather Color
1. Cross one parent that is heterozygous for both beak color and feather color with a parent that is homozygous for both recessive traits. What are the genotypes of the parents? (Hint: Recall that the P generation includes a heterozygous parent with dominant traits and a homozygous parent with recessive traits.)
Assume the following F1 generation:
YyBb: 420
Yybb: 80
yyBb: 80
yybb: 420
Answer:
2. Which offspring are the recombinant offspring in this cross?
3. How far apart are Y and B?
Part 3: Crossing Tail-Feather Length and Feather Color
Cross a P generation, LlBb with llbb. Assume the following F1 generation:
LlBb: 480
Llbb: 20
llBb: 20
llbb: 480
1. Which offspring are not the recombinant offspring in this cross?
2. How far apart are L and B?
Part 4: Mapping Beak Color, Tail-Feather Length, and Feather Color
1. List the distances between each pair of genes:
beak color and tail-feather length:
beak color and feather color:
tail-feather length and feather color:
2. Which two alleles are the farthest apart?
3. Which two alleles are the closest together?
4. True or False: The diagram shows the correct genetic map for these three alleles on one chromosome.

Answers

Linked genes are too close to each other, so most of them can not distribute independently and there are few recombination events between them. Part 1: 1) Yyll and yyLl. 2) 20 mu. Part 2: 1) YyBb and yybb. 2) Yybb and yyBb. 3) 16 mu. Part 3: 1) LlBb and llbb. 2) 4mu. Part 4: 1) Y-L: 20MU, Y-B: 16 MU, L-B: 4MU. 2) Y-L. 3) L-B. 4) True.

What are linked genes?

Genes located too close to each other on the same chromosome can not segregate independently. They do not exhibit an independent distribution and inherit together more frequently. These are linked genes.

We must observe the progeny distribution to know if two genes are linked.

If heterozygous individuals, whose genes assort independently, are test crossed, they produce a progeny with equal phenotypic frequencies 1:1:1:1.If we observe a different distribution, and phenotypes appear in different proportions, we can assume that genes are linked in the double heterozygote parent.

Crossing over between linked genes is not that common. In this way, we can recognize the recombinant genotypes by looking at the phenotypes with the lowest frequencies among the progeny.

Recombination frequency between these genes can be calculated by using the formula

P = Recombinant number / Total of individuals.

The genetic distance will result from multiplying that frequency by 100 and expressing it in map units (MU).

The map unit is the distance between the pair of genes for which every 100 meiotic products, one of them results in a recombinant product.

In the present example:

Part 1: Crossing Beak Color and Tail-Feather Length

Parentals) YyLl   x   yyll

F1)

400 YyLl

100 Yyll

100 yyLl

400 yyll

1. Which offspring are the recombinant offspring in this cross?

Yyll and yyLl are the genotypes with the lowest frequency, so we can assume these are the recombinant individuals.

2. How far apart are Y and L?

P = Recombinant number / Total of individuals

P = 100 + 100 / 1000 = 0.2

MU = P x 100 = 0.2 x 100 = 20 mu

Part 2: Crossing Beak Color and Feather Color

Cross: one parent that is heterozygous for both beak color and feather color with a parent that is homozygous for both recessive traits.

Parentals) YyBb   x   yybb

F1)

420 YyBb

80 Yybb

80 yyBb

420 yybb

1. What are the genotypes of the parents?

YyBb and yybb

2. Which offspring are the recombinant offspring in this cross?

Yybb and yyBb are the genotypes with the lowest frequency, so we can assume these are the recombinant individuals.

3. How far apart are Y and B?

P = Recombinant number / Total of individuals

P = 80 + 80 / 1000 = 0.16

MU = P x 100 = 0.16 x 100 = 16 mu

Part 3: Crossing Tail-Feather Length and Feather Color

Parentals) LlBb  x  llbb

F1)

480 LlBb

20 Llbb

20 llBb

480 llbb

1. Which offspring are not the recombinant offspring in this cross?

LlBb and llbb are the genotypes with the highest frequency, so we can assume these are not the recombinant individuals.

2. How far apart are L and B?

P = Recombinant number / Total of individuals

P = 20 + 20 / 1000 = 0.04

MU = P x 100 = 0.04 x 100 = 4 mu

Part 4: Mapping Beak Color, Tail-Feather Length, and Feather Color

1. List the distances between each pair of genes:

beak color and tail-feather length: 20 mubeak color and feather color: 16 mutail-feather length and feather color: 4mu

2. Which two alleles are the farthest apart?

Genes Y and B are the frathest apart

3. Which two alleles are the closest together?

Genes L and B are the closest together

4. True or False: The diagram shows the correct genetic map for these three alleles on one chromosome.

True, The diagram shows the correct genetic map for these three alleles on one chromosome.

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TRUE/FALSE. if both parents are overweight, their children are twice as likely to be overweight as children with one overweight parent.

Answers

It is TRUE that children with two overweight parents have a higher risk of being overweight than children with only one.

Among the two, which group has a faster metabolism?

The average metabolic rate of a woman is higher than a man's. Reduced metabolic rate is caused by prior weight loss. People's metabolisms speed up when they gain more lean body mass. When compared to other forms of transportation, flying is the most expensive.

Do the majority of people's genes have a significant impact on how they become obese?

The single-gene (monogenic) obesity syndrome has so far been linked to uncommon variations in at least nine genes. No one hereditary factor can be blamed for obesity in the majority of fat persons. Over 50 genes have been linked to obesity since 2006, according to studies on genome-wide associations.

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which of the following functional groups does not afford an alcohol when treated with a Grignard reagent followed by a protic work-up?

Answers

When Nitrile functional groups are treated with a Grignard reagent followed by a protic work-up, no alcohol is produced.

Grignard reagent: What is it?

Organometallic compounds known as Grignard reagents are very helpful in the study of organic chemistry. They possess potent nucleophilic properties and the capacity to create fresh carbon-carbon bonds. A Hauser base is the substance that results when an amido group is added to a Grignard reagent in place of the alkyl group. Even more nucleophilic than their Grignard counterparts, these chemicals.

Describe nitrile.

Colorless solids or liquids with distinctive odours are nitriles. Their boiling temperatures range from 82 to 118 °C. Strong dipole-dipole interactions as well as the Van der Waals forces of dispersion between the molecules are both present in nitriles.

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The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is
turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
permanently turned on.

Answers

The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is only permanently turned off when glucose is available in the growth medium.

In the field of genetics, an operon is a functional piece of DNA that houses a collection of genes that are all regulated by the same promoter.The genes are combined during transcription into a single strand of messenger RNA (mRNA), which is then either translated simultaneously in the cytoplasm or split into monocistronic mRNAs, which are translated independently and consist of multiple strands of mRNA that each encode a single gene product. This has the effect of either causing the operon's genes to express themselves simultaneously or not at all. To define an operon, several genes must co-transcribe.

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The point where the axon terminal synapses with the muscle fiber sarcolemma is called the _____________. a. sarcolemma junction b. active site c. neuromuscular junction d. membrane receptor

Answers

The point where the axon terminal synapses with the muscle fiber sarcolemma is called the neuromuscular junction.

The neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is a highly specialized synapse between a motor neuron nerve terminal and its muscle fiber that are responsible for converting electrical impulses generated by the motor neuron into electrical activity in the muscle fibers. On arrival of the motor nerve action potential, calcium enters the presynaptic terminal, which leads to the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh).

ACh crosses the synaptic gap and binds to ACh receptors tightly clustered on the surface of the muscle fiber, this leads to the endplate potential which initiates the muscle action potential that results in muscle contraction.

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Zero level channel of distribution is also
called as
OA. direct marketing
OB. multilevel marketing
OC. two level marketing
O D. micro level marketing

Answers

Zero level channel of distribution is also called as direct marketing and is therefore denoted as option A.

What is Marketing?

This is referred to as the activity or business of promoting and selling products or services an dis usually done so as to increase the sales and profit needed to keep the organization afloat.

On the other hand, Zero level channel of distribution is also known as direct marketing and it includes an organization directly selling its products to the customers without a middle man such as the wholesalers or retailers and is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.

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a protein that uses atp hydrolysis to separate the two dna strands during replication is called . group of answer choices all of these are good answers helicase gyrase

Answers

The protein that uses ATP hydrolysis to separate the two DNA strands during replication is called helicases.

DNA is the genetic material present in majority of the living organisms. It is a double stranded DNA molecule that is helical in shape with anti-parallel strands. The constituents of DNA are: deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group and the 4 nitrogenous bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine.

Replication is the process of making a duplicate copy of DNA. The process occurs in the nucleus of the eukaryotic cell and the nucleoid of the prokaryotic cell. Both the strands of a DNA molecule act as the template strand for DNA synthesis.

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What would the progeny be if you crossed a homozygous rose combed hen with a homozygous pea combed roster? What are the phenotypic ratios that you would see in the F2 progeny?

Answers

The F1 progeny from this cross would all have pea combs. The F2 progeny would have a phenotypic ratio of 3:1—three pea combed chickens for every one rose combed chicken.

The progeny of a homozygous rose combed hen crossed with a homozygous pea combed rooster would be a combination of both rose and pea combs. The phenotypic ratio of the F2 progeny would be 3 rose combs: 1 pea comb.

To explain this ratio, we can look at the Punnett square for this cross. The Punnett square for this cross would look like this:

Hen (RR)  |  Rooster (PP)

-------------------

R | R

R | P

In this Punnett square, the hen is homozygous for the rose comb gene (RR) and the rooster is homozygous for the pea comb gene (PP). The offspring, therefore, would all be heterozygous (Rp) for the rose and pea comb genes.

The F2 progeny would then be a 3:1 ratio of rose combs to pea combs. This is because the heterozygous (Rp) offspring would all have a dominant rose comb allele and a recessive pea comb allele. The offspring would have a 3:1 chance of inheriting the dominant rose comb gene,

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Under optimal conditions the number of DNA molecules amplified from a single molecule in a PCR after 30 amplification cycles will be
A) 30
B) 30 x 2
C) 30^2
D) 2^30
E) 30^30

Answers

Under optimal conditions the number of DNA molecules amplified from a single molecule in a PCR after 30 amplification cycles will be (d) 2^30.

The sample is heated so that the DNA denatures, or splits into two pieces of single-stranded DNA, prior to utilizing PCR to amplify a section of DNA. Also,  "Taq polymerase" , an enzyme makes two new DNA strands using the old and previous strands as templates for help. The outcome of this process is the duplication of the original DNA, with one old and one new strand of DNA present in each of the new molecules.

After then, each of these strands may be used to make two other copies, and so on. More than one billion precise duplicates of the original DNA segment are produced when the cycle of denaturing and synthesizing new DNA is repeated up to 30 or 40 times.

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The function of the urinary bladder is to:
A serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body.
B expel urine from the body, aided by the urethra.
C help concentrate the urine in periods of dehydration.
D do both A and B.
D) do both A and B.

Answers

The function of the urinary bladder is to, Serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body and expels urine from the body, aided by the urethra. Thus Both A and B.

Urinary Bladder, The lower abdomen is home to this hollow triangle organ. Ligaments that are attached to the pelvic bones and other organs keep it in place. The bladder's walls serve as a reservoir as it unwinds and grows to store urine and expel urine through the urethra.

Urine leakage can be caused by urinary stones, which are hard, stone-like masses that form in the bladder. Disorders of the brain. Urinary incontinence can be brought on by conditions like multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease, a stroke, a brain tumor, or a spinal injury that disrupt the nerve signals that control the bladder.

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True or False: The parasympathetic nervous system controls both erection and contraction of the smooth muscle in the seminal vesicle.

Answers

The answer is false. One step further is the rhythmic contraction of the perineal muscles, which is controlled by the somatic muscles, during ejaculation.

What is under the jurisdiction of the parasympathetic nervous system?

Your body is relaxed by your parasympathetic nervous system, a network of nerves cells , after stressful times. During the times when you feel secure and ease, it also aids in the operation of life-sustaining functions like digestion.

Parasympathetic arousal: What is it?

Parasympathetic arousal is linked to feelings of enhanced wellbeing and focus. Although arousal may have a significant impact on several cortical and subcortical brain regions, little is known about how it affects the execution and processing of cognitive tasks.

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Joints in which the bone ends are bound together by hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage are classified as:
A. Immovable joints
B. Synovial joints
C. Cartilaginous joints
D. Fibrous joints

Answers

C. Cartilaginous joints ,articular cartilage joints

In cartilaginous joints, hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage holds the bones together. The joints are further divided into primary and secondary cartilaginous joints depending on the kind of cartilage involved. Amphiarthroses. Amphiarthroses are joints with a small range of motion. The word "amphiarthrosis" is singular. In this kind of joint, hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage holds the bones together. Between the right and left pubic bones is the symphysis pubis.

The sternal body and the manubrium form the manubriosternal joint.

discs between the vertebrae.

symphysis of the sacrococcyx. Fibrous connective tissue holds the bones of fibrous joints together. Since there is no cavity or space between the bones, the majority of fibrous joints remain immobile or have limited range of motion. Three varieties of fibrous tissue exist.

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each protein from particular arrangements of the 20 common amino acids; this means that for a chain of just seven amino acids, there are over [ select ] possibilities!

Answers

Each protein from particular arrangements of the 20 common amino acids and this means that for a chain of just seven amino acids, there are over one-tenth of the possibilities.

Amino acids are organic compounds that contain each amino and acid practical teams. though many amino acids exist in nature, far and away the foremost necessary square measure the alpha-amino acids, that comprise proteins. solely twenty two alpha amino acids seem within the ordination

A chain of amino acids is known as petide bonds which are those bonds that connect aminoalkanoic acids; created once the acid cluster of 1 amino acid is joined with the nitrogen-containing alkane series cluster of another amino acid through condensation.

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the energy we expend to maintain respiration and circulation is known as the energy cost of physical activity. True or False

Answers

The energy cost of physical activity refers to the energy required to maintain our breathing and blood circulation. False.

Energy expenditure describes how much a person uses during physical activity and to maintain vital bodily processes like respiration, circulation, and digestion. Even when the body is at rest, it needs energy (kilojoules) to keep all of its systems running smoothly. This is known as the basal metabolic rate (BMR) (such as breathing, keeping the heart beating to circulate blood, growing and repairing cells and adjusting hormone levels). The energy used up while movement is known as physical activity energy expenditure, or PAEE. The thermic effect of food, sometimes referred to as diet-induced energy expenditure, is connected to food digestion, absorption, and storage.

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Which of the following describes an example of selection?
Group of answer choices
Allele R reaches a frequency of 1.0 because individuals with genotype rr are sterile.
Allele m is lost when a virus kills all but a few individuals and just by chance, none of the survivors possess allele m.
Random mutation increases the frequency of allele A in one population but not in another.
Allele g for fat production increases in a small population because birds with more body fat survive better during harsh winter.

Answers

The statement which best describes an example of natural selection is that Allele m is lost when a virus kills all but a few individuals and just by chance, none of the survivors possess allele m, which means option B is the right answer.

Alleles refers to the two versions of DNA sequence which are located at a specific genomic location. Natural selection has short term effect in changing the frequency of a particular allele while it has long term effects on fixing a specific allele among the population. Natural selection is based on Darwin's theory of survival of the fittest. The allele which tends to surpass all the extremities of nature is best suited to survive in the environment. Since there are few alleles than genotypes, hence it becomes convenient to describe the gene pool by using allele frequencies than genotypes itself.

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label the nerves of the lumbar plexus (t12 and l1-l4) anterior view by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

Answers

Labeling of the nerves of the lumbar plexus (t12 and l1-l4) anterior are done below:

How many nerves are in the lumbar plexus?

Additionally, the lumbosacral plexus releases five nerves, each of which is named after the muscle it innervates. There are several of them, including the quadratus femoris nerve (L4-S1), the obturator internus nerve (L5-S2), the piriformis nerve (S1-S2), and nerves to the levator ani and coccygeus that emerge from S3 and S4, respectively.

The nerves that originate in your lower back go downward and combine with other nerves to produce a network of nerves that regulates pain perception and lower limb motion. The groyne and genital region are sensed by the L1 spinal nerve, which also aids in hip muscle movement.

Thus, labeling in the image are shown below:

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The complete question is as follows:

Endocrine cells A) are modified connective tissue cells. B are a type of nerve cell. release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood. D release their secretions onto an epithelial surface. (E) contain few vesicles.

Answers

Endocrine cells release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood. The correct option is C.

What are endocrine cells?

Endocrine cells are in charge of producing and releasing hormone molecules into the body. Endocrine cells are typically grouped together in organs referred to as endocrine glands.

Endocrine cells are typically arranged in cords or small clumps, with each cell closely associated with neighboring vessels.

Endocrine gland vessels have fenestrated endothelium to facilitate hormone diffusion into blood.

They are mostly found in two places: scattered in the gut mucosal epithelium or in more concentrated clusters, called islets, in the pancreas.

Mucosal cells, also known as intraepithelial endocrine or enteroendocrine cells, are typically open.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. two chambers, the utricle and saccule, contain receptors called___which are composed of___embedded within a gelatinous otolithic membrane.

Answers

The macula, which are receptors found in the utricle and saccule, are made up of hair cells that are encased in a gelatinous otolithic membrane.

The utriculus and saccule, which are situated in the bony vestibule, contain the receptor known as the macula. The semicircular canals of the ear have receptors that produce information about rotational movements (angular acceleration), while the utricle and saccule have receptors that produce information about linear acceleration and the effects of gravity. The inner ear is made up of three tiny semicircular canals that are filled with fluid and are situated deep inside the brain (ducts). Each duct's end has a protrusion called an ampulla. The crista, or tiny "balancing" receptors, are found in the ampulla.

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an individual who is the offspring of two closely related parents will likely have homozygous alleles identical by . please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices descent domains state sequence

Answers

An individual who is the offspring of two closely related parents will likely have homozygous alleles identical by descent.

An allele is certainly one of two or greater variations of DNA sequence (a single base or a segment of bases) at a given genomic vicinity. An person inherits  alleles, one from each discern, for any given genomic place wherein such variant exists. If the two alleles are the equal, the person is homozygous for that allele. If the alleles are exclusive, the man or woman is heterozygous.

"Allele" is the phrase that we use to describe the alternative form or variations of a gene. humans inherit one allele for each autosomal gene from every discern, and we generally tend to lump the alleles into classes. usually, we call them either regular or wild-type alleles, or ordinary, or mutant alleles.

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what icd10cm code for insertion of an artificial inflatable urinary sphincter for urinary incontinence.

Answers

N36.42 Intrinsic sphincter deficiency (ISD) and N39.3 Stress incontinence are the codes for inserting an artificial inflatable urinary sphincter for urine incontinence.

Implantation of an artificial urinary sphincter device is considered medically necessary in adults following prostate surgery to treat urinary incontinence due to reduced outlet resistance (Intrinsic Sphincter Deficiency [ISD]) when the symptoms of incontinence have been refractory to at least 6 months of conservative medical treatment. The most commonly billed code utilizing the AMS 800 Urinary Control System is CPT 53445 (Insertion of inflatable urethral/bladder neck sphincter, including placement of pump, reservoir and cuff)

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The tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) is a substance released from damaged endothelial cells, which helps convert plasminogen into plasmin to start the clotting process.

Answers

The glycoprotein activator (tPA), a component of the fibrinolytic system, converts plasminogen from plasminogen to plasmin.

What use does plasminogen serve?

The primary enzyme that breaks down fibrin clots is plasmin, and its zymogen is called plasminogen (PLG). PLG preferentially interacts at cell surfaces where, in contrast to the reaction in solution, it is more effectively activated by PLG activators. This is in addition to its affinity and activating on fibrin clots.

Is plasminogen a factor in clotting?

The primary proteolytic process responsible for breaking down blood clots is the plasminogen (Plg) system. The main manifestation of thrombotic disease is either increased clot generation or impaired clot breakdown.

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