Allopolyploid is the term for a normally diploid organism that would have two sets of chromosomes from one species and have one set of chromosomes from another species.
A species has two or more full sets of chromosomes from several species is known as an allopolyploid. While an autopolyploid, like salmon or potatoes, arises through genome duplication within the same diploid organism, an allopolyploid, like wheat or the African clawed frog, is created by hybridization with two or more species and chromosomal doubling. When two closely related species hybridize, the process usually involves fertilizing two unreduced gametes or, less frequently, doubling the diploid organism genome after fertilizing two reduced gametes.
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which molecule is most likely to pass through a lipid bilayer via simple diffusion at the lowest rate (fewest number of molecules per minute)?
Water, which can easily move through cell membranes, is the chemical most likely to be involved in simple diffusion.
Which chemical has the greatest chance of moving through a lipid bilayer via simple diffusion?Simple diffusion requires relatively small, non-charged molecules to move through the membrane. Small nonpolar molecules like carbon dioxide and oxygen gas are able to diffuse through the plasma membrane with ease.
Which chemical has the lowest probability of passing through a lipid bilayer by simple diffusion?Because it is a tiny molecule, water can easily pass through a cell membrane even though it has lipid tails. Osmosis is the name for water diffusion. Due to its tiny size and nonpolar nature, oxygen can easily pass through a cell membrane.
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What type of bond connects the oxygen atom to the two hydrogen atoms in water?
Answer:La molécula de agua está compuesta por dos átomos de hidrógeno y uno de oxígeno unidos por un enlace covalente. Es decir, los dos átomos de hidrógeno y el de oxígeno se unen compartiendo electrones
Explanation:
Answer: covalent bonds
Explanation: Polar covalent bond is a chemical bond in which the electrons required to form a bond is unequally shared between two atoms. The bonds between oxygen and the hydrogen atoms within the water molecule are polar covalent bonds which means that the electrons in the water molecules are not shared equally between oxygen and hydrogen.
What phase of mitosis is occurring in the picture?
Prophase
Cytokinesis
Metaphase
Telophase
Which of the following is a matter of inheritance?
a. Personality Traits
b. Habits and Routines
c. Character
d. Manners and Etiquettesâ
Answer: a. Personality Traits
The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that
a. is diploid
b. is haploid
c. carries out the majority of photosynthesis
d. produces the most gametes
The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that c. carries out the majority of photosynthesis.
Light energy is transformed into chemical energy in the form of sugars through a process called photosynthesis. While carbon dioxide and water are transformed into glucose using light energy, oxygen is created as a byproduct (or other sugars). The conversion of light energy into chemical energy occurs in green plants and certain other animals through a process called photosynthesis. Green plants employ light energy during photosynthesis to transform water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen- and energy-rich organic molecules. Chloroplasts in the mesophyll of leaves are where photosynthesis occurs. Chlorophyll absorbs the various light colours in the thylakoids of the chloroplast to produce energy.
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during times of relaxation, the division of the autonomic nervous system utilizes discrete and localized innervation, stimulating only one or a few structures at the same time.
during times of relaxation, the division of the autonomic nervous system utilizes discrete and localized innervation, stimulating only one or a few structures at the same time with parasympathetic nervous system.
The parasympathetic nervous system, along with the sympathetic and enteric nervous systems, is one of the three parts of the autonomic nervous system (PSNS). Sometimes the enteric nervous system is viewed as a part of the autonomic nervous system and other times it is seen as a distinct system.
The autonomic nervous system is responsible for controlling the body's automatic processes. Only a few of the "rest-and-digest" or "feed-and-breed" processes that the parasympathetic nervous system activates when the body is at rest, particularly after eating, include salivation, lacrimation (tears), urination, digestion, and feces. The sympathetic nervous system, which is in charge of triggering the physiological reactions involved in the fight-or-flight response, is said to benefit from its actions.
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Biography about Thomas Alva Edison
2 paragraphs
plsss help mee plsss
Answer:
Thomas Alva Edison was an American inventor and businessman who is best known for his contributions to the development of the electric light bulb and the phonograph. Born in Milan, Ohio, in 1847, Edison had a difficult childhood and was forced to leave school at an early age to help support his family. Despite this, he developed a love for science and technology and began experimenting with electrical devices at an early age.
Edison's first major invention was the electric light bulb, which he developed in 1879. This revolutionary invention changed the way people lived and worked, and it helped to usher in the era of electricity. Edison also invented the phonograph, which was the first device that could record and play back sound. In addition to these inventions, Edison was also responsible for a number of other important technological innovations, including the motion picture camera and the first commercially viable incandescent light bulb. He died in 1931 at the age of 84.
Answer:
Thomas Edison, in full Thomas Alva Edison, (born February 11, 1847, Milan, Ohio, U.S.—died October 18, 1931, West Orange, New Jersey), American inventor who, singly or jointly, held a world-record 1,093 patents. In addition, he created the world's first industrial research laboratoryWhat decreases the chance that the evidence of life will be left wher
something dies?
Answer: the answer is scavengers.
Explanation:
Put the following steps used to transport proteins into mitochondria into the proper order. 1) The mitochondrial protein is synthesized in the cytosol. 2) The receptor on the mitochondrial membrane binds the signal sequence on the protein. 3) The protein is delivered to the translocation apparatus on the mitochondria.
The correct order is 1,3,
(1) The mitochondrial protein is synthesized in the cytosol.
(3) The protein is delivered to the translocation apparatus on the mitochondria.
What is mitochiondria?
The majority of the chemical energy required to drive a cell's metabolic operations is produced by mitochondria, which are membrane-bound cell organelles (mitochondrion, singular). Adenosine triphosphate, a tiny molecule, serves as a storage container for the chemical energy generated by the mitochondria (ATP).
Within seconds or minutes of their release from ribosomes, proteins released into the cytosol are typically picked up by the matrix of mitochondria. Precursor proteins for mitochondrial proteins are first fully generated in the cytoplasm before being transported into mitochondria by a posttranslational mechanism. A protease in the mitochondrial matrix quickly removes the signal sequence that most mitochondrial precursor proteins carry at their N terminus following import. The import of the proteins containing the signal sequences is both possible and required.
As a result, the mitochondrial protein is created in the cytosol, supplied to the mitochondrial translocation apparatus, and then the receptor on the mitochondrial membrane binds the protein's signal sequence.
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all of the following represent diagnostic features of chordates except for which one?
a. vertebrae
b. a notochord
c. a dorsal hollow nerve cord
d. pharyngeal slits
The embryonic of these groups is contained in the thinnest layer. It is not found in every chordate. All chordates have paired gill pouches, a notochord, and a dorsal nerve cord. Amnion is the correct response, thus.
"The notochord, single, ventral, tubular nerve cord, pharyngeal pouches, and postanal propulsion tail are the four distinguishing features that, when combined, differentiate chordates from all other phyla.The embryonic of these groups is contained in the thinnest layer. It is not found in every chordate. All chordates have paired gill pouches, a notochord, and a dorsal nerve cord. Amnion is the correct response, thus. The organisms in the chordates can be identified by four distinct characteristics: 1) the development of an offer a range past the anus; 2) a pliable rod spanning the width of the individual's body called the notochord, upon which the remainder of the spinal column depends for stability; 3) a hollow dorsal nerve cord (... All vertebrates qualify as chordates and have the same anatomical and morphological features, including an ectoderm, a hollow dorsal nerve cord, pharynx slits, and a comment tail.
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the two-neuron chain allows increased communication and control of the effector organ.State True or False your answer:
a. True
b. False
Answer:
a. True
Explanation:
The two neuron chain allows increased communications and control the effector organ. the cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic division are located... Which of the following parasympathetic nerves controls the production of tears, nasal secretion and saliva.
starting with a single strand of dna, how many strands would you expect after 4 cycles of pcr? after 10 cycles?
The number of double-stranded pieces of DNA doubles with each cycle, so after n cycles, we have 2^n (2 raised to the nth power) copies of DNA. For example, 1024 copies after 10 cycles and about 1 million copies after 20 cycles.
DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is the genetic material of humans and almost all other organisms. Almost all cells in the human body have the same DNA.
DNA is the information molecule. It stores instructions for making other large molecules called proteins. These instructions are stored in each cell and spread over 46 long structures called chromosomes. These chromosomes are made up of thousands of short DNA segments called genes.
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Which phase comes NEXT?
Prophase
anaphase
metaphase
telophase
The phase occuring in the picture is anaphase and the next phase after anaphase is telophase. So the next phase is telophase.
Check each of the true statements about the proteins involved in cutting and pasting DNA. More than one statement may be true.
1. DNA ligase pastes together segments of DNA with matching sticky ends. DNA ligase cuts DNA at specific locations called restriction sites.
2. A restriction enzyme cuts DNA while DNA ligase pastes DNA.
3. A restriction enzyme can cut DNA ligase at its restriction site.
4. A particular restriction enzyme only cuts DNA at one very specific DNA sequence.
5. A particular restriction enzyme cuts DNA at multiple sequences.
The statements which are true about proteins involved in the cutting and pasting of DNA are :
1. A restriction enzyme cuts DNA while DNA ligase pastes DNA.
2. A particular restriction enzyme only cuts DNA at one very specific DNA sequence.
3. DNA ligase pastes together segments of DNA with matching sticky ends.
The double helix-shaped structure of DNA is made up of two complementary strands of nucleotides. Although they don't always do in the same way, restriction enzymes cleave through both nucleotide strands of DNA to separate it into pieces.
An enzyme that cuts DNA and recognizes particular DNA locations is known as a restriction enzyme. In order to produce ends with a single-stranded overhang, several restriction enzymes conduct staggered cuts at or close to their recognition sites.
The DNA ligase enzyme can connect two DNA molecules together if their ends are identical. In order to create a single piece of DNA, DNA ligase closes the space between the molecules.
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HELP pls will mark you the brainliest
Answer:️ carbon dioxide, water
justify why when investigating fundamental genetic principles pea plants are likely to be a better model organism than elephants
Pea plants, scientifically known as Pisum sativum, are one of the oldest and most widely used model organisms for investigating fundamental genetic principles.
This is because of their many advantageous traits which make them particularly suitable for research. Pea plants are valued for their short generation time, ease of cultivation, large number of offspring, and the fact that they can be manipulated easily in the lab. When compared to elephants, it is clear that pea plants are the better model organism for investigating fundamental genetic principles.
One of the main advantages of pea plants is their short generation time. Pea plants are capable of flowering, producing seed, and repeating this cycle in as little as six weeks. This short period of time allows scientists to observe the effects of genetic manipulation or environmental changes on the plant in a relatively short amount of time. In contrast, elephants have a much longer generation time, with a gestation period of about two years and a juvenile period of roughly four to five years. This means that any genetic experiments would take a significantly longer amount of time to observe results.
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Dewayne reviews Kepler’s laws by making the table shown.
A chart with 2 columns and 4 rows, The first row is labeled Kepler's Law with entries W, X, Y. The second column is labeled Description with entries, the orbital period is related to the average distance from the Sun, orbits are ellipses with the Sun at a focus, a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time frames as it orbits the Sun.
Which label belongs in each cell of the table?
W: First
X: Second
Y: Third
W: Third
X: Second
Y: First
W: Third
X: First
Y: Second
W: Second
X: Third
Y: First
Answer: W: First
X: Second
Y: Third
Explanation:
The correct labeling for the table would be:
W: First
X: Second
Y: Third
This is because Kepler's three laws are often referred to as the First, Second, and Third laws, in that order. The first law states that the orbits of planets are ellipses with the Sun at one of the foci. The second law states that a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time frames as it orbits the Sun. The third law states that the orbital period of a planet is related to the average distance from the Sun.
why must chromosomes form a loop in order to pair during meiosis if one of the homologues has an inversion?
In order for the homologous regions of the normal and inverted chromosomes to align, the chromosomes must loop and pair during meiosis, where one of the homologs exhibits the inversion.
In order for the inverted region to pair with the corresponding region on the homologous chromosome, it must form a loop allowing the homologs to align along its length. After mating, crossovers occur and parts of the homologous chromosomes are exchanged.
The pairing of homologous chromosomes during meiosis is important for driving genetic variation. Due to the genetic recombination that occurs between homologous pairs during meiosis, the resulting haploid gametes contain chromosomes that are genetically distinct from each other.
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a) Using the terms, complete the following Paragraph: ATP, cellular respiration, photosynthesis, energy, plants, chemical
Living things require …….to grow, reproduce and perform metabolic processes. Green -------- can capture solar energy by the process of --------. The food from plants has stored……..energy. Through the process of -------, the food is broken down to produce ………. which is an energy molecule.
b) Consider the food chain below:
grass---->rabbit----> snake----> lion
1. How many trophic levels are in the food chain?
2. what organism in the above food chain is the producer?
3. What organism in the above food chain is the tertiary consumer?
4. What organism in the above food chain is the primary consumer?
5. If producers were absent, will the ecosystem still exist? Explain your answer.
6. How many percent of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next?
Answer: ATP,chemical,photosynthesis,respiration,energy,plant
what is oviviparous animals
Ovoviviparous animals possess embryos that develop inside eggs that remain in the mother's body until they are ready to hatch
.
How does the proteome of a species contain a larger number of proteins than genes that code for these proteins?.
Answer: Post-Transcription and Post-Translation Modifications
Explanation:
Following transcription, our cells have to go through RNA maturation which includes splicing out the introns before it can enter the cytoplasm. Alternative splicing is a post-transcriptional modification that can lead to an alternative protein products. Some introns may be left in while others are cut out etc. Refer to pic.
Following translation, a protein has been formed but can undergo post-translational modifications. Post-translational modifications refer to amino acid side chain modification in some proteins after their biosynthesis. There are more than 400 different types affecting many aspects of protein functions.
These are two ways that explain why there are more unique proteins than genes that encode them.
unlike bacterial infections, populations of pathogenic viruses do not evolve resistance to antiviral drugs. State True or False your answer:
a. True
b. False
It is False that unlike bacterial infections, populations of pathogenic viruses do not evolve resistance to antiviral drugs.
In populations of immunocompromised individuals, antiviral medication resistance is an increasing issue because persistent viral replication and prolonged drug exposure favor resistant virus subtypes. Rapid diagnosis of resistance is possible by comparing specific viral mutations with drug resistance discovered by phenotypic testing.
To manage drug resistance, one must optimize host factors and medicine administration, select alternative therapies based on knowledge of the mechanisms driving resistance, and develop innovative antivirals.
Hepatitis B and drug-resistant herpesviruses are discussed in this article. In populations of immunocompromised individuals, antiviral medication resistance is an increasing issue because persistent viral replication and prolonged drug exposure favor resistant virus subtypes.
phenotypic testing's detection of resistance to particular drugs in common viral variants allows for the quick detection of resistance.
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in a subsequent experiment, rats received an injection of a drug that blocked na channel function. if this drug had been injected directly into the olfactory bulb prior to conditioning, which result would be expected? the rats would:
In a subsequent experiment, rats received an injection of a drug that blocked na channel rat would lose its sense of smell.
What is drug?A drug that operates as a sodium channel blocker would prevent the generation of action potentials within the olfactory nerve and therefore result in no olfactory information being transmitted to the brain for further processing.
If the drug was injected directly into the olfactory bulb prior to conditioning, it would likely reduce the strength of the conditioned response, as the drug would interfere with the neural pathways that form the connection between the conditioned stimulus and the response. Additionally, it could impair the formation of new memory or learning, as the neural pathways associated with memory formation are also disrupted.
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2. how does acetyl coa generated inside the mitochondria reach the cytoplasm for use by the fatty acid biosynthetic pathway?
Transport of acetyl CoA from mitochondria:The membrane of the mitochondria is impermeable to acetyl CoA.
By oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate or oxidation of fatty acids, the mitochondria create acetyl CoA.
When the body has more ATP than it needs, the extra energy is stored as fatty acids.
Acetyl CoA thus starts the TCA cyce
If there is enough energy, acetyl CoA is used in the production of fatty acids.
Acetyl CoA must be moved from the mitochondria to the cytosol because fatty acid production takes place there. Citrate is transported out of mitochondria because it cannot pass the membrane.
The enzyme citrate synthase condenses acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate to produce citrate.
Acetyl CoA is released after citrate is converted back to oxaloacetate in the cytosol.
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See the picture of the question below
The area of the lumen that is available for blood flow would be 6.908 [tex]mm^2[/tex].
Are of a lumenThe lumens of arteries are usually cylindrical in shape with the formula for determining the area given as π[tex]r^2[/tex].
The diameter is usually the square of the radius, [tex]r^2[/tex].
Thus, for the lumen whose diameter is given as 4.0 mm, the area can be calculated as:
Area of lumen = 3.14 x 4
= 12.56 [tex]mm^2[/tex]
That's the area of the lumen before the deposition of cholesterol. The cholesterol took up 45% of the original area of the lumen. Thus:
45/100 x 12.56 = 5.652 [tex]mm^2[/tex]
The area of the lumen that is available for blood flow would then be:
12.56 - 5.652 = 6.908 [tex]mm^2[/tex]
In other words, the area of the lumen that would be available for blood flow is 6.908 [tex]mm^2[/tex].
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Biotic factors are the?
Answer:
living things in an environment
39. if natural selection eliminates the structures that are not required for an organism's survival, why do vestigial structures exist?
Changes in the environment and the creature in question's behavioral habits can be blamed for the existence of vestigial structure. The likelihood that future kids would inherit the "normal" form of the trait declines as the trait's survival-enhancing function declines.
Vestigial structures are ones that don't seem to serve any purpose and look like leftover pieces from an ancestor. Vestigial structures include things like the human appendix, a snake's pelvic bone, and the wings of birds that can't fly. A characteristic that a species received from an ancestor but that is currently less complex and useful than in the ancestor is referred to as a vestigial structure. In most cases, the appendix, coccyx (the tail bone), and tonsils are examples of vestigial organs in humans. The tiny wings of kiwis and emus are also well-known examples, as are the eyes of blind cave salamanders and fishes.
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What are two differences that happen when fall changes to winter?
Two differences between the events which occurs between fall and winter are as follows
In fall, temperature will start to reduce while in winter temperature will start increasing In fall, leaves usually fall off trees while in winter there is absence of leaves on trees.What is meant by winter?Winter simply refers to that season or period of the year in which the temperature is very cold. This means that it a period characterized by rise in temperature. During this period the weather is usually colder compared to the autumn period.
That being said, on the other hand, a period of autumn ( fall ) the weather is hotter due to the drop in the temperature and also the leaves on trees do usually get dried, change color and fall down.
In conclusion, we can now confirm from the explanation given above that the fall is a period also known as the autumn.
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in your analysis of a new bacterial species, you gram stained the bacteria and observed them under the microscope. the bacteria appear to have a round shape and a pink color. based on this information, you would classify these bacteria as
If the bacteria appear to have a round shape and a pink color. based on this information, you would classify these bacteria as Gram-negative cocci.
The color of a Gram stain is purple. The bacteria in a sample will either remain purple or change color to pink or red when the stain combines with them. In the event that the microorganisms stay purple, they are Gram-positive. Gram-negative bacteria are those that turn pink or red. Gram-negative microscopic organisms have cell walls with slim layers of peptidoglycan (10% of the cell wall) and high lipid (unsaturated fat) content. Under Gram stain, they appear pink to red as a result of this.
coccus, or Cocci, is a bacterium with a spherical shape in microbiology. Numerous bacterial species have distinctive arrangements that can be used to identify them.
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which of the following species is frequently detected in aggressive forms of periodontitis? group of answer choices a) a. odontolyticus b) a. actinomycetemcomitans c) porphyromonas gingivalis d) both b and c
Both Aa and Pg are frequently detected in aggressive forms of periodontitis. Therefore, the answer to the question is both Aa and Pg (d).
Periodontitis is an inflammatory condition of the gums and teeth that often results in the destruction of the periodontal ligament and underlying alveolar bone. The condition is caused by a variety of bacterial species, which can be divided into two main categories: aggressive periodontitis and chronic periodontitis.
Aggressive periodontitis is characterized by rapid destruction of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone. It is most commonly associated with the presence of certain bacterial species, such as Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (Aa) and Porphyromonas gingivalis (Pg). Both of these species are frequently detected in aggressive forms of periodontitis.
Aa is a gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium that is capable of producing large amounts of toxins and enzymes that can damage the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone. Pg is a gram-negative, anaerobic bacterium that produces enzymes and toxins that can also damage the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone.
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