a person with an amputated hand is evaluated by a neurologist who gently strokes the patient's cheek. why might the patient report a phantom limb experience?

Answers

Answer 1

The body develops proprioceptors to compensate for the missing limb that's why the person feels phantom limb pain while stroking other body parts.

The straight channel paradigm of pain makes it challenging to explain the "phantom limb" occurrence. The phantom pain may, at least in part, be explained as the brain's reaction to conflicting information. Following an amputation, certain parts of the spinal cord and brain no longer receive signals from the amputated limb, and they adapt to this detachment in unforeseen ways. The excitatory glutamatergic (Glu) neurons in the putamen and caudate nucleus of the striatum are part of the direct pathway, which extends from the cortex. Inhibitory GABAergic striatal neurons project their axons to the medial (internal) globus pallidus and the substantia nigra, pars reticulate (SNr).

The complete question is:

A person with an amputated hand is evaluated by a neurologist who gently strokes the patient's cheek. why might the patient report a phantom limb experience?

a) The experience is purely psychological.

b) Sensory neurons previously associated with the limb fire action potentials associated with pain.

c) Sensory neurons previously associated with the limb are damaged.

d) The body develops proprioceptors to compensate for the missing limb.

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Related Questions

Vesalius and other sixteenth-century physicians, who made important contributions to medical knowledge, had which of the following in common?a.A realization that microscopic infection caused diseaseb.A heavy reliance on hospitals to treat serious injuriesc.Knowledge of a primitive system of vaccinationd.Anatomical knowledge based on dissection of apese.A willingness to challenge Greco-Roman medical authority

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Vesalius and other sixteenth-century physicians, who made important contributions to medical knowledge, had a willingness to challenge Greco-Roman medical authority in common.

Andreas Vesalius was a 16th-century expert, physician, and author of 1 of the foremost prestigious books on human anatomy, First State Humani Corporis Fabrica Libri Septem. anatomist is commonly stated because the founding father of fashionable human anatomy. He was born in Belgian capital, that was then a part of the royal family Of Netherlands (European country).

One of the primary distinguished doctors in Greco-Roman medical authority was anatomist Galen. He became AN knowledgeable on the human anatomy by dissecting animals, as well as monkeys, in Greece.

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after a stroke, a client is admitted to the facility. the client has left-sided weakness and an absent gag reflex. he's incontinent and has a tarry stool. his blood pressure is 90/50 mm hg, and his hemoglobin is 10 g. which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?

Answers

The nursing intervention which is a priority for client with left-sided weakness and an absent gag reflex is preventing aspiration through positioning.

A stroke, typically referred to as a brain attack, happens once one thing blocks blood provide to a part of the brain or once a vessel within the brain bursts. In either case, components of the brain become broken or die. A stroke will cause lasting brain harm, long-run incapacity, or perhaps death.

Black or tarry stools with a foul smell are a proof of a tangle within the higher GI tract. It most frequently indicates that there's trauma within the abdomen, gut, or right facet of the colon. The term ordure is employed to explain this finding.

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Among the first steps for system transformation is counting those individual consumers who have co-occurring substance use and mental health disorders. T/F

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Be active for at least 30 minutes every day, whether it be through cycling, gardening, yoga, dancing, jogging, or any other form of exercise. Consume a nutritious, balanced diet. Don't forget to get adequate rest.

Try to keep doing the things that make you happy and fulfilled, including making meals for yourself or your loved ones, playing with your pet, going for walks in the park, reading a book, or watching a movie or TV show. You may maintain excellent mental health by following a regular schedule that includes enjoyable exercise activities. Avoid using dangerous substances like kava, alcohol, narcotics, or smoke to deal with your emotions. Despite the fact that they could appear to make you feel better in the short term, they might really make you feel worse.

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a child has been receiving a cns stimulant for long-term treatment of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (adhd). the nurse would be especially alert for which finding? select all that apply.

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The nurse would be especially alert for growth, weight loss for a child has been receiving a CNS stimulant for long-term treatment of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.

So the correct answer is option  C and E

Examples of central nervous system stimulants used to treat attention deficit disorder, narcolepsy, or excessive sleepiness include amphetamines, methylphenidate, atomoxetine, modafinil, armodafinil, pitolisant, and solriamfetol. Transdermal use of methylphenidate-containing skin patches is one choice. It is often applied in the morning, once daily, two hours before the intended effect, and left on for up to nine hours. Any prescription label instructions that you are unsure about following, ask your doctor or pharmacist to explain. Observe the methylphenidate patch directions to the letter.

For children and adolescents with ADHD, methylphenidate is the first-line medication, whereas amphetamines are the first-line therapy for adults. Users of prescription stimulants report experiencing a euphoric "rush" as well as elevated blood pressure and heart rate. 

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The complete question is as follows

A child has been receiving a CNS stimulant for long-term treatment of ADHD. the nurse would be especially alert for which finding? select all that apply:

a. respiratory depression

b. hypotension

c. growth

d. hyperglycemia

e. weight loss

which instruction would the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient wwith ulcerative colisitis about ileostomy care?

Answers

The instruction which would be in the first in the priority list for the patient suffering from ulcerative colitis would be Avoid taking enteric-coated medications.

An enteric coating medication are tablets which remain intact as they pass through the acidic stomach till they reach the desired portion and then get activated. Ulcerative colitis is a long-term condition in which the colon and rectum become inflamed, however the cause behind this condition is still not discovered. It may be due to abnormal immune response or genetic history. The common and harmful symptoms of ulcerative colitis are diarrhea and bloody stools which may also include abdominal pain, fever, chills and weight loss due to low appetite. Use of certain skin sealants and ostomy skin cream could be beneficial in the treatment of this disease. The extreme condition of ulcerative colitis can cause Colorectal cancer in rare cases in some patients.

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a client with motion sickness is prescribed transdermal scopolamine. the nurse would instruct the client to apply the patch at which frequency?

Answers

To stop motion sickness-related nausea and vomiting: Adults: For a minimum of three days, apply single patch while behind ear as least 4 hours well before effect is required.

What is a transdermal scopolamine?

Following anesthesia, opioid painkillers, and surgery, scopolamine transdermal patches are used to reduce nausea and vomiting. Additionally, it's utilized to stop motion sickness-related nausea and vomiting. Scopolamine is a member of the class of drugs known as anticholinergics.

How should a transdermal scopolamine patch be applied?

Behind your ear, on a healthy, dry, and unbroken piece of skin, apply the patch. Select a spot devoid of scars, cuts, soreness, tenderness, or inflammation. The region should also have minimal to no hair. With your fingertips, pull the patch firmly into position to ensure that the edges adhere effectively.

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a 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. he eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. his diarrhea can be classified as:

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As per the given scenario, his diarrhea can be classified as osmotic diarrhea. The correct option is A.

What is osmotic diarrhea?

Diarrhea is characterized by loose, watery, and possibly more frequent bowel movements.

It can occur alone or in conjunction with other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, or weight loss. Fortunately, diarrhea is usually only temporary, lasting only a few days.

Diarrhea persists for more than two days without relief. Excessive thirst, dry mouth or skin, urinary incontinence, severe weakness, dizziness or lightheadedness, or dark-colored urine could all be symptoms of dehydration. Abdominal or rectal pain that is severe. Stools that are bloody or black.

Lactose intolerance was recently diagnosed in a 20-year-old male. He eats an ice cream cone and gets diarrhea; his diarrhea is called osmotic diarrhea.

Thus, the correct option is A.

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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:

a.

Osmotic

b.

Secretory

c.

Hypotonic

d.

Motility

performed on a person who is admitted and discharged from a surgical facility on the same day

Answers

Outpatient surgery is when you have a surgical procedure done and then later that same day you go home.

which of the following is not a benefit provided by either enhanced 911 or enhanced cad systems that utilize mobile digital terminals (mdts)?

Answers

Elimination of responses to non-life-threatening emergency calls is not a benefit provided by either enhanced 911 or enhanced cad systems that utilize mobile digital terminals (mdts)

While there are a few exceptional circumstances in which mitigation may not be possible and organizations may only be able to provide palliative care after an emergency, most emergencies necessitate urgent response to prevent a deterioration of the condition.

Many less severe situations necessitate a determination of whether they qualify as an emergency by the observer (or affected party). This is not always the case, even when certain emergencies are obvious (like a natural disaster that poses a serious threat to many people). Depending on the jurisdiction, the government, whose agencies (emergency services) are in charge of emergency planning and management, typically sets the specific definition of an emergency, the agencies engaged, and the procedures utilized.

The complete question is:

Enhanced 911 or enhanced CAD utilizes mobile digital terminals (MDTs). Which of the following is not a benefit provided by these systems?

a. direct interface between the patrol unit and local, county, state, and federal criminal justice information system computers

b. dramatic increase in response time

c. elimination of responses to non-life-threatening emergency calls

d. better coordination of all emergency agencies, since their movements can be monitored visually by both officers at the scene and dispatchers

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the nurse administers a drug that stimulates beta2 receptors. what type of health condition would this drug treat?

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The progression of diabetes would be made worse by the breakdown of glycogen, rising serum glucose levels, and stimulation of these receptors.

Some heart conditions could be improved by beta1-receptor activation, which also causes more lipolysis. Beta2-receptor stimulation would worsen diabetes since these receptors stimulate glucagon release and glycogen breakdown, which raise serum glucose levels.

The effects of the neurochemical neurotransmitter are mediated through a family of particle channels known as nicotinic receptors, which are among the best known allosteric membrane proteins from both a structural and functional standpoint. Nicotine increases or decreases heart rate and blood pressure through activating nAChRs in both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia.

GI motility is regulated by presynaptic nicotinic neurotransmitter receptors (nAChRs) located on myenteric neurons.

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a patient has expressive speaking aphasia after having a stroke. which portion of the brain does the nurse know has been affected?

Answers

D) Inferior posterior frontal areas. A group of communication problems known as aphasia develop when the language center of the brain is harmed.

How is the Broca's region affected by a stroke?

Injury to the frontal areas of the left hemisphere affects how sentences are put together from individual words. Broca's Aphasia, which manifests as difficulty constructing entire phrases, may result from this.

How might a stroke result in aphasia?

A stroke, which is the obstruction or rupture of a blood artery in the brain, is the most frequent cause of aphasia and results in brain damage. Language-related brain regions suffer from cell death or damage as a result of blood flow problems.

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which evaluation finding requires follow up by the nurse caring for a client with a total knee replacement? select all that apply.

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A) 650 ml bloody drainage in drain wound, B) Knee flexion at 30° .Fluid that builds up in the wound is removed by a suction drain. 200 to 400 ml of discharge is typical during the first 24 hours following surgery.

What nursing care should the patient receive first while in the pacu?

A report of patient's condition must be given to the receiving nurse on the unit as well as the patient's family. Nursing interventions must include monitoring vital signs, and neurologic status; managing pain; evaluating the surgical site; assessing and maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance; and managing the surgical site.

What four factors are evaluated during a post-operative assessment?

The intraoperative history, postoperative instructions, circulatory volume status, respiratory status, and cognitive state should all be considered in this evaluation.

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the nurse plans to teach a 7-year-old child with recently diagnosed type 1 diabetes how to give insulin injections. which would be included in the first lesson? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

When the cells in the pancreas quit generating insulin, type 1 diabetes occurs. Without insulin, glucose cannot reach the muscles cells for use as fuel.

Instead, blood glucose levels increase, which makes a person feel incredibly sick. If insulin is not replaced, type 1 diabetes can be fatal. Insulin injections are required for the rest of a person's life if they have type 1 diabetes.

Do not reuse needles.Remove all bubbles from the syringe before injection.Do not move the direction of the needle-syringe during insertion or withdrawal.

Type 1 diabetes can strike anyone at any age, but it most frequently affects young children and those under 30. A person's lifestyle does not contribute to this illness. Although the precise origin is unknown, research indicates that someone with a genetic predisposition may be affected by anything in the environment. The immune system of the body attacks and annihilates.

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A nurse is providing teaching about nutrition therapy to a client who is experiencing anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? O "Add water to soups to increase volume." O "Add grated cheese to vegetable dishes" O "Avold adding butter to foods." O "Snack frequently on fresh fruit."

Answers

The nurse should "Add cream parmesan to vegetable meals," according to the instructions.

What, in plain terms, is a nurse?

A nursing is a someone who has obtained special training in caring for the ill and injured. In order to treat clients and keep people healthy and active, nurses cooperate with other health care providers. Additionally, nurses offer end-of-life care and support for grieving family and friends.

What is a nurse's job description?

Nurses treat wounds, give medicine, do regular physicals, take thorough medical histories, monitor blood pressure and heart rate, run diagnostic tests, handle surgical devices, take samples of blood, and admit and release patients in accordance with doctor's orders.

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when i am communicating to others about a patient, i only share the protected health information (phi) necessary for them to complete their job. this is an example of:

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Operational disclosure is an example of sharing only necessary protected health information (PHI) necessary for others to complete their job.

There is a delicate line between disclosing just enough PHI to support operations and going overboard. In accordance with the minimal necessary standard, you may only disclose PHI that is necessary to carry out an activity. Operations disclosures that are acceptable include:

Making sure patients are safe

Creating a protocol

completing compliance or training programs

Performing quality evaluations and improvement initiatives

Monitoring for fraud and abuse

preparing for business expansion and operations

Furthermore, there are other circumstances in which disclosing PHI is acceptable aside from TPO disclosures.

The complete question is:

When I am communicating with others about a patient, I only share the protected health information (PHI) necessary for them to complete their job. this is an example of___________.

(A). Treatment Disclosers

(B). Payment Disclosers

(C). Operations Disclosers

(D). Preventing a health threat or Harm

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the nurse is providing teaching to a client who reports tension headaches. which instruction would be beneficial to prevent onset of symptoms?

Answers

Perform stretching exercises and frequent position change may help with the tension headaches.

A tension headache is characterized by mild to moderate pain and is frequently described as feeling like a tight band around the head. The most common type of headache is a tension headache, but its causes are unknown. There are treatments for tension headaches.

Tension headaches occur when the muscles in the neck and scalp tense or contract. Muscle contractions can occur as a result of stress, depression, a head injury, or anxiety. They can happen at any age, but they are most common in adults and older teenagers. It is slightly more prevalent in women and runs in families.

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the nurse determines that which individual presenting to the clinic is at the greatest risk for development of an integumentary disorder?

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An outdoor construction worker is the individual presenting to the clinic is at the greatest risk for development of an integumentary disorder.

The integumentary system is prone to a number of illnesses, conditions, and wounds. These can include skin cancer and severe burns, both of which can be fatal, as well as irksome but often benign bacterial or fungal infections that are classified as diseases.

Some major disorders of the integumentary system: -

Acne. Alopecia Areata. Atopic Dermatitis.Epidermolysis Bullosa.Hidradenitis Suppurativa (HS).Ichthyosis. Pachyonychia Congenita. Pemphigus.

The major organ of the body that physically separates the internal environment it protects and maintains from the exterior environment is the integumentary system. The epidermis, dermis, hypodermis, related glands, hair, and nails are all a part of the integumentary system.

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you volunteer at a children's hospital a little boy who has only been able to see in black and white his entire life is undergoing an operation tomorrow

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little boy who has only been able to see in black and white his entire life is undergoing  Achromatopsia is a condition that causes either partial or complete loss of colour perception.

A person with complete achromatopsia is unable to see color; instead, they only perceive black, white, and various tones of gray. Incomplete achromatopsia, a less severe variant of the condition, allows for some degree of colour perception. Photophobia, an increased sensitivity to light and glare, and nystagmus, an uncontrollable  back and forth of the eyes, are additional vision problems related to achromatopsia. The afflicted may also experience nearsightedness (myopia) or, less frequently, farsightedness (hyperopia). These vision problems first appear in the first few months of life.

Achromatopsia differs from the more common varieties of colour blindness (sometimes called colour vision impairment), in which people can perceive colour but have problems differentiating specific hues, such as red and green.

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how would the nurse care for the access site after removing the needle from the implanted port of a central venous access device (cvad)?

Answers

Insert the saline-filled syringe after thoroughly cleaning the end cap on the extension tubing in this way the nurse care for the access site.

What duties do you have as a nurse when caring for patients who have Cvads?

The CVAD bundle concentrates on five essential components: hand hygiene, maximum sterile barrier, chlorhexidine antiseptic, catheter site choice, and daily assessment of the device's need. After the CVAD is installed, the nurse is in charge of providing evidence-based care and maintenance.

Using sterile gauze swabs, cover the catheter insertion site with one hand while removing the catheter firmly but gently with the other. As the catheter is being taken out, gently press down while being careful not to massage the exit site. Stop and call medical personnel if you feel any resistance.

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what serum blood level wound the nurse epxect to be decreased in a client with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism

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The nurse would expect to see a decreased serum calcium level in a client with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism.

Decreased Serum Calcium Level in Hyperparathyroidism

Hyperparathyroidism is a condition in which the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone. This increase in parathyroid hormone leads to an increase in calcium levels in the body. The nurse would expect to see a decreased serum calcium level in a client with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism.

This decrease in serum calcium level is due to the excessive production of parathyroid hormone, which causes the body to draw calcium out of the blood and into the bones and tissues.

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a 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow's milk. the best explanation for her symptoms is:

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D) Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility and develops  colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow's milk.

Milk and milk products include the sugar lactose. When your small intestine produces insufficient amounts of the digesting enzyme lactase, lactose intolerance results. In order for your body to absorb lactose from meals, lactase breaks it down. Milk. Milk, particularly that from cows, goats, and sheep, is a significant source of lactose in our diet. You might need to alter the amount of milk in your diet, depending on how light or severe your lactose sensitivity is.

a 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow's milk. the best explanation for her symptoms is?

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individuals with diabetes have a difficult time metabolizing foods that are high in

Answers

Blood sugar levels can be raised by consuming a lot of simple carbs, which digest quickly and give out more energy than a person requires. Long-term high levels could prevent the body from producing enough insulin to bring them down to a healthy level.

What is it that diabetics struggle to metabolize?

Insulin resistance hinders the body's capacity to metabolize glucose and is most prevalent in pre-diabetes, metabolic syndrome, and type 2 diabetes. As a result, weight gain is more common, blood sugar levels rise, and insulin resistance increases.

Do diabetics suffer gastrointestinal issues?

Numerous conditions can induce nausea, heartburn, or bloating, but diabetics should pay special attention to these frequent digestive problems.

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nursing sensitive indicators that improve if there is a greater quantity or quality of nursing care are referred to as: group of answer choices structure indicators. process indicators. outcome indicators. standard indicators.

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Aspects of nursing care including evaluation, intervention, and RN work satisfaction are measured by process indicators. Patient outcomes that are found to be nursing sensitive are those that advance with higher levels of nursing care, either in terms of quantity or quality.

Nursing-specific indicators capture the framework, workflow, and results of nursing care. The availability of nursing personnel, the caliber of the nursing staff, and the training/certification of the nursing staff are all indicators of the structure of nursing care. Nursing-sensitive indicators pinpoint care structures and care workflows, both of which have an impact on patient outcomes. Nursing-sensitive indicators are separate from medical indicators of care quality and are unique to nursing. For instance, the number of hours of nursing care supplied each patient day is one structural nursing indication.

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which pressure change does the nurse determine to be the cause of edema for a cliwnt with albuminuria

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The nurse determines that changes in pressure from within the blood vessels as a cause of edema in clients with albuminuria.

What is albuminuria?

Albuminuria or proteinuria is an increase in the amount of protein in a person's urine. Albuminuria is not a disease. However, the condition can indicate a person has kidney problems.

Damage to the kidneys that causes high levels of protein in the urine is known as nephrotic syndrome.

The main symptom of nephrotic syndrome is fluid buildup in the body or edema. Edema occurs due to low protein in the blood. If the protein level is lacking, fluid from the blood vessels will leak out and accumulate in the body's tissues.

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a client with a fungal infection has been prescribed ketoconazole 250 mg po daily. the client reports nausea and anorexia the day after starting the medication. what is the nurse's best action?

Answers

The nurse best action for a client with a fungal infection  is to Review of liver enzyme level.

Examining illnesses caused by fungi Despite the fact that a fungal infection is normally only diagnosed based on its clinical symptoms, laboratory examination of skin scrapings, hair samples, or nail clippings may be useful in situations when the diagnosis is unsure.

Patients should undergo hepatic function tests to assess the condition of their liver due to the hepatotoxic effects of oral ketoconazole, including bilirubin, albumin, prothrombin time, aspartate transaminase (AST), alanine transaminase (ALT), and others.

A number of fungal infections are treated with the antiandrogen and antifungal medication ketoconazole. Nizoral is one of the names that it goes by in advertising. When administered topically, it heals fungal skin conditions such tinea, cutaneous candidiasis, pityriasis versicolor, dandruff, and seborrheic dermatitis.

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a pregnant client in the third trimester tells the nurse in the prenatal clinic that she is experiencing heartburn after every meal. which explanation would the nurse provide regarding the cause of the heartburn?

Answers

The nurse in the pre-natal clinic should explain the pregnant client in the third trimester that the esophageal Spencer relaxes and allows acid to be regurgitated.

Heartburn, also known as pyrosis, is a condition that develops in the second part of pregnancy as a result of esophageal sphincter relaxation and acid regurgitation. The issue is exacerbated by delayed stomach emptying brought on by impaired gastric motility and stomach displacement brought on by uterine expansion. During pregnancy, gastric motility is diminished. The amount of acid that is regurgitated into the esophagus is reduced or eliminated when the stomach pH rises because the gastric secretions become more alkaline. Acid does not enter the small intestine and the pyloric sphincter does not relax.

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while enrolled in a weight-loss program for employees of the company where he worked, gavin lost nearly 100 pounds over a period of 14 months. at the same time, his bmr slowed. then he was laid off. over the next six months, his bmr remained slowed, and he regained two-thirds of the weight he had lost. which of the following hypotheses best explains this phenomenon?

Answers

The given occurrence is best explained by set point gene hypotheses. According to the set point hypothesis, the human body seeks to keep its weight within the desired range.

Throughout their adult lives, many people maintain a body weight range that is more or less narrow. Some people's bodies may keep them thin when they're young yet permit them to put on weight once they reach middle age. The human body employs regulatory processes to maintain its weight within this range of natural set points. For instance, if you consume a bit more than is necessary to maintain your weight, your body temperature will normally increase and your metabolism will speed up in order to burn off the extra energy.

Thus, we can conclude that set point gene hypotheses provide the best explanation for the observed phenomenon. The set point theory states that the body tries to maintain its weight within the specified range.

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the nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who has received edrophonium intravenously to test for myasthenic crisis. the client asks the nurse how long the improvement in muscle strength will last. the nurse's response is based on the understanding that the duration is usually how many minutes?

Answers

The improvement in muscle strength will last about 30 minutes.

Myasthenia gravis:

Any muscle within your voluntary control will become weak and rapidly fatigued if you have myasthenia gravis. It results from a breakdown in the regular transmission of information between neurons and muscles.

Myasthenia gravis has no known cure, but treatment can ease its signs and symptoms, including muscle weakness in the arms or legs, double vision, drooping eyelids, and problems speaking, chewing, swallowing, and breathing.

Although this illness can strike anyone at any age, it tends to strike women under the age of 40 and men over the age of 60 more frequently.

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the practical nurse (pn) administers two newly prescribed medications, isosorbide dinitrate (a nitrate) and hydrochlorothiazide (a diuretic), to a client. what instructions should the pn reinforce with the client in regard to these medications?

Answers

Isosorbide doesn't often require any monitoring. But patients with low blood pressure and a slow heartbeat should be monitored, and patients who are receiving long-term diuretic treatment.

When situations or activities may cause an attack, take the isosorbide before the first symptoms of chest pain appear. Oral isosorbide dinitrate should be taken on an empty stomach, one hour before or two hours after meals. Sustained-release medications shouldn't be chewed or crushed, and isosorbide mononitrate shouldn't be used to treat acute anginal attacks.

To treat high blood pressure, hydrochlorothiazide may be taken alone or in combination with other medications (hypertension). The workload on the heart and arteries is increased by high blood pressure. In long persists og it can cause the disfunction of heart and arteries.

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o maintain hematocrit levels in clients with kidney failure, the nurse should be prepared to perform which intervention?

Answers

The intervention performed to maintain the hematocrit levels in the kidney failure clients is the administration of subcutaneous injection of the recombinant human erythropoietin

Decreased hematocrit is also seen in patients with mild to moderate kidney renal failure. At any level of renal function below an estimated C(Cr) of 60 mL/min, men experience a greater reduction in hematocrit than women. Epoetin is used to treat severe anemia in patients on renal dialysis or those not receiving dialysis. Epoetin can also be used to prevent or treat anemia caused by surgery or drugs (such as zidovudine) used for other conditions such as HIV and cancer.

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Other Questions
Shutting the car door I caught a familiar scent. Suddenly, it was summer and I was nibbling cookies in my aunt's old truck. Every year we'd head out for an adventure on our way to see cousins. My aunt would drive until she was bleary-eyed, belting out songs with the radio. I hummed a familiar tune and thought about her chocolate chip cookies. I haven't taken a road trip for a long time! Why does the author spend time giving details from past travels? The author flashes back to share a sense of curiosity and exploration. The author shares the information to warn readers about how tiring car travel can be. The author describes the memories to share happiness from time spent with an aunt. Which must be true? point a is the center of the circle that passes through points e, f, and g but is not the center of the circle that passes through points x, y, and z. Point a is the center of the circle that passes through points x, y, and z but is not the center of the circle that passes through points e, f, and g. Point a is the center of the circle that passes through points e, f, and g and the center of the circle that passes through points x, y, and z. Point a is not necessarily the center of the circle that passes through points e, f, and g or the center of the circle that passes through points x, y, and z. Find three rational numbers such that their product is 210. The second number is 5 less than the first. The third number is 1 more than twice the first. At the West Texas Balloon Festival in El Paso, a hot air balloon started its descent from an altitude of 800 feet. After 1 minute, it is at a height of 700 feet and continues at this rate till it reaches the ground.A. Write a linear equation to find the height, h of the balloon after m minutes.B. What is the rate of change. What does it represent in this situation?C. What is the y-intercept and what does it represent?D. What is the x-intercept and what does it represent? Should I get my hairdresser a Christmas gift? mention the factors that affects the climate of the world and explain any 2 A salesperson earns $1000 a month plus a commission of 20% of sales. Find the minimumamount of sales needed to receive a total income of at least $5000 per month. (Writean inequality and solve.) Which of the following is a polynomial function? c. f(x) = V2x3 + 5 A. y = x 3 + 2x2 + x - 1 B. y = - 2x3 + 5x 4 - 4 D. f(x) = x3 +1. true or false: ppc advertising on search engines is sometimes referred to as search engine marketing (sem). Read the following thesis statement and determine whether or not it is effective and the reason for its effectiveness or lack thereof. In steinbecks novel, the grapes of wrath, the death of the grandparents is an important scene that evokes a sense of sympathy in most readers. A. Effective,because it explains what happens during this important scene and identifies the emotion the scene evokes in the reader.B.Effective, because it includes the authors name, the title of the book, and a description of a specific scene from the novel. C. Effective, because it includes the claim that the deaths are important, which could be argued by someone who believes they are not important. D. Not effective, because it does not take an analytical position that would need to be defended using support.E. Not effective, because it does not include background information to help readers understand the importance of the grandparents. is anyone knows how to explain about interpretation of qualitative data ( statistics ). Pam was admitted to the hospital today due to severe pre-eclampsia in her 29th week of pregnancy. Dr. Smith, her OB/GYN, visits her in the hospital on the day of admission. The diagnostic code(s) reported for this visit is ______ and _______.O14.13, Z3A.29 Match each of the following components of the mucosal immune system with their corresponding mechanism Microfold (M) cells [ Choose] Lamina propria [ Choose ] Contains CD4+ T cells, CD8+ T cells, and B cells Become activated following NKG2D ligation with MIC-A/B on stressed epithelial cells Type A CD8+ intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs) Produce mucus Type B CD8+ intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELS) Use transcytosis for antigen transfer Require polymeric Ig receptor (plgR) for transfer into the intestinal lumen Compete with pathogenic bacteria Kill infected cells using perforin/granzyme and FasL after TCR activation IgA dimers [ Choose ] True orFalse : for the most accurate results, urine specimens should be kept refrigerated and processed within 2 hours of collection g show also the binomial tree with the calculation of the call and then a binomial tree with the calculation of the put. below is a simple example what you could do. you can arrange your spreadsheet as you want but it has to be clear and formulas behind each cell should been seen when on the cell. note that it is only a two steps binomial tree but you have to build one that has 12 steps. in qualitative work, themes can work as . group of answer choices a. statistical data b. categorical data c. continuous data d. numerical data newcomers need many different kinds of support when they first join an organization. if a person needs informational support, what question is he or she asking? as a jet is taking off, it is accelerating down the runway with acceleration , with . you are sitting inside the jet and holding a simple pendulum consisting of a bob of mass attached to a string of length . the pendulum comes to rest in the equilibrium position where the string makes an angle with respect to the vertical. when the bob is in the equilibrium position, which of the following free-body force diagrams on the bob is correct in a reference frame fixed to the accelerating jet. the payback rule is based on the idea that an opportunity that pays back its initial investment quickly is a worthwhile opportunity. question content area bottom part 1 true false todd plans to purchase a life insurance policy from a stock life insurance company. what kind of policy would he plan to purchase? a. dividend policy b. nonparticipating policy c. mutual policy d. participating policy