Nurse would anticipate relating to Irregular heart rate.
What is meant by infarction of the posterior wall?
Essentially, the coronary sinus, pulmonary veins, and the atrium (LA in particular) are all located on the posterior side of the heart. When the venous end of the lower straight heart tube folds up and posteriorly at 8 weeks, this occurs. When circulation to the posterior heart is compromised, posterior wall myocardial infarction happens. Although it frequently occurs alongside inferior or inferolateral MI, posterior myocardial infarction might be difficult to diagnose on its own.
Cardiac arrhythmia consequences may often include heart failure, abrupt death, and stroke. A higher risk of blood clots is related to heart arrhythmias. A stroke may result from a blood clot that escapes and travels from the heart to the brain.
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the nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed. with paget disease of bone. which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
client statement indicates a need for further teaching The normal recycling process by which old bone tissue is eventually replaced by new bone tissue is hampered by Paget's (PAJ-its) disease of the bones. Bones can deteriorate and change shape over time. The most frequently impacted areas are the legs, spine, pelvis, and head.
Age and the presence of the disease in the family both raise the risk of Paget's disease of the bones. However, the disease has been less prevalent over the past few years and is less severe when it does manifest for reasons that doctors are not aware of. Broken bones, hearing loss, and pinched nerves in your spine are examples of complications.
The mainstay of treatment involves bisphosphonates, which are drugs used to rebuild bones that have been damaged by osteoporosis. If difficulties arise, surgery might be required.
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a client has been brought into the ed via ambulance, reporting acute generalized abdominal pain, nausea, fever, and constipation. the healthcare provider suspects appendicitis, but testing has not been performed yet to make a definitive diagnosis. what will the nurse most likely do while initially caring for this client?
Answer:
Inform the client of the reason why analgesics are being withheld will help to prevent disguising symptoms that might affect the diagnostic.
in the human body, water is needed to: regulate energy production. monitor nerve cell function. dissolve fat-soluble vitamins. remove wastes.
Water regulates our internal body temperature by sweating and respiration and removes waste from the body.
To keep the body in a state of homeostasis, the fluid balance inside the body must be controlled. The cells will lose their functionality and negatively affect every aspect of human function if there is too much or too little discovered inside of them. To replace the water lost via normal exercise and organ function, a steady supply of water must be supplied through drinking liquids and eating foods. The hypothalamus, a part of the brain, is where we consume the majority of the water required for everyday function and acts as the control center for thirst. Osmoreceptors detect changes in blood water concentration to decide whether cells need to take in more water for appropriate function or contract to expel some. These receptors alert the brain's thirst mechanism and the hypothalamus that more water is required.
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the nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is being sent home on oral tetracycline. what instructions should the nurse include? select all that apply.
The client receiving oral tetracycline from the nurse must be instructed to take the medication on an empty stomach.
To promote complete absorption, tetracycline should be taken with a full eight ounces of water on an empty stomach either 1 hour beforehand or 2 hours after meals. Most people take tetracycline at least once every 12 hours.
When using cardiac glycosides, the pulse should be checked and the dose held if it is below 60 bpm.
When bacteria develop the ability to live and thrive in the presence of antibiotics, antibiotic resistance arises. Tetracyclines are still a go-to therapy for various sorts of illnesses, although their use has declined for some due to worries about resistance.
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The question is -
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who is being sent home on oral tetracycline (Sumycin). What instructions should the nurse include?
a. Take the medication only once a day.
b. Check pulse rate and hold the drug if lower than 60 beats per minute (bpm).
c. Take the drug on an empty stomach.
d. Take the medication with 2 ounces of water.
a nurse is caring for a client with elevated triglyceride levels who is unresponsive to hmg-coa reductase inhibitors (statin). what medication will the nurse administer
The nurse is reviewing instructions for a client taking an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin). "Take this medication at the same time each day." is essential for the nurse to include.
What are triglycerides?Triglycerides are a specific form of fat. They are the most prevalent form of fat in the body. They are derived from meals, particularly butter, oils, and other fats. Extra calories are also a source of triglycerides.
These are the calories that you consume but that your body does not require straight away. These additional calories are converted by your body into triglycerides and stored in fat cells. Triglycerides are released by your body when it need energy. Triglycerides are carried to your tissues via VLDL cholesterol particles.
Normal — Less than 150 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL), or less than 1.7 millimoles per liter (mmol/L) Borderline high — 150 to 199 mg/dL (1.8 to 2.2 mmol/L) High — 200 to 499 mg/dL (2.3 to 5.6 mmol/L) Very high — 500 mg/dL or above (5.7 mmol/L or above)
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the labor and delivery charge nurse is making staff assignments, including assignments to a new nurse. what client is most appropriate for the new nurse?
The client that is most appropriate for the new nurse is primigravida in active phase of stage one, waiting for epidural. The correct option is 3.
What is epidural?An epidural is a back injection that relieves pain in a specific area of your body.
Epidural anesthesia is a type of epidural commonly used to relieve pain during childbirth and some types of surgery.
The primigravida provides numerous opportunities for basic and diverse skills that would be extremely beneficial to a new nurse.
This is the best client to work for because it will give you valuable experience with basic labor and delivery procedures.
Thus, the correct option is 3.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
1. A gravida 3 para 2 in active phase of stage one, expecting twins.
2. A gravida 2 para 0 at 41 weeks gestation, awaiting induction.
3. A primigravida in active phase of stage one, waiting for epidural.
4. A 12-hour post Cesarean section needing assistance to ambulate.
the nurse elicits a positive chvostek sign when tapping on the facial nerve. what action by the nurse is a priority after this assessment is complete?
The nurse should check the patient's calcium level as soon as this evaluation is finished to rule out hypocalcemia.
Define hypocalcemia.When your plasma calcium is too low, you have hypocalcemia, a disorder that is treatable. Hypocalcemia can be brought on by a variety of medical disorders, but it's frequently brought on by excessive levels of calcium or (PTH) in the body.
What primarily contributes to hypocalcemia?PTH or vitamin D problems are the most frequent causes of low serum calcium values. A reduction in plasma ionized calcium due to calcium binding in the circulating blood or calcium deposition in muscles, as can happen with hyperphosphatemia, are two other reasons of hyperkalemia.
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medical control has ordered you to administer one tube of oral glucose to a hypoglycemic patient. immediately after receiving this order, you should:
Do the following if you have signs of hypoglycemia: Consume or consume 15–20 grammes of quick-acting carbs. These are sweet, protein- and fat-free meals and beverages that the body may quickly turn into sugar.
Test your blood sugar levels using a blood glucose metre if you take insulin or another diabetic medicine to reduce your blood sugar and you experience the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Follow your diabetes treatment plan if the result indicates low blood sugar (less than 70 mg/dL). Keep track of the results of your blood sugar testing and the steps you took to address low blood sugar levels so that your doctor may evaluate the data and help you modify your hypoglycemia treatment plan.
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the nurse is aware that a client receiving which category of medication will not be prescribed vardenafil?
The nurse knows that vardenafil will not be recommended for patients taking medications for heart problems and chest pain (angina).
What is vardenafil?Vardenafil is a drug to treat impotence or erectile dysfunction in men. Vardenafil is available in tablet form and should only be used with a doctor's prescription.
Vardenafil dilates the blood vessels so that blood flows increases. vardenafil cannot treat the causes of erectile dysfunction, cannot increase libido, and cannot prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases.
Vardenafil may cause the following side effects:
Flushing or reddened skinBack painRunny or stuffy noseFlu-like symptoms, such as runny nose, cough, and body achesHeadacheDizzyStomach acheStomach acid diseaseLearn more about therapy for erectile dysfunction here :
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a nurse is working in the emergency department and is assigned to a client brought in by family members. the family thinks that the client is on methamphetamine. the nurse should assess for:
The nurse should assess for hypertension. Methamphetamine users increased atherosclerotic plaque development and acute coronary vasospasm both contribute to myocardial infarction symptoms.
The use of methamphetamine is linked to pulmonary hypertension, especially in people who have particular polymorphisms in the enzyme that breaks down methamphetamine, carboxylesterase. Following exposure to methamphetamine, remodelling of heart tissue causes dilated cardiomyopathy and may increase the vulnerability to cardiac arrhythmias. Globally, the use of methamphetamine is increasing, which has a major impact on morbidity and mortality due to an increase in a variety of cardiovascular diseases that is poorly understood. Through catecholamine toxicity or direct effects on cardiac and vascular tissue, methamphetamines may worsen cardiovascular disease.
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the nurse is conducting an education group for women at risk for self-mutilation. what is the most important goal for this group?
This group's main objective of mutilation is to develop methods for avoiding self-harm.
Which personality disorder is most frequently associated with self-mutilation?Results: The deliberate, direct altering or destruction of one's own body tissue without consciously intending to commit is referred to as self-mutilation. More than 41% of BPD patients engage in this repeating pattern of behavior, which is prevalent (occurring in 50 to 80% of instances).
Which personality disorder among the following is the most well-known?At the moment, BPD is the most frequently identified personality disorder. Our pages on borderline personality disorder have further information on it (BPD). "Having BPD is like lacking an emotional safety net.
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if a physician wanted to relieve anxiety with a lesser risk of drowsiness, overdose, and slowed breathing, the physician would prescribe:
A doctor might prescribe benzodiazepines if they wished to reduce anxiety with a lower risk of sleepiness, overdose, and delayed breathing.
How does anxiousness feel?Not being able to unwind or feeling tense.Felt as though time was passing more fast or in a horrible manner, awaiting the worst. Feeling that others are looking at you and see how tense you are.
Is there a mental condition called anxiety?Nearly 30% of individuals have an anxiousness disorder at some time in their life, making it among the most prevalent of all mental diseases. However, there are a variety of efficient therapies for anxiety disorders. Most persons who get treatment can live regular, fulfilling lives.
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which mineral needs to be supplemented during pregnancy even though the intestinal absorption triples during pregnancy?
Iron is the mineral needs to be supplemented during pregnancy even though the intestinal absorption triples during pregnancy .
While pregnant, you need 27 mg of iron every day. Most prenatal vitamins include this amount. Food is another way to get iron.
The sources of dietary iron (heme iron) that are most easily absorbed are lean meat, poultry, and fish. Non-animal (non-heme) sources are still beneficial nevertheless, and combining them with meals that are strong in vitamin C will boost their absorption.
For pregnant women who are not anemic, taking extra iron during pregnancy may be harmful, but it may be important for those who are iron deficient. According to past studies, elevated iron levels have been associated with an increased risk of low birth weight, premature birth, and high blood pressure in mothers.
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a pediatric client has been prescribed dextroamphetamine (adderall) 2.5 mg po bid. how many mg would this client take each day?
Dosage of adderall: The maximum daily dose is 40 mg for adults and 30 mg for kids. Dosage of Adderall XR: The maximum daily dose is 40 mg for adults and 30 mg for kids.
What makes Adderall and dextroamphetamine different from one another?Dextroamphetamine is the generic name for the stimulant drug dextrodrine, which contains the active component. A mixture of dextroamphetamine and amphetamine makes up Adderall, on the other hand. Dextroamphetamine is present, but there is also amphetamine present,
Dextroamphetamine IR 10 mg duration of action?Despite the fact that the effects of dexedrine might last for up to ten hours, it takes the body 12 hours to eliminate only half of that quantity.
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true or false? the primary therapeutic goals for treatment of anorexia nervosa are the restoration of body weight and return of menses.
The primary therapeutic goals for treatment of anorexia nervosa are the restoration of body weight and return of menses. The given statement is true.
What is the primary goal of treatment?
The goal of the majority of therapies is to treat or reduce the symptoms of a problematic problem or disease. Medical professionals design treatment plans that describe their strategy and methods for achieving a particular objective.
What is called primary treatment?
It is the initial course of treatment for a disease. It frequently forms a component of an established course of therapy, such as surgery followed by chemotherapy and radiation. Primary therapy is acknowledged as the optimum form of treatment when done alone.
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a client with a systemic fungal infection has been prescribed ketoconazole 350 mg po daily. what assessment should the nurse prioritize before administration?
Observe the patient's response to the treatment (resolution of fungal infections). Observe for negative impacts (e.g. rash, local irritation, burning, etc).
By asking the patient to name the medicine, its indication, and any potential side effects, you can gauge how well they understand their drug therapy. Tracking patient adherence to medication. Antifungals are prescribed to treat mycosis, or fungal infections. Fungi are distinct from bacteria in that they include polysaccharides and chitin in their cell walls, which makes them resistant to antibiotics. In people with impaired immune systems, fungus infections are more common (e.g., patients with AIDS, those taking immunosuppressants like organ transplant recipients, etc.).
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a client with vertigo is scheduled to have an electronystagmography in 2 weeks. what should the nurse instruct the client to do prior to the test? select all that apply.
A client who have gone through electronystagmography in 2 wees should be instructed to withhold caffeine and alcohol 48 hours before the test and withhold antivertigo agents for 5 days before the test.
What is Vertigo?
Vertigo is a symptom, rather than a condition. It is the sensation in which a person, or the environment around that person, is moving or spinning. This feeling may not be noticeable, or it may be so severe that a person find it difficult to keep balance and complete everyday tasks effectively.
Electronystagmography (ENG) is a procedure used to evaluate people with vertigo and certain other types of disorder that affect the hearing capacity and vision. In this procedure, electrodes are placed at locations above and below the eye to record the electrical activity and diagnose the problem.
When a client has undergone electronystagmography then usually the nurse instructs them to withhold caffeine and alcohol 48 hours before the test and also withhold antivertigo agents for 5 days before the test.
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a parent expresses concern that a 5-year-old child may develop epilepsy because the child experienced a febrile seizure at age 18 months. what will the nurse tell this parent?
b. "A small percentage of children who have febrile seizures develop epilepsy." will the nurse tell this parent a parent expresses concern that a 5-year-old child may develop epilepsy.
A brain condition that produces seizures is referred to generally as epilepsy. Epilepsy comes in a variety of forms. Seizures can take many distinct forms. First aid for seizures Learn how to assist someone experiencing a seizure. An acquired brain damage, such as a trauma or stroke, or a hereditary condition, such as epilepsy, may cause it. A person who is having a seizure exhibits odd actions, signs, and feelings, sometimes even losing consciousness. Between seizures, minimal symptoms exist.In addition to drugs, surgery, gadgets, and dietary modifications are occasionally used to treat epilepsy.
a parent expresses concern that a 5-year-old child may develop epilepsy because the child experienced a febrile seizure at age 18 months. what will the nurse tell this parent?
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the nurse is collecting a blood sample from a client's central venous access device (cvad). the nurse notices that the flow stops when drawing the blood, even after changing the specimen tube and having the client cough. what would be the next recommended intervention?
Avoid directly applying skin protectant to the insertion site; instead, apply it to the same area. Aseptic method should be used while accessing a CVAD.
Where ought Cvad to be placed?According to the research, the lower portion of the superior vena cava is the ideal location for a CVAD tip. Anyone installing a CVAD must be aware of any changes in body position that could cause a tip to move.
Where should the tip of a Cvad rest?According to the research, the lower portion of the superior vena cava is the ideal location for a CVAD tip. Anyone installing a CVAD must be aware of any changes in body position that could cause a tip to move.
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the nurse is assessing a client's knee. the area has a grating sensation. what would this be documented as?
This will be documented as crepitus where the area has a grating sensation.
Crepitus, also known as crepitation, is the medical term for any grinding, creaking, cracking, grating, crunching, or popping that happens when a joint is moved. Crepitus can strike anyone at any age, but it seems to happen more frequently as people age. Crepitus can cause noises that are either faint or loud enough for other people to hear.
Typically, crepitus is nothing to worry about. In actuality, it is typical for joints to pop or crack sometimes in most people. Crepitus, however, may be an indication of arthritis or another medical issue if it occurs frequently and is accompanied by pain, swelling, or other unsettling symptoms.
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a client diagnosed with pulmonary edema has a paco2 of 72 mm hg and an oxygen saturation of 84%. what method of oxygen delivery would best meet the needs of this client?
Intubation and mechanical ventilation method of oxygen delivery would best meet the needs of this client. a client diagnosed with pulmonary edema has a paco2 of 72 mm hg and an oxygen saturation of 84%.
An intubation is a procedure in which a medical professional puts a tube into a patient's trachea (airway/windpipe) through the mouth or nose. The trachea is kept open by the tube so that air may pass through. The tube can be attached to a device that disperses air or oxygen. Other names for intubation include tracheal intubation and endotracheal intubation. When your airway is obstructed, injured, or you can't breathe on your own, you need to be intubated. The following common circumstances can result in intubation: Airway blockage (something caught in the airway, blocking the flow of air).
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a nurse is teaching a client about immunosuppressants. which common adverse reactions of immunosuppressants should be included in the teaching? (select all that apply.)
The common adverse reactions of immunosuppressants should be included in the teaching is:
ChillsFeverHeadacheThe most common indications include prevention of transplant rejection and treatment of autoimmune diseases such as lupus psoriasis and rheumatoid arthritis. It is common to use a combination of different immunosuppressants to maximize immunosuppressive effects and minimize side effects.
Immunosuppressants are drugs that reduce the body's ability to reject transplanted organs. Another term for these drugs is anti-rejection drugs. There are two types of immunosuppressants: her. Induction drug: an effective anti-rejection drug used during transplantation. The most serious side effect of immunosuppressants is an increased risk of infection.
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the nurse is caring for a client with breast cancer who is scheduled to have a mastectomy. what nutritional recommendation would the nurse make to promote healing after surgery?
The nutritional recommendation the nurse would make to promote healing after surgery is Increase intake of protein foods.
In order to treat or prevent breast cancer, a mastectomy is a surgical procedure where entire breast tissue is removed from the breast. A mastectomy might be a possible course of treatment for those with early-stage breast cancer. Another alternative is breast-conserving surgery, or lumpectomy, in which only the breast tumor is removed.
Our immune system, bones, and muscles are all built from protein. Prior to surgery, you want to be as strong as possible.
After surgery, protein is extremely necessary. It aids in the restoration of broken bodily tissues, the production of antibodies to ward against infections, and the synthesis of collagen, which is essential for scar formation. Nuts, legumes, seeds, fish, and lean poultry are all excellent sources of protein.
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Patients with which of the following conditions should not take OTC decongestants without first consulting with their doctor?
Heart Disease conditions should not take OTC decongestants without first consulting with their doctor.
Decongestants are a class of medication that might offer momentary relief for a stuffy or congested nose (nasal congestion).
They can aid in reducing the symptoms of illnesses including the flu, hay fever, and other allergic responses, catarrh, and sinusitis, among others.
They function by lessening nasal blood vessel swelling, which aids in widening the airways.
One example is pseudoephedrine (sometimes called by the brand name Sudafed).
What are the 3 types of decongestants?Oxymetazoline (such as in Claritin or Drixoral).Phenylephrine (such as in Benylin or Sudafed PE).Pseudoephedrine (such as in Sudafed).Learn more about decongestants to visit this link
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a 22-year-old client calls the clinic and tells the nurse that they are depressed and have been taking st. john's wort. the client wants to know whether this is a safe herbal remedy to take. what medications will the nurse ask specifically about?
A 22-year-old patient contacts the clinic and informs the nurse that they have been using St. John's wort to treat their depression. The customer is curious about the safety of using this natural medicine. The nurse will inquire explicitly about oral contraceptives while discussing drugs.
The twenty-eight day and twenty-four day packets of oral contraceptives are the two distinct forms available. We'll examine the negative consequences of oral contraceptives in this post. The majority of oral contraceptive side effects are minimal for most women, and many of them are completely undetectable. St. John's wort can change the metabolism of oral contraceptives, which can reduce the efficacy of the contraceptive.
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TRUE/FALSE. of the three core functions of public health, includes development of a competent public health workforce.
True. of the three core functions of public health, includes development of a competent public health workforce.it comes under the category of assurance.
Environmental health services are crucial and align with the three main public health functions (assessment, policy development, and assurance). Together, these roles contribute to the restoration, enhancement, promotion, and protection of the greater good's health through collective action. Assurance enforce laws and rules that safeguard the environment and guarantee safety. Connecting individuals to the necessary environmental health services and ensuring their delivery when those services are unavailable are two ways to ensure their provision. Ensure that the environmental health workforce is skilled. Assess the efficiency, usability, and standard of personal and community-based environmental health services. research to find fresh perspectives and creative answers to environmental health issues.
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the process of releasing health record documentation originally created by a different provider is called:
The process of releasing health record documentation created by a different provider is called redisclosure.
Redisclosure is the act of redistributing or publishing health information obtained from other sources (such as external entities or providers) and making it part of a patient's medical record or designated data collection center.
A designated set of records is a collection of records maintained by or on behalf of a covered entity that is "used in whole or in part by or by a covered entity to make decisions about individuals.
A group of records that are "received" and come from other health care providers. For example, treating physicians often send selected relief reports to the hospital where the patient is being treated. Similarly, reports collected during the patient's stay are sent to the attending physician to assist with follow-up. patient care. Information from previous donors is often entered into patient records at the receiving institution.
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which of the following questions does dr. arthur kleinman, a medical anthropologist at harvard university, suggest providers ask to see illness from the perspective of their patients?
What do you believe led to your issue, based on the statement? is the response.
Which term—patience or patience—is correct?If patience is a word, you may own it. Although it's not very simple to do, you may be the embodiment of patience. Patient cannot exist. Patients is the possessive form of the term patient, which refers to a person undergoing medical treatment. It is used here primarily for convenience as it resembles patience.
Why are medical patients referred to as clients?Originally, the term "patient" meant "one who suffers," or "one who has the "patience" to endure." Someone who is ill and injured and requires medical help, care, or medication from a clinician or other person with medical training is considered a patient.
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Which of the following may be considered an exception to the requirement for informed consent? A. The patient is a non-English speaker B. The person is both blind and hearing impaired C. Performing CPR on an unconscious patient D. An invasive procedure not requiring hospitalization
Answer: C. Performing CPR on an unconscious patient
Explanation:
your assessment of a 5-year-old child reveals that he is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. treatment for this child should include:
Your assessment of a 5-year-old child reveals that he is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. treatment for this child should include: lower the extremities and reassess the child.
In humans, the respiratory rate is calculated by measuring the number of breaths taken in one minute and the number of times the chest rises. During a magnetic resonance imaging scan, a fibre-optic respiratory rate sensor can be utilized to monitor patients. With fever, sickness, or other medical conditions, respiration rates may rise.
In the literature, inaccuracies in respiratory measurement have been noted.
One research observed substantial changes in respiration rates when respiratory rates were recorded using a 90-second count interval vs a full minute.
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