If the ACK bit is set, the acknowledgement number field must have a value.
This field contains the sequence number of the next expected byte the sender of the ACK packet is waiting for.If the ACK bit is set in a TCP header, the other field that must have a value is the Acknowledgment Number field. This field is used to acknowledge the receipt of data and indicates the next expected sequence number from the sender.
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Appliance receptacle outlets installed in a dwelling unit for specific appliances, such as laundry equipment, shall be installed within _______ feet of the intended location of the appliance.
210.50(c)
According to NEC code 210.50(c), appliance receptacle outlets installed in a dwelling unit for specific appliances, such as laundry equipment, shall be installed within six feet of the intended location of the appliance. This ensures that the appliance can be easily and safely plugged in without the use of extension cords or other unsafe methods.
In a dwelling unit, appliance receptacle outlets for specific appliances like laundry equipment should be installed within 6 feet of the intended location of the appliance, according to the National Electrical Code (NEC) section 210.50(c).
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The near-surface zone that contains some of the water that soaks into the ground is called the ________.
The near-surface zone that contains some of the water that soaks into the ground is called the "unsaturated zone."
The unsaturated zone is the area where pores in the soil or rock are partially filled with both air and water, allowing water to infiltrate and move through the ground.
The unsaturated zone can be referred to as the portion of the subsurface above the groundwater table. The soil and rock in this zone contains air as well as water in its pores. In some places the unsaturated zone is absent, such as in areas with lakes and marshes, and in some places it is hundreds of meters thick, as is common in arid regions.
The unsaturated zone is not a source of readily available water for human consumption. But it is of great importance in providing water and nutrients that are vital to the biosphere, and is intensively used for the cultivation of plants, construction of buildings, and disposal of waste.
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The near-surface zone that contains some of the water that soaks into the ground is called the "zone of aeration" or "unsaturated zone". This is the layer of soil or rock where the pores are not completely filled with water, but rather have air and some moisture content loaded.
The area of an unconfined aquifer above the water table where the pore spaces among soil particles and rock formations are filled with air.The water table is an underground boundary between the soil surface and the area where groundwater saturates spaces between sediments and cracks in rock. Water pressure and atmospheric pressure are equal at this boundary.
The soil surface above the water table is called the unsaturated zone, where both oxygen and water fill the spaces between sediments. The unsaturated zone is also called the zone of aeration due to the presence of oxygen in the soil. Underneath the water table is the saturated zone, where water fills all spaces between sediments. The saturated zone is bounded at the bottom by impenetrable rock.
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Q6)d) If the receiver detects an error on the basis of the value in the Frame Check Sequence field, what does it do?
If the receiver detects an error on the basis of the value in the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field, it will discard the frame and request retransmission of the data. The FCS field is a part of the data frame and is used for error detection purposes. It contains a checksum value that is calculated by the sender based on the data in the frame.
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When the heat pump is supplying as much heat as the load requires and is operating continuously, it is at what is called the _____ _____.
When the heat pump is supplying as much heat as the load requires and is operating continuously, it is at what is called the steady state. In the context of heat pumps, the steady state refers to a situation in which the heat pump is supplying heat to the space at a rate that exactly matches the heat loss from the space. In other words, the heat pump is meeting the demand for heat without any surplus or deficit.
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Portable signs in wet locations shall have ___________.
600.12(2)
Portable signs in wet locations shall have Ground-Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) protection. This requirement can be found in the National Electrical Code (NEC) section 600.12(2). The GFCI protection helps prevent electrical shock hazards in wet or damp environments where portable signs may be used.
A Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) is an electrical safety device designed to protect against electric shock. It works by constantly monitoring the flow of electrical current through a circuit.
If the current flowing in the circuit exceeds a safe level, the GFCI quickly shuts off the electricity to prevent electrocution.
GFCIs are typically used in areas where water may be present, such as kitchens, bathrooms, and outdoor locations. They are commonly found in electrical outlets that are close to sinks, tubs, or other water sources.
In the event of a ground fault, the GFCI shuts off the electrical current before it can cause serious injury or damage.
GFCIs are required by the National Electrical Code (NEC) in certain locations, including bathrooms, garages, and outdoor outlets. They are an important safety feature in any home or building and can help prevent electrical accidents and injuries.
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As a NASA pilot, Serena regularly practices piloting the space shuttle in a computerized setting that duplicates the sights, sounds and experiences of the real control rooms under space flight conditions. To train for her future space flights, Serena uses
Serena practices piloting the space shuttle using a computerized simulation that replicates the sights, sounds, and experiences of real control rooms under space flight conditions, to prepare for her future space flights as a NASA pilot.
Serena is a NASA pilot who needs to be well-trained and prepared for spaceflight missions. To achieve this, she regularly practices piloting the space shuttle in a computerized setting. This setting is designed to mimic the sights, sounds, and experiences of real control rooms during spaceflight conditions. By using this computerized simulation, Serena can hone her piloting skills and become familiar with the various control systems of the space shuttle. This training is critical to ensure that she is ready to handle any situation that may arise during her future spaceflight missions, where precision and attention to detail are essential for success and safety.
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For a dwellign unit, the minimum size aluminum service entrance conductor permitted for a 100 amps service number zero _________ awg
310.15(b)(7)
For a dwelling unit, the minimum size aluminum service entrance conductor permitted for a 100-amp service is No. 1/0 AWG.
The table provides the minimum allowable ampacity for conductors of various materials and sizes. For a 100-amp service, the minimum allowable ampacity is 100 amperes, and the minimum conductor size for aluminum conductors is No. 1/0 AWG. It is important to note that the size of the service entrance conductor may also be influenced by factors such as the length of the run, voltage drop, and ambient temperature, among others. These factors may require a larger conductor size than the minimum required by the NEC to ensure safe and efficient operation of the electrical system.
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Carbon can be converted into oxygen in the cores of high-mass stars if carbon nuclei undergo a _______________.
Choose matching definition
low-mass star
high-mass star
supernova remnant
helium-capture reaction
Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?
A network administrator would use the tracert utility to identify the path that a packet takes from the source to the destination, including any intermediate hops.
The tracert (short for "trace route") utility is a network diagnostic tool used to identify the path that a packet takes from the source to the destination. It sends packets with increasing time-to-live (TTL) values to the destination, and each router along the path decrements the TTL value and sends an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source. This allows the administrator to identify any routing loops or other issues that may be causing latency or packet loss. Additionally, the tracert utility can be used to identify intermediate hops that may be contributing to network congestion or other issues.
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Which two notations are usable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)
Both /64 and /48 are usable nibble boundaries in IPv6 subnetting because they align with the 4-bit (nibble) structure of an IPv6 address, allowing for efficient allocation and management of the address space. In the context of IPv6 subnetting, two usable nibble boundaries are:
1. /64: This is the most typical IPv6 subnet border because it gives devices inside the subnet a lot of address space, making it appropriate for a variety of network sizes.
2. /48: This limit is frequently used by Internet Service Providers (ISPs) or larger organisations as nibble boundaries. It strikes a balance between the quantity of available subnets and the size of each subnet's address space.
The four most important bits of a byte within a computer system are known as the upper nibble. Eight bits make up a byte, with the first four bits being referred to as the upper nibble. "Nibble" is derived from "nybble," which stands for a half-byte or four bits. The upper nibble is commonly used in programming to manipulate bits, including bitwise operations, number encoding, and several other activities.
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Bends in type NM, NMC, and NMS cable shall be made so that the cable will not be _______.
334.24
Bends in type NM, NMC, and NMS cable shall be made so that the cable will not be damaged or deformed. This is outlined in section 334.24 of the National Electric Code, which also requires that content loaded cables be properly supported and secured to prevent damage during installation and use.
The National Electrical Code (NEC), or NFPA 70, is a United States standard for the safe installation of electrical wiring and equipment. It is part of the National Fire Codes series published by the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). While the NEC is not itself a U.S. law, NEC use is commonly mandated by state or local law, as well as in many jurisdictions outside of the United States. The NEC codifies the requirements for safe electrical installations into a single, standardized source. The “authority having jurisdiction” inspects for compliance with these minimum standards.Adopted in all 50 states, NFPA 70, National Electrical Code (NEC) is the benchmark for safe electrical design, installation, and inspection to protect people and property from electrical hazards.
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(342-30(A)) Intermediate metal conduit shall be firmly fastened within _____ of each outlet box, junction box, device box, fitting, cabinet, or other conduit termination.
According to the National Electrical Code (NEC) section 342-30(A), intermediate metal conduit must be firmly fastened within 3 feet of each outlet box, junction box, device box, fitting, cabinet, or other conduit termination. This requirement is important for several reasons. First, it ensures that the conduit is properly secured and supported, which helps to prevent damage or disconnection of the wiring inside. It also helps to maintain the integrity of the overall electrical system by reducing the risk of short circuits, ground faults, and other hazardous conditions. Properly securing intermediate metal conduit also helps to meet the requirements for fire safety and electrical grounding, which are essential for protecting both people and property from harm.
Overall, following the NEC requirements for intermediate metal conduit installation is essential for ensuring a safe and reliable electrical system that meets all necessary codes and standards.
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The connection of a grounding electrode conductor or bonding jumper to a grounding electrode ___________ accessible.
250.68
The connection of a grounding electrode conductor or bonding jumper to a grounding electrode must be accessible according to section 250.68 of the National Electric Code. This ensures that the connection can be easily inspected and maintained as needed.
Thus, the connection of a grounding electrode conductor or bonding jumper to a grounding electrode must be accessible. This requirement is stated in section 250.68 of the National Electrical Code (NEC). This accessibility ensures that the connections can be easily inspected and maintained to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the grounding system.
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2) Auditing standards require that the audit report must be titled and that the title must
A) include the word "independent."
B) indicate if the auditor is a CPA.
C) indicate if the auditor is a proprietorship, partnership, or corporation.
D) indicate the type of audit opinion issued.
The answer to your question is: **A) include the word "independent."** Auditing standards require that the audit report must be titled and that the title must include the word "independent."
According to the ClearTax article, an audit report is a written document that expresses the auditor's opinion on whether the financial statements of an entity are prepared and presented fairly in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework. An audit report is a key deliverable of the audit process and provides assurance and credibility to the users of the financial statements.
According to the Standards on Auditing (SA) 700, which deals with forming an opinion and reporting on financial statements, an audit report must have a title that clearly indicates that it is an independent auditor's report [SA 700.21]. The title should include the word "independent" to convey that the auditor has met all the relevant ethical requirements regarding independence and objectivity and has performed the audit in accordance with the applicable standards [SA 700.A21].
Therefore, based on this information, the answer to your question is: **A) include the word "independent."** Auditing standards require that the audit report must be titled and that the title must include the word "independent."
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A specimen of steel 100mm diameter with a guage length of 100mm tested a distruction it has an extension of 0.50mm under a load of 70KN and the load at elastic limit is 10KN the maximum load is 140KN the total extension of fracture is 58mm and the diameter at the neck is 16mm . find the Stress of elastic limit, young modulus, percentage enlogation, percentage reduction in area , and ultimate tensile stress?
The stress at elastic limit is 1.27 N/mm^2, the Young's modulus is 254 N/mm^2, the percentage elongation is 57.5%, the percentage reduction in area is 97.44%, and the ultimate tensile stress is 696.67 N/mm^2.
How to calculate the valuesStress = Force / Area
Young's modulus = Stress / Strain
Percentage elongation = (extension / gauge length) x 100%
Percentage reduction in area = [(original area - area at neck) / original area] x 100%
Ultimate tensile stress = Maximum load / Area
Diameter of specimen = 100 mm
Gauge length = 100 mm
Extension at 70 KN load = 0.50 mm
Load at elastic limit = 10 KN
Maximum load = 140 KN
Total extension at fracture = 58 mm
Diameter at neck = 16 mm
We can calculate the area of the specimen as follows:
Area = π/4 x d^2
Area = π/4 x (100 mm)^2
Area = 7853.98 mm^2
The stress at elastic limit can be calculated as:
Stress = Load / Area
Stress = 10 KN / 7853.98 mm^2
Stress = 1.27 N/mm^2
The Young's modulus can be calculated as:
Strain = Extension / Gauge length
Strain = 0.50 mm / 100 mm
Strain = 0.005
Stress = Load / Area
Load = Stress x Area
Load = 1.27 N/mm^2 x 7853.98 mm^2
Load = 9982.16 N
Young's modulus = Stress / Strain
Young's modulus = 1.27 N/mm^2 / 0.005
Young's modulus = 254 N/mm^2
The percentage elongation can be calculated as:
Percentage elongation = (extension / gauge length) x 100%
Percentage elongation = (58 mm - 0.50 mm) / 100 mm x 100%
Percentage elongation = 57.5%
The percentage reduction in area can be calculated as:
Original area = π/4 x (100 mm)^2 = 7853.98 mm^2
Area at neck = π/4 x (16 mm)^2 = 201.06 mm^2
Percentage reduction in area = [(original area - area at neck) / original area] x 100%
Percentage reduction in area = [(7853.98 mm^2 - 201.06 mm^2) / 7853.98 mm^2] x 100%
Percentage reduction in area = 97.44%
The ultimate tensile stress can be calculated as:
Area at neck = π/4 x (16 mm)^2 = 201.06 mm^2
Ultimate tensile stress = Maximum load / Area
Ultimate tensile stress = 140 KN / 201.06 mm^2
Ultimate tensile stress = 696.67 N/mm^2
Therefore, the stress at elastic limit is 1.27 N/mm^2, the Young's modulus is 254 N/mm^2, the percentage elongation is 57.5%, the percentage reduction in area is 97.44%, and the ultimate tensile stress is 696.67 N/mm^2.
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The carburetor economizer circuit does what?
The carburetor economizer circuit is responsible for providing the appropriate fuel mixture to the engine during high-speed or high-load conditions.
The carburetor economizer circuit is a mechanism that allows for fuel efficiency by controlling the amount of fuel being used in the carburetor.
It ensures optimal engine performance and efficiency by enriching the fuel mixture when needed. It works by introducing a secondary air flow into the carburetor's main fuel circuit, which in turn reduces the amount of fuel being consumed by the engine. The circuit operates under certain conditions such as when the throttle is partially closed or when the engine is under low load. By utilizing this circuit, the engine can operate with greater fuel efficiency, which can help reduce overall fuel consumption and save money in the long run.Know more about the carburetor
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Using the natural built-up pressure in a reservoir to extract crude oil is known as ________ oil recovery.
Using the natural built-up pressure in a reservoir to extract crude oil is known as "primary" oil recovery.
In a typical oil reservoir, there is a layer of oil trapped between two layers of impermeable rock. When a well is drilled into the reservoir, the natural pressure within the reservoir forces the oil to the surface through the wellbore. This natural pressure is due to the weight of the overlying rock and fluids that have accumulated above the oil-bearing formation over millions of years. During primary oil recovery, the oil flows to the surface naturally due to this pressure. However, as the oil is produced, the pressure within the reservoir gradually decreases, reducing the flow rate of the oil. At this point, secondary or tertiary recovery methods may be used to increase the flow rate and recover more oil from the reservoir. Examples of secondary and tertiary oil recovery methods include water flooding, gas injection, and steam injection. These methods involve the injection of fluids or gases into the reservoir to maintain or increase the pressure within the reservoir, making it easier to extract the oil.
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Question 77
A footing drain is required to:
a. Control moisture
b. Eliminate radon
c. Keep a foundation from slipping
d. Keep the feet dry while pouring concrete
A footing drain is required to "control moisture". A footing drain is a type of drain tile that is installed around the perimeter of a building's foundation.
A foundation is a structural element that supports a building or other structure and transfers its weight to the ground. Foundations are typically made of concrete, masonry, or other durable materials and are designed to distribute the weight of the building evenly over the ground. They are one of the most important components of a building, as they provide a stable base upon which the rest of the structure is built. Foundations must be designed to withstand the forces of nature, including wind, earthquakes, and soil erosion. They are usually constructed below ground level and must be able to withstand the pressure of the soil and water surrounding them. Proper foundation design and construction are critical to ensuring the safety and longevity of any building or structure.
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A sinusoidal voltage with a half-cycle average value of 12.5V is applied to a circuit with a resistance of 330 ohms. What is the peak current in the circuit? Ip= Vp/R = (1.57)(12.5V)/330ohms = 59.5mA
To find the peak current (Ip) in the circuit, you should use the formula: Ip = Vp/R. You have correctly found the peak voltage (Vp) by multiplying the half-cycle average value by 1.57, which equals 19.625V. Now, to find the peak current, divide the peak voltage by the resistance: Ip = 19.625V / 330 ohms = 0.0595A or 59.5mA.
Based on your given information, a sinusoidal voltage with a half-cycle average value of 12.5V is applied to a circuit with a resistance of 330 ohms.
If the marginal cost is greater than the average total cost but less than the average variable cost, then the average total cost is down and the average variable cost is rising.
It can be observed from the plotting of the average variable cost, marginal cost, and average total cost curves that the marginal cost converges the average variable cost and average total cost curves at their lowest points. It can be claimed that when the negligible taken toll is between the two curves, the average variable cost has already reached its lowest point and is expanding because the average total cost curve is higher than the average variable cost curve. The marginal cost, however, is below the average total cost curve.
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Certain contacts of a mechanical timing relay are designed to operate at a preset time interval:a. after the coil is energized.c. after power is applied to the circuit.b. after the coil is de-energized.d. either a or b.
Certain contacts of a mechanical timing relay are designed to operate at a preset time interval after the coil is energized. The correct option is a. after the coil is energized.
In a mechanical timing relay, certain contacts are designed to operate after a preset time interval has elapsed since the coil was energized. This means that when the coil receives power, a timer mechanism starts counting down, and once the preset time interval has elapsed, the contacts operate and switch position.
This allows for precise timing control in industrial applications, where specific events or processes need to occur at predetermined intervals. Mechanical timing relays are widely used in automation systems, where they can provide accurate and reliable timing control without the need for complex programming or software.
The correct option is a.
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5155 - In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to:- Increase- Decrease- Not vary
In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to increase.
This is because during a recovery from a dive, the aircraft is subjected to high G-forces, which increases the weight of the aircraft and thus increases the stall speed. The increase in load factor can also cause a decrease in lift, which further increases the stall speed. It's important for pilots to be aware of these effects and adjust their flying accordingly to avoid dangerous situations.Fast backup and instant recovery for demanding RTOs and RPOs. With Rapid Recovery, you can back up and quickly recover anything — systems, apps and data — anywhere, whether it’s physical, virtual or in the cloud. This data recovery software allows you to run without restore, with zero impact on your users, as if the outage or data loss never happened. Connect to cloud simply and easily, and protect growing virtual environments automatically.
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Q1. A Why are Internet standards called RFCs?
The Internet standards are called RFCs (Request for Comments) because the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) initially used this process to develop technical specifications for the Internet.
Internet standards are called RFCs, which stands for Request for Comments, due to their collaborative and open development process.
The term "Request for Comments" highlights the intention of seeking input and feedback from the global technical community.
This process ensures that the Internet remains a universally accessible and interoperable platform.
The RFC series began in 1969 as part of the development of ARPANET, the precursor to the modern Internet.
Since then, it has evolved into a comprehensive documentation system for Internet standards, protocols, procedures, and other related information.
The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) manages the RFC process, with input from various working groups and stakeholders.
RFCs go through several stages of development and review before becoming accepted standards.
These stages include:
Draft:
An initial proposal is created and shared with the relevant working group or the wider IETF community.
Discussion:
Feedback is gathered, and the proposal may be revised based on the received input.
Last Call:
The final draft is circulated for a last round of comments and suggestions.
Approval:
The IETF leadership reviews the final draft and, if deemed suitable, approves it as an official RFC.
Collaborative process ensures that a wide range of perspectives and expertise are considered when creating Internet standards, promoting innovation and maintaining the stability of the global network.
The term "RFC" reflects the open and inclusive nature of Internet standards development, which is essential for the ongoing evolution and growth of the Internet.
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Up and down counters may be programmed together to count up and down. true/false
True. Up and down counters can be programmed together to count up and down, allowing for a greater range of counting options.
An up counter is a digital circuit that counts from an initial value up to a maximum value. When the maximum value is reached, the counter resets to the initial value and starts counting again. For example, an up counter with an initial value of 0 and a maximum value of 7 would count 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 0, 1, 2, and so on.
Up and down counters can be programmed together to count both up and down. An up counter counts upwards from a starting value, while a down counter counts downwards from a starting value. By programming the two counters together, you can create a counter that can count up and down depending on the current direction setting.
Overall, programming up and down counters together can be useful in a variety of applications where counting both up and down is necessary, such as in digital clocks, timers, and other types of electronic devices.
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Where does a asymmetric multiprocessing scheduler run?
An asymmetric multiprocessing scheduler typically runs on the operating system kernel of the primary processing unit.
This scheduler is responsible for distributing tasks to the different processing units in the system, which may have varying capabilities and resource availability. The scheduler must take into account the workload and capabilities of each processing unit in order to optimize system performance and ensure that tasks are completed efficiently. Overall, the goal of the asymmetric multiprocessing scheduler is to maximize the utilization of available resources while minimizing delays and bottlenecks in the system.
An asymmetric multiprocessing scheduler runs on the master processor in an asymmetric multiprocessing system. This type of scheduler is responsible for managing tasks and resources across multiple processors, with the master processor handling the scheduling and coordination, while the other processors execute the assigned tasks.
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What data structure can threads share?
Threads can share data structures such as arrays, lists, queues, stacks, and hash tables. These data structures can be accessed and modified concurrently by multiple threads, but proper synchronization mechanisms must be implemented to ensure thread safety and prevent data races.
Techniques such as locks, semaphores, and atomic operations can be used to synchronize access to shared data structures. Additionally, care must be taken to avoid deadlock and livelock situations that can arise from improper synchronization.Threads can share data structures called "shared memory" or "concurrent data structures." These structures allow multiple threads to access and manipulate the data simultaneously, ensuring efficient and synchronized processing. Examples include concurrent queues, hash tables, and arrays. Proper synchronization mechanisms, such as mutexes and semaphores, should be employed to prevent race conditions and ensure data consistency.
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Which term describes how the Mac operating system handles files created, deleted, or modified since the last backup when the backup drive is temporarily missing?A) Disk dumpB) SnapshotC) System restore pointD) Tarball
The term that describes how the Mac operating system handles files created, deleted, or modified since the last backup when the backup drive is temporarily missing is B) Snapshot.
A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of the contents of a volume. When Time Machine creates a backup of your Mac, it takes a snapshot of your files and folders at that moment. If the backup drive is temporarily missing, Time Machine will continue to take snapshots of your files and folders. When the backup drive is reconnected, Time Machine will copy over the differences between the latest snapshot and the previous backup to ensure that your backup is up to date. This allows you to restore your files to a point in time even if the backup drive was not available for a period.
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Question 48 Marks: 1 Comprehensive community planning attempts to take an overall look at the total region.Choose one answer. a. True b. False
True. Comprehensive community planning aims to consider the broader community or region and its needs, rather than just focusing on specific projects or areas within the community.
A community is a group of individuals who share common characteristics, such as location, interests, or culture, and who interact and collaborate with each other to achieve common goals. Communities can take many forms, from small rural villages to large urban areas, and can be defined by geographical, social, or economic factors. Community members often work together to address common challenges or issues, and may form organizations or groups to pursue shared interests. Strong communities are built on a foundation of trust, respect, and inclusivity, and can provide important support networks for their members, as well as contribute to the overall well-being and resilience of society.
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What compact device eventually replaced the electrostatuc generators.
Electrostatic generators have been used for various applications over the years, but if you are referring to generators that were commonly used for generating high voltage electricity, then the device that replaced them was the Van de Graaff generator.
The Van de Graaff generator was invented by Robert J. Van de Graaff in 1929 and is a type of electrostatic generator that uses a moving belt to accumulate and transfer static electricity to a high voltage terminal. It was widely used in scientific experiments and research, and even today it can be found in laboratories and museums as a demonstration tool.
However, it's important to note that electrostatic generators still have some niche applications, such as in particle accelerators and air purification systems. So, while the Van de Graaff generator replaced electrostatic generators for many applications, they still have their uses in some areas.
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Consider the following Python function definition: def multa (a, b =1, c=1 ): print(a * b *c) Which of the following calls is NOT correct? O print (mult (8)) O print (mult(3, -14) O print (mult(9, 15, 6, 7)) O print (mult(2, 5, 6))
The call "print (mult(9, 15, 6, 7))" is not correct. The function definition specifies three parameters with default values. This means that when the function is called, the values of these parameters can be provided by the caller, but are not required.
If no value is provided for a parameter, the default value will be used. In the first call, only one argument is provided, so the function will use the default values for b and c. In the second call, two arguments are provided, so the function will use the provided values for a and b, and the default value for c. In the third call, four arguments are provided, which is more than the function definition allows, so the call is not correct. In the fourth call, three arguments are provided, which is within the allowed range, so the call is correct.
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What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?
The switch's behavior in response to a frame with an incorrect CRC value is to protect the integrity and reliability of the network by preventing corrupted or modified frames from being transmitted further.
When a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different from the value in the FCS (Frame Check Sequence) field, it means that the frame has been corrupted or modified during transmission. The switch will discard the frame and not forward it to its intended destination. This is because the FCS field is used to ensure the integrity of the data being transmitted. The FCS field contains a checksum calculated over the entire frame, including the header and payload. If the calculated CRC value does not match the value in the FCS field, it means that the frame has been modified or corrupted during transmission. In such cases, the switch may also generate an error message or log entry to alert network administrators to the problem. The error message may provide information about the nature of the error, such as the source and destination addresses of the frame, the interface on which it was received, and the reason for its rejection.
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