Of the following events that occur during meiosis, (b) Recombination between homologous chromatids during meiosis 1 contributes most to genetic diversity in the human population.
In sexually reproducing organisms, meiosis, a kind of cell division, causes a reduction in the number of chromosomes in gametes (the sex cells, or egg and sperm). Human body cells, or somatic cells, are diploid, meaning they have two sets of chromosomes (one from each parent).
The egg and sperm that combine during fertilization must have a single pair of chromosomes, or be haploid, in order to sustain this condition. During meiosis, each diploid cell splits twice to create four haploid daughter cells called gametes.
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The active transport pump used to move sodium ions across the membranes of gill cells in a freshwater fish has each of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
answer choices
It uses osmosis to carry sodium ions into the cells.
It requires energy.
It has a specific binding site for ATP.
It has a specific binding site for sodium ions.
Option A, Each of the above features may be found in a freshwater fish's active transport pump, except the fact that it brings dissolved salts into the cells via osmosis.
Fish that spend the most or all of their life in bodies of water with a salinity of less than one percent are referred to as freshwater fish.
Cell transport is the passage of ions, macromolecules, or other substances into or out of a live organism's cell through the cell membrane.
There are essentially two (2) primary forms of cell transport, which include:
Chemicals can be moved through a cell membrane passively while their concentration is regulated.
Active transport is the movement of compounds across the cell membrane against a gradient of concentration and in the presence of oxygen from a location of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.
A protein pump uses adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as energy during active transport to transfer molecules against a gradient of concentration from one area of lower concentration to another.
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in the meselson and stahl model, which of the following would rule out a dispersive replication model? 1. in the first generation, you see a single band of intermediate density 2. in the third generation, the dna is composed of mixed dna molecules, some of them intermediate density, most of them light 3. in the second generation, you have 1 band of intermediate density 4. in the first generation, you see 2 bands, a light one and a heavy one 5. both 2 and 4
In the Meselson and Stahl model, the result that would rule out a dispersive replication model is: 2. in the third generation, the DNA is composed of mixed DNA molecules, some of them intermediate density, most of them light.
Dispersive model of of DNA replication suggests that replication will result in only intermediate DNA molecules after every cycle. This is a hybrid DNA with both old as well as new strand.
DNA is the genetic material in most of the living organisms. It is a double-stranded molecule with helical shape that have anti-parallel complementary strands. These strands are joined together by the hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases.
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Under optimal conditions the number of DNA molecules amplified from a single molecule in a PCR after 30 amplification cycles will be
A) 30
B) 30 x 2
C) 30^2
D) 2^30
E) 30^30
Under optimal conditions the number of DNA molecules amplified from a single molecule in a PCR after 30 amplification cycles will be (d) 2^30.
The sample is heated so that the DNA denatures, or splits into two pieces of single-stranded DNA, prior to utilizing PCR to amplify a section of DNA. Also, "Taq polymerase" , an enzyme makes two new DNA strands using the old and previous strands as templates for help. The outcome of this process is the duplication of the original DNA, with one old and one new strand of DNA present in each of the new molecules.
After then, each of these strands may be used to make two other copies, and so on. More than one billion precise duplicates of the original DNA segment are produced when the cycle of denaturing and synthesizing new DNA is repeated up to 30 or 40 times.
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the cerebrum is divided into right and left portions known as cerebral hemispheres. convolution are wrikles or folds on the cerebrum and include:
The Gyri of the brain are the upward projections.
The Sulci of the cerebrum are the downward grooves.
Deep groove known as the median longitudinal fissure separates the left and right brain hemispheres.
The major distinguishable regions of the cerebral cortex that make up the surface of each hemisphere of the cerebrum are known as the lobes of the brain. The corpus callosum connects the two hemispheres, which have a nearly symmetrical structural arrangement.
The frontal, parietal, occipital lobe, and temporal lobes are the four lobes of the brain.The Central Sulcus divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. A groove known as the Lateral Sulcus divides the frontal and temporal lobes.The majority of the physical region of the visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe, which is the mammalian brain's visual processing hub.
Cell bodies, synapses, and brain integration processes are located on the gray matter-covered outside of the cerebral cortex.
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nk cells derive from the same stem cells as b and t cells. these cells differentiate self from nonself through choose one: a. tlrs. b. mhcs. c. macs. d. mamps.
NK cells are derived from the same stem cells as b and t cells, these cells differentiate self from nonself through (b) MHCs.
The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) is an essential component in the immune system's ability to distinguish among self and non-self antigens. MHC limits how an antigen is presented to the outside.
The remaining choices are incorrect due to the fact that they do not play a role in the mentioned discrimination but rather play different roles. The membrane attack complex, often known as MACs, is created in the complement pathway. Its purpose is to eliminate antigens; it does not distinguish across self and nonself antigens. Similar to this, TLRs (toll-like receptors) play a receptor role in the innate immune system and do not distinguish among self and nonself.
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identify the two microorganisms that cause meningoencephalitis and are accidental parasites that invade the body only under unusual circumstances.
Acanthamoeba and Naegleria fowleri are the two microorganisms that cause meningoencephalitis and are accidental parasites that invade the body only under unusual circumstances.
A microorganism, also referred to as a microbe, is a living thing with one or more tiny cells. Sixth-century BC texts, particularly those found in the Jain scriptures of India, show skepticism toward the likelihood of microscopic life. Microorganisms had only recently been the subject of scientific investigation when Anton van Leeuwenhoek made his initial observations of them with a microscope in the 1670s. The idea of spontaneous creation was refuted by Louis Pasteur's discovery in the 1850s that germs caused food degradation. Cholera, diphtheria, tuberculosis, and anthrax were all brought on by bacteria, as Robert Koch found in the 1880s.
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carbapenemases are produced by various organisms such as enterobacteriaceae, pseudomonas aeruginosa, and acinetobacter species. detecting the presence of carbapenemase activity in these organisms is important to prevent the spreading of resistant organisms. which of the following methods is used to detect the presence of carbapenemase-producing organisms?
A well-researched model organism for single-species biofilm development is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Due to the propensity of these bacteria to build biofilms in Cystic fibrosis (CF) patients, this study also has direct medicinal relevance.
The multidrug-resistant organism Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for its widespread distribution, innately evolved antibiotic resistance mechanisms, and association with serious infections such different sepsis syndromes.
A genetic condition called cystic fibrosis (CF) causes organs to produce sticky, viscous mucus, most frequently in the pancreas and the lungs. Viscous mucus obstructs the airways and makes breathing difficult in persons with cystic fibrosis. Control includes a regulated diet and techniques for emptying the lungs.
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How does physical digestion take place in the mouth and stomach?
Physical digestion is the process by which food is mechanically broken down into smaller pieces through the actions of chewing, grinding, and mixing. In the mouth, physical digestion begins when food is chewed by the teeth. This process breaks the food into smaller pieces, mixes it with saliva, and forms it into a ball called a bolus. The bolus is then swallowed and passes down the esophagus into the stomach.
Once the food enters the stomach, it is mixed with gastric juices and further broken down through a process called churning. Churning mixes the food with gastric juices and mechanical forces generated by the muscles of the stomach wall. This helps to break the food down into even smaller pieces and begins the process of breaking down the complex molecules in the food into simpler molecules that can be absorbed by the body.
Overall, physical digestion in the mouth and stomach involves mechanical processes that break food down into smaller pieces and mix it with digestive enzymes, allowing for more efficient chemical digestion and absorption of nutrients.
Answer:
In mouth, grinding of food into smaller pieces by the teeth. this process called mastication.
contracting and relaxing of the stomach is called churning. it helps to further break down the food mechanically into even smaller pieces.
the natural aging process has a more apparent effect on ______________ muscle fibers, which results in ______________ power.
The natural aging process has a more apparent effect on type 2 muscle fibers, which results in anaerobic power.
What is natural aging?Natural aging is defined as a natural process that develops at ambient temperature through the aging of precipitated solid solutions. We experience and define aging as the increasing degradation to these structures and functions.
A number of physical changes associated with aging include muscular loss, minor cognitive decline, and a diminished sense of taste and smell. Older persons may find it more challenging to achieve their dietary demands as a result of these changes.
Thus, the natural aging process has a more apparent effect on type 2 muscle fibers, which results in anaerobic power.
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True or False, during the process of bone remodeling, osteoblasts resorb existing bone and osteoclasts form new bone.
False: during the process of bone remodeling, osteoblasts resorb existing bone and osteoclasts form new bone.
Hematopoietic cells called osteoclasts have the ability to resorb bone and take part in bone remodelling and bone marrow development.
Giant cells called osteoclasts have 10 to 20 nuclei.
By tying their surface integrins to a bone protein known as vitronectin, they form a tight bond with the bone matrix.
The osteoclast can create a microenvironment that promotes bone resorption thanks to the close apposition, which closes off a portion of the bone beneath it.
Multiple infoldings of the osteoclast cell membrane create a "ruffled border" in the osteoclast's vicinity to the bone.
Bone remodelling is a process that replaces discrete sections of old bone with freshly produced packets of proteinaceous matrix, maintaining bone strength and ion balance.
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Saved tetanus Drag the text blocks below into their correct order. concentrically No immediate movement of the bar is demonstrated despite the production of muscle force, which first demonstrates contraction. isometric When ready, he initiates neural recruitment of his ankle, knee, and hip extensors first by increasing the potentials to the lower-limb extensors of action motor units Voluntarily exerting more effort, additional recruited, which results in the production of greater forces. are frequency 46 eccentric Progressively increasing force production allows the force to exceed that of the bars inertia, and the ankle, knee, and hip extensors begin to contract summation twitches
Through the cycling of actin and myosin cross-bridges, a muscle fibre produces tension.
The muscle may lengthen, shorten, or stay the same when under tension. Although the word "contraction" connotes shortening, it actually refers to the creation of tension within a muscle fibre when used in relation to the muscular system. The variations in muscle length during contractions distinguish a variety of muscle contractions.
Muscles shrink during a concentric contraction, which is a type of muscle contraction used to overcome resistance. A concentric contraction of the biceps, for instance, would force the arm to bend at the elbow when carrying a heavy object, moving the object towards the shoulder. Sarcomere, muscle fibre, and muscle are all compressed by cross-bridge cycling.
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Below is a pedigree of a family with a disorder of unknown inheritance. Note that individual 11 is known to have no affected alleles. Superscript a indicates the affected allele for sex-linked traits. What are the possible genotypes of individual 1?
a. Aa
b. X^A X^a
c. X^A X^A
d. aa
c. X^a X^a
d. AA
Below is a pedigree of a family with a disorder of unknown inheritance. Note that individual 11 is known to have no affected alleles.
X^A X^a and X^A X^A are the possible genotypes of individual 1.
An autosomal pedigree depicts the transmission of all qualities other than the sex-linked traits, whereas a sex-linked pedigree depicts the transmission of sex-linked traits among generations. In general, the autosomal pattern of inheritance and the pattern of inheritance of sex-linked traits are highly dissimilar. Because males have an X and a Y chromosome, even a single allele would result in the appearance of a trait in them, the sex-related traits actually occur more frequently in males than in females. Usually, carriers are females.
Using pedigrees, one can determine how a given trait is passed down through a family. A trait's existence or absence as it relates to the link between parents, children, and siblings can be seen in pedigrees. Pedigrees use standardized symbols to denote family members and connections. We can ascertain genotypes, recognize phenotypes, and forecast how a trait will be passed down in the future by studying a pedigree. A pedigree's information can be used to assess an allele's mode of inheritance, such as whether it is dominant, recessive, autosomal, or sex-linked.
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The function of the urinary bladder is to:
A serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body.
B expel urine from the body, aided by the urethra.
C help concentrate the urine in periods of dehydration.
D do both A and B.
D) do both A and B.
The function of the urinary bladder is to, Serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body and expels urine from the body, aided by the urethra. Thus Both A and B.
Urinary Bladder, The lower abdomen is home to this hollow triangle organ. Ligaments that are attached to the pelvic bones and other organs keep it in place. The bladder's walls serve as a reservoir as it unwinds and grows to store urine and expel urine through the urethra.
Urine leakage can be caused by urinary stones, which are hard, stone-like masses that form in the bladder. Disorders of the brain. Urinary incontinence can be brought on by conditions like multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease, a stroke, a brain tumor, or a spinal injury that disrupt the nerve signals that control the bladder.
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devise a method for determining the molecular weight of the fragment you amplified and describe that method. make sure to think about the information that is available by examining your gel.
DNA ladder, a collection of standards used to determine the size of DNA utilized, is used in this case's agarose gel electrophoresis procedure.
The DNA ladder is placed next to the visualizing DNA pieces. Assume that the DNA next to the number 300 base pairs on the ladder is this size. These are the established criteria used to estimate DNA or RNA size. We can use 2% of agricultural sugar to run DNA fragments up to 500 base pairs for a range. This category of size includes the majority of the amplified DNA.An approximate size of a molecule run on a gel during electrophoresis is determined using a molecular-weight size marker, also known as a protein ladder, DNA ladder, or RNA ladder. This method is based on the idea that molecular weight is inversely proportional to migration rate through a gel matrix. Markers can therefore be employed in gel electrophoresis to assess the size of the other fragments using a logarithmic scale (providing the fragment sizes of the marker are known).To know more about electrophoresis check the below link:
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Integral membrane proteins have different characteristics and functions than peripheral membrane proteins. Identify the statements that are properties of integral membrane proteins and those that are properties of peripheral membrane proteins. Integral membrane proteins Peripheral membrane proteins Answer Bank can move laterally (sideways) in the hydrophobic part of the membrane | found at the surface of the cell membrane reach through all or part of the membrane pump substances across the cell membrane
Integral membrane proteins can move laterally (sideways) in the hydrophobic part of the membrane | found at the surface of the cell membrane reach through all or part of the membrane pump substances across the cell membrane.
Integral proteins; essential proteins are embedded in membrane because maximum of necessary proteins generally include hydrophobic facet chain. those proteins are strongly connected to plasma membrane and that they may be only removed with the aid of the usage of organic detergents, non-polar solvent and denaturing agents, SMIM23
2) Peripheral proteins; these proteins do no longer engage with hydrophobic core of membrane. They normally have interaction with plasma membrane via lipid polar head or vital proteins, Actin.
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the pancreas has question 16 options: an endocrine portion consisting of acini. an exocrine portion consisting of pancreatic islets. the pancreatic duct, which carries digestive enzymes from the pancreas. the pancreatic duct, which empties into the jejunum. both an endocrine portion consisting of acini and an exocrine portion consisting of pancreatic islets.
Islet cells, also known as Langerhans islets, are found in the pancreas' endocrine system and are responsible for producing and releasing vital hormones into the blood.
What components make up pancreatic acini?Every pancreatic acinus consists from pyramidal-shaped acinar cells, with a large basal section and a narrow apical surface and surround a small central lumen.These acinar cells, which secrete digesting enzymes, are serous secretory cells.
Is the pancreatic an exocrine gland?There are two different types of glands in the pancreas: Exocrine. Digestive enzymes are secreted by the exocrine gland.The primary pancreatic duct is connected to a network other ducts where these enzymes are released.
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each protein from particular arrangements of the 20 common amino acids; this means that for a chain of just seven amino acids, there are over [ select ] possibilities!
Each protein from particular arrangements of the 20 common amino acids and this means that for a chain of just seven amino acids, there are over one-tenth of the possibilities.
Amino acids are organic compounds that contain each amino and acid practical teams. though many amino acids exist in nature, far and away the foremost necessary square measure the alpha-amino acids, that comprise proteins. solely twenty two alpha amino acids seem within the ordination
A chain of amino acids is known as petide bonds which are those bonds that connect aminoalkanoic acids; created once the acid cluster of 1 amino acid is joined with the nitrogen-containing alkane series cluster of another amino acid through condensation.
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which of the following is not true? prokaryotic cells and viruses do not use enzymes enzymes only work inside of cells enzymes are used up after catalyzing a reaction most enzymes are proteins
The following statements are untrue: Prokaryotic cells and viruses do not use enzymes; enzymes are exhausted after catalysing a process, and enzymes exclusively function inside cells.
Enzymes can be utilised again to speed up the same reaction because they don't get damaged or depleted during the reactions they catalyse. Enzymes are incredibly efficient because each one is very specialised for the chemical reaction it catalyses. One way to think of enzymes is as metabolic process catalysts. As they are not involved in the actual reaction but rather offer a different reaction pathway with lower activation energy, catalysts are not depleted throughout reactions.
The following claims are therefore untrue: Enzymes are exhausted after catalysing a reaction. Enzymes exclusively function inside cells. Prokaryotic cells and viruses do not require enzymes.
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the energy we expend to maintain respiration and circulation is known as the energy cost of physical activity. True or False
The energy cost of physical activity refers to the energy required to maintain our breathing and blood circulation. False.
Energy expenditure describes how much a person uses during physical activity and to maintain vital bodily processes like respiration, circulation, and digestion. Even when the body is at rest, it needs energy (kilojoules) to keep all of its systems running smoothly. This is known as the basal metabolic rate (BMR) (such as breathing, keeping the heart beating to circulate blood, growing and repairing cells and adjusting hormone levels). The energy used up while movement is known as physical activity energy expenditure, or PAEE. The thermic effect of food, sometimes referred to as diet-induced energy expenditure, is connected to food digestion, absorption, and storage.
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which of the following best describes the cells that result from the process of meiosis in mammals? responses they are diploid. they are diploid. they can be used to repair injuries. they can be used to repair injuries. they are genetically different from the parent cell. they are genetically different from the parent cell. they are genetically identical to all the other cells in the body. they are genetically identical to all the other cells in the body. they are identical to each other.
The cells that result from the process of meiosis in mammals are genetically different from the parent cell.
Meiosis is a pivotal event in mammalian gametogenesis, and meiotic errors result in infertility or aneuploidy. Recombination, chromosome pairing, and segregation are all important events in meiosis. Induction of genetically programmed double-strand breaks initiates recombination.
In mammals, meiosis refers to the cell divisions that result in gametes, sperm, and eggs. The number of chromosomes in meiosis is half that of somatic cell nuclei. In mammals, meiosis occurs in the germ line, testes, and ovaries. Meiosis is important for three reasons: it allows diploid organisms to reproduce sexually, it promotes genetic diversity, and it aids in the repair of genetic defects.
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which of the following lists represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? which of the following lists represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome, looped domain nucleosome, looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber request answer
Nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain- this represents order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin.
What is chromatin?
Chromatin, found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, is a complex of proteins and DNA. The main function of chromatin is to pack long DNA molecules into more compact and denser structures.
Through chromatin, it is possible for a number of cell processes to occur, like transcription, DNA replication, DNA repair, cell division, and genetic recombination.
The basic unit of organization of chromatin is called the nucleosome. The nucleosome comprises of 147 bp of DNA that wrapped around a core of histone proteins.
So, therefore, nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin.
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I don't know how to answer this questions please help me
Explanation 1-4:
In this experiment, the independent variable is the light intensity, which is being deliberately changed by the experimenter through the manipulation of the lamp's distance from the aquatic plant. The dependent variable is the rate of photosynthesis, which is being measured by the amount of gas produced by the plant in one minute. The control variable is the amount of gas produced, which is being held constant by measuring the gas production over a fixed time interval (one minute). Other factors that could affect the rate of photosynthesis, such as temperature, water quality, and the type of plant being used, should also be kept constant in order to isolate the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable.
Explanation 5:
It is not possible for me to conclude anything about this experiment without additional information. The information provided in the question does not include any data or results from the experiment, so there is nothing that can be concluded at this time. In order to draw conclusions from an experiment, it is necessary to collect and analyze data, test hypotheses, and evaluate the results in the context of the research question or problem being investigated. Conclusions should be based on the evidence gathered during the experiment and should be carefully supported by the data and the experimenter's observations.
Suppose gene A on the left chromosome is damaged and no longer functions. What form of the trait would show? Why?
An X-linked recessive gene almost never has a counterpart on the Y chromosome. Therefore excessive traits on the X chromosome
What is X-linked recessive chromosome?
Genetic disorders connected to mutations in genes on the X chromosome are referred to as having X-linked recessive inheritance. Because he contains just one X chromosome, a guy who carries this mutation will be impacted. A girl who carries a gene mutation in one X chromosome but has a normal gene on the other X chromosome usually has no symptoms. The disorder can only affect females (who have two X chromosomes) if there is a mutation on both X chromosomes. The daughters are often unaffected and are known as carriers because one of their X chromosomes has the mutation but the other one is normal if only the father or mother has the mutant X-linked gene. Sons will be impacted if their mother carries the faulty X-linked gene.
Hence, all about X chromosome
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The conversion of the potential energy of a proton gradient to a form more useful to the cell is achieved by coupling the movement of protons down their electrochemical gradient with the synthesis of ATP. This coupling is made possible by:ATP synthase.
By coordinating the flow of protons down an electrochemical gradient with the synthesis of ATP, the potential energy of a proton gradient is transformed into a form more beneficial to the cell. ATP synthase allows for this coupling.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP), an organic compound, provides energy for a number of biological processes in living cells, including muscle contraction, transmission of nerve impulses, dissolution of condensate, and chemical synthesis. All known forms of life contain ATP, which is frequently referred to be the "molecular unit of currency" of intracellular energy transfer. It either transforms into adenosine monophosphate (AMP) or adenosine diphosphate (ADP) when absorbed via metabolic activities (AMP). There are various methods that restore ATP. The average person's body recycles as much ATP as they weigh each day. As a coenzyme and precursor to DNA and RNA, it also has several additional functions. The 9-nitrogen atom of an adenine forms a link with the 1′ carbon atom of a sugar (ribose), and the sugar's 5' carbon atom is then connected to a triphosphate group. In its many metabolic steps, the adenine and sugar groups remain intact, but the triphosphate is converted into di- and monophosphate, producing, respectively, the derivatives ADP and AMP.
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before anyone really knew the structure of dan, erwin chargaff at columbia university had, for a long time measured the base
The ratios of adenine (A) to thymine (T) and guanine (G) to cytosine (C) in DNA are equal, according to Erwin Chargaff. The final DNA structure clearly displays this parity.
When Chargaff examined the base %, what did he learn?In 1947, Chargaff discovered that different species' DNA differed from one another in terms of the relative amounts of the A, C, G, and T bases. This molecular variety provided more proof that DNA might be the genetic substance.
What is the structural underpinning of Chargaff's laws?According to Chargaff's criteria, the amounts of guanine and cytosine should be equal in any species' or organism's DNA, and the amounts of adenine and thymine should be identical as well. The purine and pyrimidine bases should also be in a 1:1 stoichiometric ratio, meaning that A+G=T+C.
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Which of the following processes does NOT involve redox (i.e oxidation/reduction) reactions? Select only ONE answer choice. O Photosystem II and its affiliated processes Photosystem and its affiliated processes O Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase Electron transport chain in photosynthesis Calvin Cycle
(C)Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase is the process which does not involve redox reaction.
Both photosystems I and II are involved in the reactions that are light-dependent. When light strikes either photosystem, electrons are released. Numerous carrier molecules transfer the electrons that PSII emits into the electron transport chain. Because of the uneven distribution of the [tex]H^+[/tex] ions during the transit of the electron transport chain, ATP is created. The electrons travel from the ETC to PS I. As the electrons from PS I reach the NADP, they combine to produce NADPH. Reduction is the transfer of electrons, and oxidation is the donation of electrons. Thus, redox processes are involved in both photosystems.
Reduction and oxidation processes occur even during the Calvin cycle. Complexes in ETC involve redox processes. However, redox processes are not involved in the ATP synthases' production of ATP. This is due to the fact that ATP is created when ATP synthases join ADP and the phosphate group to create ATP. Through phosphorylation, it is created.
Thus, Redox reaction is not involved in Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase process.
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Corrected Question:
Which of the following processes does NOT involve redox (i.e oxidation/reduction) reactions? Select only ONE answer choice.
(A)Photosystem II and its affiliated processes.
(B)Photosystem and its affiliated processes.
(C)Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase.
(D)Electron transport chain in photosynthesis Calvin Cycle.
Anaerobic respiration allows a cell to break down carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen. Identify how NAD^+ is used by animal cells during anaerobic respiration.
Anaerobic respiration allows a cell to break down carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen. Identify how NAD+ is used by animal cells during anaerobic respiration. During fermentation, NAD+ is generated from NADH and is used to continue glycolysis.
The utilization of electron acceptors besides atomic oxygen is referred to as "anaerobic respiration" (O2). Even though oxygen is not the final electron acceptor, the operation nonetheless uses a Anaerobic respiration.
When an aerobic organism breathes, electrons are moved to a chain of electron acceptors, with oxygen acting as the final one. Oxygen atoms are excellent electron acceptors. Anaerobes, on the other hand, need less oxidizing substances like nitrate or elemental sulfur (S). These terminal electron acceptors have lower reduction potentials compared to O2. Less energy is released per molecule that is oxidized. As a result, aerobic respiration is more efficient than anaerobic respiration.
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The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is
turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
permanently turned on.
The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
The tryptophan operon is a collection of genes that are transcribed together and encode the enzymes that produce tryptophan in bacteria. The trp operon was discovered in many other bacteria after being discovered in Escherichia coli. The tryptophan binds to the trp repressor, causing it to change shape and become active (DNA-binding). The trp repressor attaches to the operator, preventing RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and thus preventing operon transcription.
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adeneine occurs in about the same percentage as in a sample of dna cytosine occurs in about the same percantage as in a sample of dna so that a always pairs with ____ and c always pairs with ___
Adenine and cytosine always occur in about the same percentage in a sample of DNA, so that A always pairs with T (Thymine) and C always pairs with G (Guanine).
This complementary base pairing is essential for the process of DNA replication and is essential for the functioning of living organisms.
Adenine and Cytosine are two of the four nucleobases that make up the molecules of DNA. They are commonly referred to as A and C and are important components of genetic information. Adenine and Cytosine always occur in about the same percentage in a sample of DNA, which means that A always pairs with T and C always pairs with G.
A and T are referred to as complementary base pairs because they bond together and form a hydrogen bond. The hydrogen bond is created by the partial positive charge of the A and the partial negative charge of the T. A and T can only pair together because they fit perfectly and form a stable bond. In the same way, C and G form a complementary base pair and also form a stable bond. The G has a partial negative charge and the C has a partial positive charge that allows them to bond together.
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The first correlation below shows the relationship between types of cell division. Below is the correlation that shows the types of cells that each type of cell division produced. The correct answer is the "Gamete Cell."
The type of cells that each type of cell division produced is the Gamete cells.
A cell has 3 elements: the cell membrane, the nucleus, and the cytoplasm. The nucleus is a structure inside the cell that incorporates the nucleolus and the maximum of the cellular DNA. it's also in which maximum RNA is made.
Cells are the basic constructing blocks of all residing things. They form shapes for the body, absorb nutrients from meals, convert the vitamins into electricity, and assist in specialized functions.
Cells provide shape and function for all dwelling matters, from microorganisms to people. Cells residence the organic equipment that makes the proteins, chemical substances, and indicators chargeable for the whole thing that occurs interior our bodies.
Learn more about Cell here:-https://brainly.com/question/3717876
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