If stroke pt is over 6 hrs, what are the options

Answers

Answer 1

If a stroke patient presents more than 6 hours after the onset of symptoms, the treatment options may be limited. The most effective treatment for ischemic stroke is intravenous thrombolysis (IVT) with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), which is most effective if given within the first 4.5 hours of symptom onset. However, in selected patients, thrombectomy may be considered up to 24 hours after symptom onset.

Here are some treatment options for stroke patients presenting more than 6 hours after symptom onset:

Medical management: The patient may receive supportive care, such as oxygen therapy, blood pressure control, and glucose management. The healthcare provider may also prescribe antiplatelet or anticoagulant medications to prevent further clot formation.

Thrombectomy: If the patient presents with a large vessel occlusion, thrombectomy may be considered up to 24 hours after symptom onset. Thrombectomy is a procedure that involves removing the blood clot from the blocked artery using a catheter-based technique.

To know more abouT stroke: ' here

https://brainly.com/question/26482925

#SPJ4


Related Questions

Nephrosclerosis is primarily caused by what two things?

Answers

Nephrosclerosis is primarily caused by two factors: hypertension (high blood pressure) and diabetes. Leading to nephrosclerosis, which is the hardening and narrowing of these blood vessels.

Managing blood pressure and blood sugar levels can help prevent or slow down the progression of nephrosclerosis. Nephrosclerosis is a medical condition characterized by hardening and narrowing of the blood vessels in the kidneys. This can lead to reduced blood flow to the kidneys, which may result in decreased kidney function and high blood pressure.

The most common cause of nephrosclerosis is long-term high blood pressure, which can damage the blood vessels in the kidneys over time. Other factors that may contribute to nephrosclerosis include aging, diabetes, smoking, and high cholesterol.

Learn more about blood pressure here:

https://brainly.com/question/31323150

#SPJ11

which skin condition would the nurse associate with a cleint whose skin pathophysiology incolves increased

Answers

The skin condition that a nurse would associate with a client whose skin pathophysiology involves increased cell turnover is psoriasis.

Psoriasis is a chronic skin disorder characterized by an increased rate of skin cell turnover, resulting in the accumulation of thick, scaly patches on the skin's surface.

This rapid cell turnover is caused by an overactive immune system, which triggers inflammation and accelerates the skin's natural shedding process.

The most common symptoms of psoriasis include red, raised plaques covered with silvery scales, itching, and sometimes pain or discomfort.
The skin condition associated with increased cell turnover is psoriasis, which is caused by an overactive immune system leading to inflammation and accelerated skin shedding.

A nurse should be familiar with this condition in order to provide appropriate care and support to clients affected by psoriasis.

For more information on psoriasis kindly visit to

https://brainly.com/question/29429454

#SPJ11

In which ECG phase does ventricular repolarization occur?

Answers

Ventricular repolarization occurs during the T wave phase of the ECG.

During the T wave, the ventricles of the heart are in the process of repolarizing, which means that they are returning to their resting state after having been depolarized during the QRS complex. The T wave represents the electrical activity of the ventricles as they recover from the contraction that occurs during systole. Abnormalities in the T wave can indicate various cardiac conditions, such as myocardial ischemia or electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, the T wave is an important component of the ECG that helps clinicians diagnose and monitor heart health.

Learn more about entricular repolarization here;

https://brainly.com/question/13153429

#SPJ11

You may solicit employees in your office to chip in for a wedding gift for another Federal employee. true or false

Answers

False, soliciting employees in your office to chip in for a wedding gift for another Federal employee may be a violation of ethical guidelines, especially if it puts pressure on the employees to contribute. Always follow your organization's policies and ethical guidelines when it comes to gifts and workplace relationships.

Soliciting employees refers to the act of trying to convince one or more employees of a company to leave their current employment and join another company. While there may be certain circumstances in which an employee can solicit colleagues, such as organizing events or seeking support for a company-sponsored cause, it is generally considered unethical and can lead to legal consequences if done for the purpose of unfair competition.

Find out more about employees

at brainly.com/question/30601342

#SPJ11

How long does a complete depolarization-repolarization process (twitch contraction) last in a cardiac muscle cell?

Answers

A complete depolarization-repolarization process, or twitch contraction, in a cardiac muscle cell typically lasts about 0.2 to 0.3 seconds. This is longer than the twitch contraction in skeletal muscle.

which typically lasts only a few milliseconds. The longer duration of the cardiac twitch is due to the longer action potential and refractory period in cardiac muscle cells, which allows for coordinated contractions and prevents tetanic contractions.

To solve the problem, we need to first find the molar mass of Ca(NO3)2:

Ca(NO3)2 = 1 Ca + 2 N + 6 O

Ca = 1 x 40.08 g/mol = 40.08 g/mol

N = 2 x 14.01 g/mol = 28.02 g/mol

O = 6 x 16.00 g/mol = 96.00 g/mol

Molar mass = 40.08 + 28.02 + 96.00 = 164.10 g/mol

Next, we can use the molar mass to convert the given mass of Ca(NO3)2 to moles of nitrogen:

7.5 g Ca(NO3)2 x (1 mol Ca(NO3)2 / 164.10 g Ca(NO3)2) x (2 mol N / 1 mol Ca(NO3)2) = 0.091 mol N

Finally, we can convert moles of nitrogen to grams of nitrogen:

0.091 mol N x 14.01 g/mol = 1.28 g of nitrogen, which rounds to 1.3 g.

Therefore, the answer is B) 1.3 g.

Learn more about tetanic contractions here:

https://brainly.com/question/31451323

#SPJ11

During each heartbeat, about 80 g of blood is pumped into the aorta in approximately 0.2 s. During this time, the blood is accelerated from rest to about 1 m/s.If the heart beats 60 times in 1 minute, how much blood moves through the heart in 10 hours?

Answers

The amount of blood that moves through the heart in 10 hours is approximately 2,880 kg.

To solve this problem, we need to use the given information to find the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute, and then use that value to find the amount of blood pumped in 10 hours.

From the problem, we know that during each heartbeat, about 80 g of blood is pumped into the aorta in approximately 0.2 s, and during this time, the blood is accelerated from rest to about 1 m/s.

We are also given that the heart beats 60 times in 1 minute. Using this information, we can calculate the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute as follows:

80 g/beat x 60 beats/minute = 4800 g/minute

Therefore, the heart pumps approximately 4800 g of blood per minute.

Finally, to find the amount of blood that moves through the heart in 10 hours, we can multiply the amount of blood pumped in one minute by the number of minutes in 10 hours:

4800 g/minute x 60 minutes/hour x 10 hours = 2,880,000 g or 2880 kg

To know more about blood, click here.

https://brainly.com/question/14781793?

#SPJ4

the student nurse is caring for a 2 1/2-week-old in the newborn intensive care unit. which term is most accurate when discussing this client?

Answers

The most accurate term to use when discussing a 2 1/2-week-old client in the newborn intensive care unit is neonate.


The neonatal period refers to the first 28 days of life, during which time the newborn undergoes rapid physiological and developmental changes.

Neonates require specialized care to ensure their health and well-being, as they are particularly vulnerable to infections and other complications. In the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU), healthcare professionals monitor vital signs, administer medications, and provide supportive care as needed.

It is important for healthcare providers, including student nurses, to be familiar with the unique needs and developmental stages of neonates in order to provide safe and effective care.

To know more about intensive care unit, refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/14326391#
#SPJ11

The most accurate term to use when discussing the 2 1/2-week-old being cared for by the student nurse in the newborn intensive care unit is "newborn client."

2 A young newborn can relax and sleep better when there is close physical touch, a gentle rocking motion, and less stimulation in a quiet environment.One of the initial evaluations of your newborn's health is the Apgar score. The Apgar score is given within the initial moments of a baby's life to help identify infants who are having trouble breathing or who have an issue that requires additional attention.The most accurate term to use when discussing the 2 1/2-week-old being cared for by the student nurse in the newborn intensive care unit is "newborn client."Rocking, humming, or any other calm, steady movement while holding your infant can be beneficial. It can be really comfortable to position infants so that they are warmer and more confined. Skin-to-skin contact or Kangaroo Care can be incredibly calming and pain-relieving.

learn more about nurse here

https://brainly.com/question/28270824

#SPJ11

The main challenge to the development of a dengue vaccine is thata. dengue viruses are too closely related to the yellow fever virusb. it must be tetravalentc. it must be compatible with tetracyclined. Lack of interest from the pharmaceutical industry

Answers

The main challenge to the development of a dengue vaccine is that it must be tetravalent. This means the vaccine must provide protection against all four serotypes of dengue viruses, which makes its development more complex and challenging.

The main challenge to the development of a dengue vaccine is that dengue viruses are constantly evolving and there are four different serotypes that the vaccine must protect against. This means that the vaccine must be tetravalent and provide immunity against all four serotypes, which is a difficult task. Additionally, there is a risk of the vaccine causing more severe disease in people who have not been previously infected with dengue. Despite these challenges, research and development of a dengue vaccine continues due to the significant impact of dengue viruses on public health.

Learn more about dengue here

https://brainly.com/question/13086369

#SPJ11

The main challenge to the development of a dengue vaccine is that it must be tetravalent, meaning it must protect against all four serotypes of the dengue virus.

The main challenge for developing a dengue vaccine:

The main challenge to the development of a dengue vaccine is that it must be tetravalent. This is because there are four different serotypes of the dengue virus (DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3, and DENV-4), and immunity to one serotype does not necessarily provide immunity to the others. A tetravalent vaccine would need to induce immunity against all four serotypes simultaneously to provide effective protection against dengue infections.

Additionally, developing a vaccine that provides long-lasting immunity against all serotypes has been difficult, as natural infection with one serotype does not always provide immunity to the other three. Despite these challenges, there have been advances in the development of dengue vaccines, including the recent approval of a tetravalent vaccine in some countries.

To know more about Dengue, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29846870

#SPJ11

jamie wants to completely avoid stis and the risk of pregnancy. the best contraceptive method for her would be group of answer choices a contraceptive patch. withdrawal. abstinence. iud.

Answers

The best contraceptive method for Jamie to completely avoid STIs and the risk of pregnancy would be abstinence.

Abstinence is the only contraceptive method that provides complete protection against both STIs and pregnancy. While other methods, such as the contraceptive patch, IUD, or withdrawal, can also provide protection against pregnancy, they do not offer complete protection against STIs.

Therefore, Jamie should consider practicing abstinence to avoid the risk of STIs and pregnancy altogether. It is important for Jamie to discuss her options with a healthcare provider to determine the best method for her individual needs and lifestyle.

To know more about abstinence visit

https://brainly.com/question/408968

#SPJ11

Mr. Joseph arrived at the office with an ear infection. After the doctor carefully examined Mr. Joseph’s ears, he noticed that there was something in the left ear. He ordered his medical assistant to perform an ear irrigation on the patient. What instructions should the medical assistant give to the patient regarding the procedure?

Answers

Mr. Joseph should go for the ear irrigation method.  Ear irrigation is a medical process. This process is used for the cleaning of the internal ear. The hydrogen peroxide solution is flushed into the ear canal. Sterile saline solution can also be used. This method is used for the removal of the ear wax.

The build-up wax can cause hear impairment and development of the infections. The ear irrigation method is quite an effective method. The ear which is built up over time cause hearing loss, headache, and dizziness as the organs help in balancing.

Learn more about ear irrigation methods, here:

https://brainly.com/question/28233806

#SPJ1

The nurse should recommend medical attention if a child with a slight head injury experiences:a. sleepiness.b. vomiting, even once.c. headache, even if slight.d. confusion or abnormal behavior.

Answers

B. Vomiting, even once.

Describe the pathophysiology of adult respiratory distress syndrome?

Answers

The pathophysiology of Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) a severe lung condition characterized by acute hypoxemic respiratory failure, which occurs due to widespread inflammation in the lungs

ARDS condition is triggered by direct or indirect lung injury, such as pneumonia, sepsis, or trauma. Inflammation leads to increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary membrane, causing fluid accumulation in the alveoli, this impairs gas exchange and results in decreased oxygen levels in the blood (hypoxemia).

Additionally, the lungs become less compliant, making it harder to breathe. The body's attempt to compensate by increasing the respiratory rate can lead to further damage due to ventilator-induced lung injury. Treatment for ARDS includes supportive care, mechanical ventilation, and addressing the underlying cause. The pathophysiology of Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) a severe lung condition characterized by acute hypoxemic respiratory failure, which occurs due to widespread inflammation in the lungs.

Learn more about ARDS at:

https://brainly.com/question/28020602

#SPJ11

The period between the start of one heartbeat and the start of the next is a single __________, each of which includes a period of contraction and a period of relaxation.

Answers

The period between the start of one heartbeat and the start of the next is a single cardiac cycle, each of which includes a period of contraction and a period of relaxation.

During the contraction phase, the heart muscle contracts, forcing blood out of the chambers and into the arteries. This phase is also called systole. During the relaxation phase, the heart muscle relaxes, allowing blood to flow into the chambers from the veins. This phase is also called diastole. The complete cardiac cycle includes both the systolic and diastolic phases and lasts for approximately 0.8 seconds in a resting adult heart. The start of one heartbeat and the start of the next is a single cardiac cycle, each of which includes a period of contraction and a period of relaxation.

Learn more about systolic here:

https://brainly.com/question/28429512

#SPJ11

You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest discomfort. His BP is 92/50 mmHg, his HR is 92/min, 14 breaths/min, and his pulse oximetry is 97%. Which assessment step is most important now?

Answers

Hi! Based on the given information, the most important assessment step for a 58-year-old man with chest discomfort, BP of 92/50 mmHg, HR of 92/min, 14 breaths/min, and pulse oximetry of 97% would be to evaluate the nature and severity of his chest discomfort.

This can be done by:
1. Asking the patient to describe the discomfort, including location, intensity, and duration.
2. Inquiring about any associated symptoms, such as shortness of breath, sweating, nausea, or dizziness.
3. Assessing the patient's risk factors for heart-related issues, including family history, smoking, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, or diabetes.
4. Monitoring the patient's pulse and blood pressure continuously to detect any changes or trends.
This step is crucial as it helps to determine whether the chest discomfort is due to a potentially life-threatening condition, such as a heart attack, or a less severe issue. Further evaluation and appropriate intervention can then be planned based on the assessment findings.

Learn more about chest discomfort here:

https://brainly.com/question/30805895

#SPJ11

woman hits her head and has HA, confusion, amnesia, diff concentrating, vertigo, mood alteration, sleep disturbance, or anxiety. Dx?

Answers

The diagnosis for this constellation of symptoms is likely a traumatic brain injury (TBI). A TBI can result from a blow or jolt to the head that disrupts normal brain function.

What is the diagnosis

Symptoms can vary depending on the severity of the injury, but commonly include headache, confusion, memory loss, difficulty concentrating, dizziness or vertigo, mood changes, sleep disturbances, and anxiety.

In more severe cases, a TBI can cause loss of consciousness, seizures, or even coma. Treatment for a TBI will depend on the severity of the injury and may include rest, pain management, cognitive therapy, or surgery in some cases.

Read more on  consciousness herehttps://brainly.com/question/26203347

#SPJ1

the nurse is preparing to care for a newborn with an omphalocele. the nurse should understand that care of the infant should include what intervention?

Answers

In caring for a newborn with an omphalocele, the nurse should include the intervention of providing a sterile, moist environment for the exposed abdominal contents. This can be done by using a sterile saline-soaked dressing or a specialized pouch, which helps protect the delicate organs and prevent infection.

The nurse should understand that care of a newborn with an omphalocele should include careful handling of the exposed abdominal contents and prevention of infection. The infant may require immediate surgery to repair the defect. The nurse should closely monitor the infant's vital signs, maintain their temperature, and collaborate with the healthcare team for any necessary interventions or surgical procedures.. Additionally, the nurse should provide emotional support to the family and educate them on proper care techniques for the infant's condition.

Learn more about omphalocele here:

https://brainly.com/question/29698168

#SPJ11

The nurse is preparing to care for a newborn with an omphalocele. The nurse should understand that care of the infant should include surgical intervention.

Surgical intervention:

As a newborn with an omphalocele that has abdominal content protruding from the belly button, the nurse should understand that care of the infant should include surgery to repair the defect. The surgery involves placing the abdominal content back into the abdominal cavity and closing the defect in the abdominal wall.

Prior to surgery, the nurse should provide supportive care to the infant, such as keeping the omphalocele covered with a sterile, moist dressing and monitoring for signs of infection or complications. This is crucial because an omphalocele is a birth defect where abdominal organs protrude through a defect in the abdominal wall near the umbilical cord. Proper care and surgical intervention help to ensure the infant's safety and well-being.

To know more about Omphalocele, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29736124

#SPJ11

Researchers believe that most newborn reflexes disapear during the first six months due to a gradual increase in voluntary control over behavior as the ______develops

Answers

Researchers believe that most newborn reflexes disappear during the first six months due to a gradual increase in voluntary control over behavior as the cerebral cortex develops.

The cerebral cortex is the part of the brain that is responsible for voluntary movements, as well as higher cognitive functions such as perception, consciousness, and thought. At birth, infants have a number of reflexes that are automatic responses to various stimuli, such as the rooting reflex (turning their head towards a stimulus near their mouth) and the grasping reflex (closing their fingers around an object that touches their palm).

As the cerebral cortex develops during the first six months of life, infants gain greater control over their movements and begin to exhibit voluntary behavior, such as reaching for objects and sitting up.

To know more about behavior , click here.

https://brainly.com/question/29453220

#SPJ4

In a hypotensive patient with abdominal trauma, what is the best option for pain control?

Answers

In a hypotensive patient with abdominal trauma, the best option for pain control would be to use non-opioid pain medications such as acetaminophen or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they do not have the potential to further lower blood pressure.

Opioids should be used with caution and titrated to the patient's response to prevent further hypotension. Additionally, addressing the underlying cause of the hypotension, such as volume resuscitation or surgical intervention, may also help alleviate the patient's pain.  It is important to closely monitor the patient's blood pressure and adjust the dosage as needed to ensure adequate pain relief without causing further complications due to hypotension. Consultation with a healthcare professional is essential for determining the appropriate treatment for each individual patient.

Learn more about pain here:

/brainly.com/question/30758670

#SPJ11

What else can cause compressive 3rd nerve palsy, that is an emergency?

Answers

A compressive third nerve palsy occurs when the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eyelid and most of the muscles that move the eye, is compressed due to an underlying condition. The most common causes of compressive third nerve palsy are aneurysms, tumors, and inflammation.

Treatment for compressive third nerve palsy varies depending on the underlying cause. In some cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the underlying condition that is causing the nerve compression. In other cases, medications may be prescribed to reduce inflammation and alleviate symptoms. Physical therapy may also be recommended to improve eye movement and restore muscle function.

Also, symptoms of compressive third nerve palsy, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further damage to the nerve and potential complications.

To learn more about nerve palsy , here

brainly.com/question/13971670

#SPJ4

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory reports of four patients. Which patient's test results indicates possible type 2 diabetes mellitus?a. Patient A; Fasting = 98 mg/dL; Random = 150 mg/dLb. Patient B; Fasting = 105 mg/dL; Random= 175 mg/dLc. Patient C; Fasting = 112 mg/dL; Random = 195 mg/dLd. Patient D; Fasting = 135 mg/dL; Random = 230 mg/dL

Answers

Based on the laboratory reports provided, patient B's test results indicate possible type 2 diabetes mellitus as their fasting glucose level is above the normal range (70-99 mg/dL) and their random glucose level is significantly high (above 200 mg/dL is indicative of diabetes).

Fasting blood glucose levels are typically used to diagnose diabetes mellitus, and a fasting blood glucose level of 126 mg/dL or higher on two separate occasions is considered indicative of diabetes. In this case, Patient B has a fasting blood glucose level of 105 mg/dL, which is above the normal range (70-100 mg/dL), indicating a potential risk for diabetes. Additionally, Patient B also has a random blood glucose level of 175 mg/dL, which is significantly elevated and further supports the possibility of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients A, C, and D also have elevated fasting and random blood glucose levels, but Patient B has the highest levels among the options provided, indicating a higher likelihood of possible type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Learn more about diabetes mellitus here:

https://brainly.com/question/24176194

#SPJ11

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory reports of four patients. Based on the laboratory reports provided, the patient whose test results indicate possible type 2 diabetes mellitus is Patient D, as their fasting blood glucose level is 135 mg/dL, which is above the normal range of 70-99 mg/dL.

Which patient's test results indicate possible type 2 diabetes mellitus?

For a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, the American Diabetes Association's criteria include a fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dL or higher, or a random plasma glucose level of 200 mg/dL or higher. Patient D meets both of these criteria, which indicates possible type 2 diabetes mellitus. Treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus typically involves lifestyle modifications (such as a healthy diet and regular exercise), medications to control blood sugar levels, and ongoing monitoring of blood sugar levels and overall health.

Additionally, their random blood glucose level is 230 mg/dL, which is also above the normal range. However, a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus cannot be made solely based on laboratory reports and requires further evaluation and confirmation. If diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, the patient would require appropriate treatment, which may include lifestyle modifications, medication, and regular monitoring of blood glucose levels.

To know more about Diabetes mellitus, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29318331

#SPJ11

Obtaining a what is the most important assessment tool for a patient displaying signs and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome?
a. 16 lead ekg
b. 12 lead ekg
c. 10 lead ekg
d. 14 lead ekg

Answers

The most important assessment tool for a patient displaying signs and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome is a 12 lead EKG. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe a range of conditions that occur due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. The most common types of ACS are unstable angina, non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). A 12 lead EKG is an important tool for the diagnosis of ACS, as it can help to identify changes in the heart's electrical activity that may be indicative of an ACS event.

During an ACS event, there may be changes in the ST segment of the EKG tracing, which can help to differentiate between NSTEMI and STEMI. This information is critical for determining the appropriate treatment for the patient, such as thrombolytic therapy or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

In summary, a 12 lead EKG is the most important assessment tool for a patient displaying signs and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome, as it can help to diagnose the type of ACS event and guide appropriate treatment decisions.

Learn more about Acute coronary syndrome here:

https://brainly.com/question/30582393

#SPJ11

Bruising over the right upper quadrant and referred pain to the right shoulder are manifestations of an injury to which organ?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Bruises in the RUQ may suggest injury to the liver.

bilateral acoustic neuroma vs.
cafe au last spots, axillary freckles, multiple neurofibromas, lisch nodules
NF1 vs NF2`

Answers

Both Neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1) and Neurofibromatosis 2 (NF2) are hereditary conditions that can result in tumors developing on the body's nerves.

Tumors called bilateral acoustic neuromas develop on the cranial nerve that regulates hearing and balance. Numerous neurofibromas, axillary freckles, and cafe au lait spots are all typical symptoms of NF1, while lisch nodules are a symptom of NF2. The two illnesses are separate from one another and have no connection.

In order to manage symptoms, both illnesses may be treated with surgery, radiation, or chemotherapy. Additionally advised for people with either disease is genetic counselling. It comprises explaining the advantages and disadvantages of genetic testing and assisting families in comprehending the results.

Genetic counselling can enlighten patients on the inheritance of genetic illnesses, the impact they have on people and families, and the availability of genetic tests or therapies.

To learn more about Neurofibromatosis link is here

brainly.com/question/13470678

#SPJ4

Question 71
The most common type of injury in a home is
a. A fall
b. Asphyxiation
c. Tripping
d. An animal bite

Answers

a. A fall is the most common type of injury in a home. Falls can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, cluttered walkways, inadequate lighting, loose carpets.

Cascade are a significant cause of injury and indeed death, particularly among aged grown-ups. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention( CDC), falls are the leading cause of injury- related  exigency department visits and hospitalizations for aged grown-ups in the United States.

 In addition to aged grown-ups, falls can also  do in children and grown-ups of all  periods. They can be in any area of the home, but are most common in areas  similar as the  restroom, stairs, and kitchen.   precluding falls in the home involves  relating and addressing implicit hazards.

Learn more about injuries at

https://brainly.com/question/2205943

#SPJ4

What does fundus show in pt with Amaurosis Fugax

Answers

Fundus examination in a patient with Amaurosis Fugax typically shows no abnormality.

Amaurosis Fugax is a transient loss of vision in one eye that typically lasts only a few seconds to minutes. It is caused by a temporary interruption of blood flow to the retina or optic nerve, usually due to a small embolus or plaque in the carotid artery or one of its branches.

The fundus examination in a patient with Amaurosis Fugax is usually normal, with no evidence of retinal or optic nerve abnormalities. However, it is important to perform a complete eye examination, including fundoscopy, to rule out other potential causes of vision loss. This may include conditions such as retinal detachment, macular degeneration, or optic neuritis, which can cause similar symptoms but have different findings on fundoscopy

To know more about Amaurosis, click here.

https://brainly.com/question/31260808

#SPJ4

What is the time goal for how quickly you should complete a fibrinolytic checklist once the patient arrives in the emergency department?
a. 30 min
b. 10 min
c. 20 min
d. 15 min

Answers

The time goal for how quickly you should complete a fibrinolytic checklist once the patient arrives in the emergency department is typically within

(d) 10-15 minutes.

Fibrinolytic therapy works by dissolving clots which are obstructing blood flow to the brain. In order to be considered a suitable candidate for the therapy, patients must be over the age of 18 and have a firm diagnosis of ischemic stroke with deficits. It is most often used to treat heart attack (blocked arteries of your heart) and stroke (blocked arteries of your brain).

To know more about fibrinolysis, click here:-

https://brainly.com/question/14352011

#SPJ11

63 yo asian has severe R sided HA around eye. V, halo around lights, Hx HTN. VS norm. nonreactive, dilated right pupil and red eye. excessive lacrimation. visual acuity decreased. elevated ESR. acute angle closure glaucoma
cluster HA
migraine
temporal arteritis

Answers

The severe headache on the right side around the eye, halos around lights, red eye, nonreactive and dilated right pupil, excessive lacrimation, and decreased visual acuity are all consistent with acute angle closure glaucoma.

The patient's history of hypertension may also contribute to the development of acute angle closure glaucoma. Additionally, the elevated ESR suggests the possibility of temporal arteritis, which is an inflammation of the blood vessels that supply the head and neck. However, the presence of a red eye and a dilated pupil point more strongly towards acute angle closure glaucoma.

Cluster headaches and migraines can also cause severe headaches, but they are less likely to present with the specific symptoms mentioned in the case of the patient.

It is important for the patient to seek immediate medical attention to prevent permanent vision loss. Treatment options for acute angle closure glaucoma may include medications to lower intraocular pressure and laser or surgical procedures to improve fluid drainage from the eye.

To know more about severe

https://brainly.com/question/15883877

#SPJ4

Chest compression will produce a ______ end-tidal CO2

Answers

Chest compression will produce a decrease in end-tidal [tex]CO_{2}[/tex]. During chest compression, blood flow to the lungs is reduced, which decreases the amount of [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] that is removed from the body.

This results in a decrease in end-tidal [tex]CO_{2}[/tex], which is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide at the end of expiration. This decrease in end-tidal CO2 can be used as a measure of the effectiveness of chest compressions during CPR. It is important to monitor end-tidal [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] during CPR, as it can help determine if chest compressions are being performed correctly and if there is adequate blood flow to the lungs. End-tidal [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] can also be used to determine when to stop CPR, as a sustained increase in end-tidal [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] indicates the return of spontaneous circulation.

To know more about spontaneous circulation:

https://brainly.com/question/27962050

#SPJ11

How many elopement drills must a facility conduct minimum per year?

Answers

The frequency of elopement drills required by a facility may vary depending on the laws and regulations in the specific location and the type of facility. It is important to check with local regulatory agencies and governing bodies to determine the specific requirements for elopement drills.

In general, healthcare facilities, such as hospitals and nursing homes, may be required to conduct elopement drills at least once per year or more frequently, depending on the regulatory requirements. Schools and other facilities may also be required to conduct drills on a regular basis to ensure the safety of their occupants. It is important for facilities to have a comprehensive emergency preparedness plan that includes regular training and drills for various emergency scenarios, including elopement. This can help to ensure that staff are prepared to respond quickly and effectively in the event of an elopement or other emergency.

For more questions like elopement visit the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/30394634

#SPJ11

Rohan serves on his neighborhood’s homeowner’s association. Since Rohan is the secretary, which task would he MOST likely be found completing?

Answers

As the secretary of the neighborhood's homeowner's association, Rohan would most likely be found completing tasks related to record-keeping, documentation, and communication.

What are the tasks for a secretary?

Specifically, some tasks that Rohan might be responsible for include:

Taking minutes at meetings: As the secretary, Rohan would be responsible for recording the discussions and decisions made during the association's meetings.

Maintaining records: Rohan may be responsible for maintaining important records and documents, such as bylaws, meeting minutes, and financial reports.

Managing correspondence: Rohan may be responsible for handling incoming and outgoing correspondence, such as emails, letters, and other communications.

Organizing meetings: Rohan may be responsible for coordinating and scheduling meetings, sending out meeting notices and agendas, and making arrangements for meeting locations and equipment.

Find out more on homeowner’s association here: https://brainly.com/question/2571109

#SPJ1

Other Questions
Rewrite 4.86 x 104 in decimal notation.O48,600O4, 860,000O 0.000486O 4.86 To analyze e-mail evidence, an investigator must be knowledgeable about an e-mail server's internal operations. True or False? (326-2) Type IGS cable is a factory assembly of one or more conductors, each individually insulated and enclosed in a loose fit nonmetallic flexible conduit as an integrated gas spacer cable rated _____ volts. Research on the fruit fly showed there are "Switches" in DNA. What are switches? All of the following are types of features in Kano's feature analysis, except:a. Premium featuresb. Basic featuresc. Excitement featuresd. Performance features A 2kg ball traveling to the right at 6m/s collided head on with a 1 kg ball at rest. After impact, the 2kg ball is traveling to the right at 2 m/s and the 1 kg ball is traveling to the right at 8 m/s. What type of collision occurred? True/False : Computer scientists refer to the process of planning and organizing a program as software development. In a database, ________ are grouped into columns. FieldsRecordsBytes Files Nibbles What does Hamlet mean when he says, "I will speak daggers to her, but use none"? Describe his plan. suppose the resort has the property rights to the lake. that is the resort has the right to clean lake. in tbis case, assuming the two firms can bargain at no cost, the tannery will not use/use the recycling and will pay tbe resort $0, between 0 and 300 between 300 and 700 or between 700 and 1000.now, suppose the tannery has the property rights to the lake. the tannery will use/not use the recycling method and the resort will pay the tannery $0, between 0 and 300 between 300 and 700 or between 700 and 1000.the tannery will make the most economic profit when the resort has the property rights to a clean lake/ it has property rjghrs to pollute the lake. Of the 100 men who were in Elie's train car, how many survived the trip? Division that is dominant during rest, digestion, and excretion.A) sympatheticB) parasympatheticC) cholinergicD) hypogastricE) enteric Question 3 Marks: 1 A lump of soil with good characteristics will break apart with little pressure along definite cleavage plains and should be blue or grayish in color.Choose one answer. a. True b. False Question 11Maximum sensitivity to sound for humans is in the range ofa. 500-1000 cpsb. 1000-5000 cpsc. 5000-10000 cpsd. 10000-15000 cps 13. Is a flammable gas produced by landfillsa. Carbon dioxideb. Carbon monoxidec. Methaned. Radone. Sulfur dioxide pastoral nomads predominate in...a. semi-arid desertsb. desertsc. subtropical grasslandsd. tropical rainforest. e. a and b only 2. MAC address stands for _____ address?A. Media access controlB. Message authentication checkC. Maximum allowable costD. Memory access controller i need help please help me Concentration on some object, person, or event while onstage is called ________. A 600 nm laser illuminates a double-slit apparatus with a slit separation distance of 3.55 m. The viewing screen is 1.50 meters behind the double slits. What is the distance, in cm, from the central bright fringe to the 3rd dark fringe?