HHHHHHEEEEEEEELLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLPPPPPPPPPPPPPP MMMMMMMMMMMMMMMEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEE WILL GIVE BRAINLESSS

Answer:

2133 km in 6 hours is lower than 1498 km in 7 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7.24

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 28.96 by 4

28.96/4=

Answer:

$7.24

Step-by-step explanation:

28.96 ÷ 4 = 7.24

hope this helps...

Answer:

3,400 J

Step-by-step explanation:

Got it off Kahn Academy, please just trust me on this.

A 30 kg dog runs at a speed of 15 m/s.

What is the dog’s kinetic energy?

Answer: 3,400 J

Answer:

68 is the answer

Answer:

How close the correlation is. the closer the correlation coefficient is to ±1, the stronger the correlation

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1+2 = 3

12/3 = 4

so for the "1" you get 4

for the "2" you get 8

Answer:

4.1

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 1.2 and 2.3

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

5% of 20 = 1. hope this helps :)

i guss d is the answer of it

Answer:

On average, Elizabeth will earn $43.35 per week if her chickens lay 51 dozen per week.

Step-by-step explanation:

0.85x

x represents how many dozens

0.85(51) = 43.35

Answer:

the proportion of people who are sick after two weeks is 33.2%

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the data in the question;

Let there be 100 people in the city;

20% of them are sick( 20/100 × 100) = 20 people

so 80% are fine = ( 100 - 20 ) = 80

after one​ week, 40% of the people who were sick are still sick

40/100 × 20 = 8%

of the 80% of people who were well, 30% got sick after one week

30/100 × 80 = 24%

so after one week. 8% + 24% = 32% of the people were sick,

hence 68% are fine.

now, after second week 40% of sick and 30% of not sick people previously will be sick

∴ Total people who are sick after two weeks    

⇒ 40/100 × 32 + 30/100 × 68

= 12.8 + 20.4

= 33.2

Therefore, the proportion of people who are sick after two weeks is 33.2%

Answer: A.

Step-by-step explanation: 5 is in one of the first 2 quadrants, and since the second number is a negative, it goes in the 2nd quadrants.

Answer: Jim can paint 11 chairs.

Answer:

The first 4 terms of the sequence are: 3, 9, 81, 6561

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following recursive function:

[tex]f(n) = [f(n-1)]^{2}[/tex]

And the following initial condition:

[tex]f(1) = 3[/tex]

The second term of the sequence is:

[tex]f(2) = [f(2-1)]^{2} = f(1)^2 = 3^2 = 9[/tex]

The third term of the sequence is:

[tex]f(3) = [f(3-1)]^{2} = f(2)^2 = 9^2 = 81[/tex]

The fourth term of the sequence is:

[tex]f(4) = [f(4-1)]^{2} = f(3)^2 = 81^2 = 6561[/tex]

The first 4 terms of the sequence are: 3, 9, 81, 6561

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

we have to remember the power rules, power raised to the power-we use the multiplication

(7^2)^-7=7^-14= 1/7^14

The expression (16r⁶s³) / (8r²s⁶) in the simplified form will be 2r⁴ / s³. Then the correct option is B.

Algebra is the study of abstract symbols, while logic is the manipulation of all those ideas.

The acronym PEMDAS stands for Parenthesis, Exponent, Multiplication, Division, Addition, and Subtraction. This approach is used to answer the problem correctly and completely.

The expression is given below.

⇒ (16r⁶s³) / (8r²s⁶)

Simplify the expression, then we have

⇒ (16r⁶s³) / (8r²s⁶)

⇒ 2r⁴ / s³

The expression (16r⁶s³) / (8r²s⁶) in the simplified form will be 2r⁴ / s³. Then the correct option is B.

More about the Algebra link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/953809

#SPJ6

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  56°

Step-by-step explanation:

Cofunctions of complementary angles have the same value.

  cos(34°) = sin(90°-34°) = sin(56°)

Answer:

probability that a rivet is defective is 0.00868

Step-by-step explanation:

given data

rivets = 20

all seam need reworking P = 16% = 0.16

solution

we consider here probability of a defective rivet = p

and 0.16 = P [Seam needs reworking) = P (at least one rivet in the seam is defective)

so that for non-defective = 1 - P [all the rivets are non-defective]

and that will be here as = 1 - P [rivet 1 is non-defective, rivet 2 is non-defective, rivet 3 is non-defective,...............,rivet 20 is non-defective]

= [tex]1 - (p})^{20}[/tex]     ....................1

so

1-0.16 = [tex]1 - (p})^{20}[/tex]

0.84 = [tex]1 - (p})^{20}[/tex]

[tex]0.84^{\frac{1}{20}}[/tex] = 1 - p

solve it we get

p = 0.00868

so, probability that a rivet is defective is 0.00868

Answer: the 1st one.

Step-by-step explanation: becuase today I was helping out a freind with this.  So it the first one

Answer:

x=4

Step-by-step explanation:

;)

Answer:

Y=5x+8

Step-by-step explanation:

43=5(7)+b Substitute in the ordered pair and solve in parathensis

43=35+b Subtract 35 from both sides

43-35=-35+b Did you subtract?

8=b The variable is 8.

y= 5x+8 Rewrite the equation in slope intercept form

Answer:

in 2030 the land will aproxmatly be worth $113750

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The mean of the sampling distribution is 0.46

The standard deviation of the sampling distribution is 0.01

Step-by-step explanation:

We use the central limit theorem to solve this question:

Central Limit Theorem

For a proportion p in a sample of size n, the sampling distribution of the sample proportion will be approximately normal with mean [tex]\mu = p[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]s = \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}[/tex]

In this question:

[tex]p = 0.46, n = 2000[/tex]

So

Mean: [tex]\mu = p = 0.46[/tex]

Standard deviation: [tex]s = \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}} = \sqrt{\frac{0.46*0.54}{2000}} = 0.01[/tex]

The mean of the sampling distribution is 0.46

The standard deviation of the sampling distribution is 0.01

The mean and the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the sample proportion are 0.46 and 0.01 respectively

The formula for calculating the standard deviation for a sample proportion is given as:

[tex]\sigma =\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n} }[/tex]

Note that p = mean = 0.46

To get the standard deviation:

[tex]\sigma =\sqrt{\frac{0.46(1-0.46)}{2000} }\\\sigma =\sqrt{\frac{0.46(0.54)}{2000} }\\\sigma = 0.01[/tex]

Hence the mean and the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the sample proportion are 0.46 and 0.01 respectively.

Learn more on sample proportion here https://brainly.com/question/22985943

Answer:

Option D- 11

Step-by-step explanation:

Replace x with 2 and you will get

f(2)=3(2)+5

f(2)=6+5

f(2)=11--> Option D

Hope this helps you.

Answer: 5/28 left to mow

Step-by-step explanation:

How much is left means we have to subtract the fractions.  The easiest to do is subtract using the larger fraction first which is 3/7.

3/7 - 1/4

Since you have unlike terms in your denominator, look for that one common factor that can divide into 7 and 4, the numbers in your denominator.  In this case there is no common factor, so you have to multiply the 2 numbers in your denominator to get the common factor that would be 7 x 4=28.  28 is new the common factor you will use for each denominator. Now we have to make adjustments to the numerator:

3/7 becomes 12/28 because you have to say to yourself how many times 7 in your oringinal denominator go into 28, your new denominator, which=4.  Now you multiply that 4 by the numerator 3 and that would =12 now you have 12/28.  For the 1/4, it becomes 7/28 because you have to say to yourself how many times 4 go into 28 which =7.  Now multiply 7 by the numerator 1 which =7.  Now you have 7/28. Now you can subtract and solve for your answer:

3/7 -1/4 converted to:

12/28 - 7/28  subtract numerators 12-7 and keep the same denominator

Ans: 5/28 left to mow

Answer:

Y = 35

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1 /14

Step-by-step explanation:

P(B, G, G) = [tex]\frac{3}{9}[/tex] · [tex]\frac{4}{8}[/tex] · [tex]\frac{3}{7}[/tex]

                = [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] · [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] · [tex]\frac{3}{7}[/tex]

                 =  [tex]\frac{1}{14}[/tex]

Answer:

Area of the walkway border is 736 ft²

Step-by-step explanation:

A rectangle is a quadrilateral (has four sides and four angles) with two pairs of opposite and parallel sides. All angles in a rectangle are 90 degrees each. Also, opposite sides are equal.

The entire pool area has a length of 60 feet and width of 40 feet. The area of the entire pool area is:

Area of entire pool = length * width = 60 feet * 40 feet = 2400 ft²

The area of entire pool

A walkaway border of 4 ft is made around the pool area. There is a decrease of 4 ft round the sides of the pool area.

Therefore length of pool = length of entire pool area - 4 feet border at left - 4 feet border at right  = 60 ft - 4 ft - 4 ft = 52 ft

width of pool = width of entire pool area - 4 feet border at top - 4 feet border at bottom  = 40 ft - 4 ft - 4 ft = 32 ft

Therefore the pool is 52 ft × 32 ft

Area of pool = length * width = 52 ft * 32 ft = 1664 ft²

Area of the walkway border = Entire pool area - Area of pool = 2400 ft² - 1664 ft² = 736 ft²

Answer: The answer is 736ft

Step-by-step explanation:

I took the test and it was 736