aldosterone is a hormone that causes the renal tubules to reclaim sodium ions from the filtrate. t or f
Raymond is hypertensive and was recently diagnosed with impaired kidney function based on urinalysis and a blood test for creatinine. What sorts of test results would you expect, and how is hypertension related to kidney function?
Antithyroid medications are contraindicated in late pregnancy due to the fact that which of the following may occur? Select all that apply.
-Fetal hypothyroidism
-Fetal bradycardia
-Goiter
-Cretinism
-Fetal tachycardia
-Fetal hypothyroidism
Antithyroid medications are contraindicated in late pregnancy because the fetus may develop fetal hypothyroidism, fetal bradycardia, goiter, and cretinism.
The answer is Fetal hypothyroidism. Antithyroid medications are contraindicated in late pregnancy because the fetus may develop fetal hypothyroidism, fetal bradycardia, goiter, and cretinism.
An endocrine system illness called hypothyroidism, also known as low thyroid, underactive thyroid, or hypothyreosis, is characterized by insufficient thyroid hormone synthesis by the thyroid gland. It can result in a variety of symptoms, such as a decreased tolerance to cold, fatigue, constipation, a slow heartbeat, depression, and weight gain. Goiter can occasionally cause the front of the neck to expand. Untreated pregnancy-related hypothyroidism may result in congenital iodine deficiency syndrome or a delay in the growth and intellectual development of the unborn child.
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which intervention would the nurse anticipate providing teaching on when a client presents iwth extensive lesions caused by psoriasis
The nurse would providing Topical application of steroids anticipate teaching on when a client presents with extensive lesions caused by psoriasis.
How would you define psoriasis?
Psoriasis symptoms include patches of heavily red skin covered with silvery scales. Patches can occur everywhere, but the elbows, knees, scalp, lower back, cheeks, palms, and soles of the feet are where they are most commonly seen (fingernails, toenails, and mouth). The most common kind of psoriasis is plaque psoriasis.
What is the primary reason for psoriasis?
The exact etiology of psoriasis is unknown. It is believed to be an immune system issue wherein infection-fighting cells unintentionally kill healthy skin cells. Both genetics and environmental factors are thought to be involved. The illness is not spread by others.
How may psoriasis be treated?
Psoriasis treatments aim to reduce scales and halt the skin cells' fast development. Light treatment, phototherapy, oral or injectable medications, creams, and ointments are available alternatives (topical therapy).
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which of the following are consequences of repeated exposure of dopamine receptors to dopamine? select all that apply.
Option A,D .The effects of repeatedly exposing dopamine receptors to dopamine include decreased receptor quantity and decreased sensitivity to dopamine.
Dopamine receptors are downregulated and lose some of their numbers after being stimulated repeatedly (desensitization). Reduced dopamine receptors can also cause "anhedonia," which is the lack of pleasure in once-enjoyed activities. When a user experiences depressed symptoms of anhedonia, particularly when they lack self-control, they may react by using drugs in an effort to feel pleasure once again. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is essential for a variety of mental processes, including motor control, motivation, and pleasure. Dopamine imbalances can cause a number of illnesses.
Complete Question for reference:
which of the following are consequences of repeated exposure of dopamine receptors to dopamine? select all that apply.
Options:
a. decreased receptor quantity
b. drug-addicted brains become used to tolerating higher levels of dopamine.
c. dopamine stimulates displeasure and lack of memory.
d. decreased sensitivity to dopamine.
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the nurse is caring for a client 24 hours post surgery who is having persistent hiccups. what action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?
Offer symptomatic treatment, such as antiemetic drugs to treat nausea and vomiting. Give phenothiazine drugs as directed if you get severe, ongoing hiccups.
What is the role of a nurse?Nurses treat wounds, give medicine, do regular physicals, take thorough medical histories, monitor high blood pressure, run diagnostic tests, handle medical equipment, take blood samples, and admit and release patients in accordance with doctor's orders.
Is a nurse a doctor?While a DNP rn may use the title "doctor," several jurisdictions have laws prohibiting it. For instance, nurses, doctors, and other professionals are prohibited from using the term "doctor" in California and Connecticut until they immediately define their position.
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the father of a child who is dying of cancer asks the nurse whether he should tell his 7-year-old son that his sister is dying. what is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
The most appropriate thing for the nurse to do is to tell the father "Your son probably doesn't understand death as we do but fears it just the same. He should be told the truth to let him prepare for his sister's possible death." option 4.
How to approach children with death news?It is important to be empathetic and honest with children of all ages, but especially with young children, and avoid using euphemisms when breaking sad news of death.
Children in early elementary school of 7 and above are not yet able to comprehend death's universality and inevitability, but they still fear it, frequently personifying death as a "boogeyman" or "death angel." They require time to prepare for an impending death. Telling the father to speak with his nurse only serves to avoid the question.
The complete question is:
The father of a child who is dying of cancer asks the nurse whether he should tell his 7-year-old son that his sister is dying. what is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
1
"He can't comprehend the real meaning of death, so don't tell him until the last minute."
2
"Your son probably fears separation most and wants to know that you will care for him, rather than what will happen to his sister."
3
"You should talk this over with your health care provider, who probably knows best what's happening in terms of your daughter's prognosis."
4
"Your son probably doesn't understand death as we do but fears it just the same. He should be told the truth to let him prepare for his sister's possible death."
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when positioning a client to listen to breath sounds, the nurse is correctly aware that which lobe can only be heard by anterior or lateral auscultation? select all that apply.
The nurse is aware that only anterior as well as lateral auscultation can pick up the right middle lobe when a client is positioned to listen to breath sounds.
Auscultation performed anteriorly or laterally is the sole way to detect the right middle lobe. The posterior lobes of the right & left can be heard.
The right lung's middle lobe, which is the tiniest of the three, is situated between the horizontal & oblique fissures. Lateral and medial bronchopulmonary segments are present.
The right middle lobe (RML) condition is characterized by a recurring or persistent blockage or infection of the right middle lobe. Middle lobe syndrome can also be brought on by inflammatory processes, bronchial architecture errors, and collateral ventilation problems.
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which of the following personnel should be authorized, per hospital policy, to take a physician's verbal order for the administration of medication?
The Nurse Practice Act of each state governs the scope of practise for a nurse's capacity to lawfully distribute and administer medicine.
Legally, Registered Nurses (RNs) and Licensed Practical Nurses (LPNs/LVNs) are permitted to give out prescriptions for drugs that have been approved by a doctor, nurse practitioner, or physician's assistant. "Orders, interventions, remedies, or treatments prescribed or directed by an approved primary health care physician" are referred to as prescriptions. In clinical practise, orders are frequently used to refer to prescriptions. Orders can be classified as regular, PRN, standing, one-time, STAT, or titration orders, among other categories. A routine order is a directive that is obeyed until it is revoked by another directive. A typical prescription would be "Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily."
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FILL IN THE BLANK. Will has an intense fear of speaking in public. Because he can only engage in one-on-one discussions, he has been passed over for promotions. Will may be suffering from _____ disorder.
Public speaking horrifies Will to the point of paralysis. He has been passed over for advancements since he can only have one-on-one conversations. Will might be experiencing social anxiety.
What anxiety disorder means?Anxiety disorders which are brought on by medical issues include intense panic attacks or anxiety that can be directly linked to the a physical health problem. Generalized anxiety disorder symptoms include chronic and excessive anxiety, excessive worry, and stress over ordinary or everyday things. Extreme phobias of public speaking, meeting new people, or eating or drinking in front of others are typical examples. When fear or anxiety lasts for at least six months, it interferes with daily functioning.
What causes an anxiety disorder and can anxiety disorder be cured?If you experience high levels of stress over an extended period of time, an anxiety disorder may appear. Environmental factors: Experiencing a distressing event can trigger anxiety, particularly in those who are genetically prone to it. Due to inheritance, anxiety disorders typically run in families.
Despite the fact that anxiety cannot be treated, there are ways to stop it from becoming a serious problem. You can lessen your uncontrollable anxieties and resume your life by getting the right treatment for your anxiety. There are numerous ways to accomplish this.
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which nursing intervention should the nurse perform to prepare a client with its suspected placenta previa for an abdominal ultrasound
Amniocentesis is contraindicated in placenta previa. A digital or speculum examination shouldn't be done as this may lead to severe bleeding or hemorrhage.
External fetal monitoring will pick up on fetal distress, which may be caused by blood loss or placenta separation, but it won't pick up on a placenta previa.
What does hemorrhaging indicate?
Blood loss from damaged blood vessels is a medical term. A hemorrhage can be internal or external, and it often includes a significant amount of blood quickly.
What results in a person bleeding?
injuries include bone fractures, severe brain damage, or cuts and puncture wounds. Physical abuse or acts of violence, such a knife or bullet wound. viruses like viral hemorrhagic fever that target blood vessels.
What three forms of bleeding exist?
These three forms of hemorrhage differ from one another in terms of location, flow, and intensity. In particular, capillary bleeding trickles from the body whereas venous blood runs gradually. Arterial bleeding spews out in bursts. The severity of bleeding from the arteries and veins varies.
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a client is taking large doses of aspirin daily to treat rheumatoid arthritis. the nurse should instruct the client to tell the health care provider (hcp) when having:
a client is taking large doses of aspirin daily to treat rheumatoid arthritis. the nurse should instruct the client to tell the health care provider (hcp) when having: tinnitus.
One or both of your ears may ring or make other noises, which is known as tinnitus. Tinnitus is a noise that only the person experiencing it can hear; it is not generated by an outside sound. A common issue is tinnitus. It primarily affects elderly folks and affects 15% to 20% of the population. Rarely are major underlying conditions indicated by tinnitus. It could be a mild annoyance for some people who experience it intermittently.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. The fine line between familiarity and boredom has been explained by the ________, which proposes that two
separate psychological processes are operating wh
en a person is repeatedly exposed to an ad.
Two-factor theory, posits that when a person is repeatedly exposed, two distinct psychological processes are at work.
Which attitude theory asserts that people are driven to act to address discrepancies between attitudes and behaviors?According to the cognitive dissonance theory, when a person's action conflicts with his or her opinions and beliefs, an underlying psychological tension results. An individual is thus motivated to adjust their attitude in order to achieve consistency between their beliefs and behaviors as a result of this underlying tension.
What does the theory go by that describes how attitudes encourage social behavior?According to the functional attitude theory (FAT), attitudes and beliefs can affect a variety of psychological processes. When it comes to being utilitarian (useful), sociable, connected to values, or reducing cognitive dissonance, attitudes can have a big impact.
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which is an open-ended question? have you ever had a heart attack? have you ever had a heart attack? do you have abdominal pain? do you have abdominal pain? how did you fall? how did you fall? when did you last eat something?
I haven't experienced a heart attack or other similar symptoms as of yet, but the stomach discomfort may have occurred in recent times.
Define heart attack ?
When the flow of blood to the heart is substantially diminished or obstructed, a heart attack ensues. The obstruction is mainly caused to an accumulation of fat, cholesterol and other chemicals in the heart (coronary) arteries. Plaques are fatty, cholesterol-containing formations. Atherosclerosis is the process of plaque accumulation.
Sometimes, a plaque might burst and generate a clot that inhibits blood flow. A shortage of blood flow can cause injury or destruction to the heart muscle.
Myocardial infarction is another term for a heart attack.
A heart attack requires immediate treatment to avoid death. If you believe you are experiencing a heart attack, dial 911 or seek emergency medical attention.
I haven't experienced a heart attack or other similar symptoms as of yet, but the stomach discomfort may have occurred in recent times; there is no specific reason for falling, but the most common reason for it was ankel folding, and the last time I had food was a few minutes ago.
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the comprehensive drug abuse prevention and control act divided substances with abuse potential into categories based on the degree of their abuse potential and their clinical usefulness.
This assertion is truthful and correct but also on another aspect, which is acknowledged safety under medical care.
what is prevention ?
The World Health Organization (WHO) defines prevention as: "approaches and actions aimed at minimising the risk that a disease or disorder may impact a person, halting or delaying the development of the illness or reducing disability".
Effective prevention reduces the likelihood of an individual contracting a disease, illness, or damage. 2 Prevention also helps people manage current diseases or disorders successfully so that their health does not deteriorate.
The Prevention Centre focuses on chronic illness and condition prevention.
The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act, which is a federal statute, was approved in 1970. The U.S., and of course, the U.S., and of the U.S., the U.S., and the U.s. They were also classified into five schedules, or classes, based on their misuse potential and medicinal utility, as stated in the question, but also on another aspect, which is acknowledged safety under medical care.
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a nurse is instructing a woman who is contemplating pregnancy about nutritional needs. to reduce the risk of giving birth to a newborn who has a neural tube defect, which of the information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Consume folic acid-fortified foods. A nurse discusses the nutritional requirements with a woman who is thinking about getting pregnant.
When do pregnancy symptoms start? Which week?
The majority of women (59%) reported the onset of pregnancy symptoms by their fifth or sixth week, while 71% reported symptoms by the end of week six and 89% by week eight, according to a study published in the Journal of Clinical Epidemiology.
How will my stomach feel in the first trimester?
Early pregnancy (the first 12 weeks) mild stomach pain is typically brought on by your womb growing, ligaments stretching as your bump expands, hormonal constipation, or trapped wind. Sometimes, it could feel like a "stitch" or a light menstrual pain.
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the nurse has a client who reminds the nurse of the nurse's sister, with whom the nurse has a close and positive relationship. this phenomenon is best characterized by which term'
This phenomenon is best characterized by which term:
Transference.In this particular case, the nurse has a positive relationship with their sister, and is reminded of their sister when working with the client.
This phenomenon can be seen as a form of transference, in which a client transfers their feelings onto the healthcare professional. Counter transference is the term used to describe this phenomenon, as it is the opposite of transference.
What is counter transference?Occurs when a healthcare professional’s personal feelings and emotions are projected onto the patient. It can manifest in both positive and negative ways, such as feeling a sense of connection with a patient or feeling overwhelmed with frustration.
This phenomenon can be especially pronounced when a healthcare professional is reminded of a family member or close friend. In such cases, the healthcare professional’s feelings and emotions around their personal relationships can impact their interactions with the patient.
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nurse is preparing to administer thrombolytic therapy to a client with ischemic stroke. which is an appropriate nursing action
Elevating ischemic stroke is the head of the bed by 25 to 30 degrees is the proper nursing activity.
Which of the following is the initial stroke diagnostic test?If a stroke is suspected, a CT scan can typically determine if it was an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke. You may be able to receive the necessary treatment sooner because it is typically faster than an MRI scan.
What is the most effective therapy for an ischemic stroke?A drug known as tissue plasminogen activator is the primary treatment for an ischemic stroke (tPA). It dislodges blood clots that are preventing your brain from receiving blood. In a vein in your arm, a doctor will administer tPA. Within three hours after the onset of your symptoms, you must provide this type of medication.
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local anesthetic agents are not effective when injected into an area where a tooth or soft tissue is infected because____
local anesthetic agents are not effective when injected into an area where a tooth or soft tissue is infected because an increase of lymphocytes, in the area to combat the infection.
Local anaesthetics (LAs) are drugs that block the impulses that go via nerve fibres, reducing or eliminating feeling. LAs can be used for topical anaesthetic, peripheral nerve blocks, subcutaneous and tissue infiltration, and neuraxial analgesia and anaesthesia. Although all of these substances have equal effectiveness, lidocaine continues to have a dominant position as the most often used local anaesthetic in the United States. An efficient and secure local anaesthetic is novocaine. It is most frequently used in dentistry for operations that are completed in under 90 minutes. The dosage and application of epinephrine are two things that have an impact on how long Novocaine lasts.
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carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition in which the median nerve is compressed as it travels through a narrow passage in the wrist. explain how hand dynamometry might be used to assess a patient's need for surgery to release carpal tunnel compression.
The electrical activity of the median nerve is measured by hand dynamometry together with grip strength, which is affected by compression of the median nerve known as carpal tunnel syndrome .
Pressure on the median nerve results in carpal tunnel syndrome. On the palm side of the hand, a small opening known as the carpal tunnel is encircled by bones and ligaments. Numbness, tingling, and arm and hand weakness are possible signs of median nerve compression. You extend your arms in front of you, flex your wrists, and let your hands dangle there for roughly 60 seconds. Carpal tunnel syndrome may be present if you have discomfort in your fingers within 60 seconds.
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in an interprofessional team, the role of a nurse leader is elevated from caregiver to include which essential responsibilities? (select all that apply.)
Putting in place a team-based care delivery system., promoting client autonomy in making decisions about their treatment. ensuring a smooth transition from acute to home care.
What carries out a nurse leader?Nursing leaders keep an eye on nursing teams and make sure they adhere to the rules and regulations that uphold patient outcomes and high standards of care. Organizational Objectives For patient outcomes, nurse leaders create objectives. They match the overall strategic goals of their healthcare companies with the aims of nursing units.
What is the name of a nurse leader?They might provide role specializations like Nurse Executive. A post-graduate certification in nurse executive can also help you get ready to assume more responsibilities as a management or leader. You could even advance to more senior jobs like staff nurse or certified nursing leader with proper training and experience.
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which behavior would the nurse expect from a toddler subjected to prolonged hospitalization with limited parental visits?
Cheerful interactions with staff members' behavior would the nurse expect from a toddler prone to prolonged hospitalization with limited parental visits.
Children need to engage with others. Being in social situations and having social experiences helps them learn, grow, and develop a lot. The development of these crucial life skills may be aided by allowing and encouraging your kids to engage with others and be more sociable. The foundation of every connection between two or more individuals is our behavior and how we respond to those around us in social interactions.
These interactions involve various physical gestures, nonverbal cues, verbal exchanges, play, sharing, and other activities. Members of effective teams appreciate one another's opinions. Team members are likely to quit contributing to team discussions and other activities if they are dismissed or disregarded after doing so.
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which medication prescription by the health care provider will require the nurse to seek clarification? furosemide 20 mg. iv every 8 hours.
Heparin 5,000 u SC every day, medication prescription by the health care provider will require the nurse to seek clarification.
What is Heparin 5,000 u SC?A prescription medicine called heparin is used to both prevent and treat blood clots. Blood clots in the legs and lungs may be prevented and treated using it (including in patients with atrial fibrillation).
Every 8 to 12 hours for 7 to 10 days, or until the patient is fully mobile, 5,000 units subcutaneously. Low dosage heparin prophylaxis shouldn't need any laboratory monitoring.
Because it can be confused for a zero, a four, or the letter "cc," the abbreviation "u" should never be used alone. To avoid misunderstanding, the term "unit" should be written out. The other orders are all properly worded.
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The complete question is as follows:
Which medication order by the health care provider will require the nurse to seek clarification of that order?
Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg. IV every 8 hours.
Warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg. PO every evening at 6 PM.
Heparin 5,000 u SC every day
Meperedine (Demerol) 25 mg. IM every 4-6 hours PRN
a nurse is preparing to administer dexmedetomidine to a client. which questions should the nurse prioritize on the preadministration assessment? select all that apply.
Procedural sedation, Surgeries of short duration, Sedation of mechanically ventilated patients are Dexmedetomidine (Precedex) is used for procedural sedation and for surgeries of short duration, and it is also used in the intensive care setting for sedation of mechanically ventilated patients.
The area of medicine that deals with the care of seriously or critically ill patients who have, are at risk of acquiring, or are recovering from potentially fatal illnesses is known as intensive care medicine, sometimes known as critical care medicine. It entails performing CPR, providing life support, using intrusive monitoring methods, and providing end-of-life care. Medical specialists in this field are sometimes referred to as intensivists, critical care physicians, or intensive care physicians. Multidisciplinary teams made up of several different medical specializations are necessary for critical care. These teams often consist of medical professionals such as doctors, nurses, physical therapists, respiratory therapists, and pharmacists. They commonly collaborate in hospital intensive care units (ICUs).
The complete question is:
The nurse is preparing to administer dexmedetomidine (Precedex) to a patient. Which is an appropriate indication for dexmedetomidine? (Select all that apply.)
a. Procedural sedation
b. Surgeries of short duration
c. Surgeries of long duration
d. Postoperative anxiety
e. Sedation of mechanically ventilated patients
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a patient who is unable to breathe easily is brought to the emergency department. the emergency team quickly determines that this is caused by collapse or incomplete expansion of the alveoli, a condition called
A patient who is unable to breathe easily is brought to the emergency department. the emergency team quickly determines that this is caused by collapse or incomplete expansion of the alveoli, a condition called Atelectasis,
When the alveoli in your lung or a portion of your lung deflate, it is known as atelectasis and can result in a partial or full collapse of the lung.
The collapse of one or more lungs causes atelectasis. The little air sacs known as alveoli are specifically impacted.
Your lungs swell with air when you breathe in. The oxygen from the air enters your blood through alveoli, which are little sacs in your lungs. Organs and tissues all around your body receive oxygen from the blood.
A small portion of the lung or the entire lung may have atelectasis. Your blood might not get enough oxygen if a significant portion of your lung is compromised, which could have negative effects on your health.
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community hospital uses barcoding technology as part of its medication management processes. barcoding is an example of:
Barcoding is an example of character and symbol recognition technology.
Barcode Medication Management System (BCMA) scans patient wristbands and medications to administer to avoid medication errors. Preventable medication errors affect more than 7 million of her patients and cost all care settings approximately $21 billion annually.
The BCMA system reduces medication errors by electronically validating the “five rights” of medication (right patient, correct dose, right drug, right time, right route) at the patient's bedside. increase—every time a nurse gives a patient medicine. I have to scan both the patient's ID bracelet and the medicine's barcode to make sure they match. This is the use of barcodes in community hospitals.
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in the respiratory system, which organs are responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the bloodstream?
Answer:
Your lungs are part of the respiratory system, a group of organs and tissues that work together to help you breathe. The respiratory system's main job is to transport oxygen and remove extra carbon dioxide.
Explanation:
local anesthetics containing a vasoconstrictor are an absolute contraindication for a patient who reports being allergic to wine and dried fruits. group of answer choices true false
The statement "local anesthetics containing a vasoconstriction are an absolute contraindication for a patient who reports being allergic to wine and dried fruits" is true.
What is vasoconstriction?The narrowing (constriction) of blood arteries by tiny muscles in their walls is known as vasoconstriction. Blood flow is delayed or halted as blood vessels close.
Vasoconstriction can range from mild to severe. It could be brought on by sickness, medicines, or psychological issues. "A patient who reports being allergic to wine and dried fruits is an unequivocal contraindication for local anesthetics including a vasoconstriction,"
Therefore, the statement is true.
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which of the following statements concerning bariatric surgery, or gastrointestinal surgery for the obese, is true?
Bariatric surgery permanently alters the digestive process.
Gastrointestinal surgery is a therapy for illnesses affecting the digestive organs. The esophagus (ee-sof-uh-gus), stomach, small intestine, big intestine, and rectum are all included. The liver, gallbladder, and pancreas are also included.
Gallbladder disease, colorectal cancer, tumors or inflammation, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and other GI problems are treated by GI procedures. Depending on your health, your doctor may conduct the operation as an open or minimally invasive treatment.
They treat GI conditions medically (such as with medicines) and perform nonsurgical procedures, such as colonoscopies. GI surgeons perform surgeries on the abdomen (belly) area, including on organs of the digestive tract. Our GI surgeons are leaders in minimally invasive GI surgery techniques.
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a goiter can result from: a. too much or too little dietary iodine. b. choline supplementation. c. insufficient dietary copper. d. excess dietary chromium.
a goiter can result from too much or too little iodine in the diet.
The thyroid gland's uncontrolled development is referred to as a goitre (GOI-tur). A butterfly-shaped gland called the thyroid can be found near the base of the neck, just below the Adam's apple.
A goiter may develop from an abnormal cell proliferation that causes one or more lumps (nodules) in the thyroid or it may be an overall enlargement of the thyroid. Thyroid hormone levels may rise or fall, or there may be no change in thyroid function in the case of a goiter.
Iodine deficiency in the diet is the leading cause of goitres in the world. In the United States, where the consumption of iodized salt is widespread, goitres are brought on by illnesses that alter thyroid function or elements that influence thyroid development.
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