Patellar tendinitis is a condition common to basketball and volleyball players characterized by pain irritation immediately inferior to the patella.
Patellar tendinitis is a common overuse injury, caused by repeated stress on your patellar tendon. The stress results in tiny tears in the tendon, which your body attempts to repair. But as the tears in the tendon multiply, they cause pain from inflammation and weakening of the tendon.
Usually, pain from patellar tendinitis is on the front part of your knee, just below your kneecap.
Jumper's knee, also known as patellar tendonitis, is a condition characterized by inflammation of your patellar tendon.
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A nurse is establishing health promotion goal for a female client who smokes cigarettes, has hypertension, and has a BMI of 26. Which of the following goals should the nurse include?
A. The client will list foods that are high in Calcium, which should be avoided
B. The client will walk for 30 min 5 days a week.
C. The client will increase calorie intake by 200 cal per day
D. The client will replace cigarettes with smokeless tobacco products.
B. The client will walk for 30 min 5 days a week.
The client will walk for 30 min 5 days a week to reduce the BMI.
Define BMI ?
Medical practitioners measure a person's general health using a variety of approaches. In a world where obesity rates are always rising, doctors must rely on evaluation criteria to evaluate the influence a person's weight may have on their overall health. of the world's population.
Since the mid-1800s, health care practitioners have used the Body Mass Index (BMI) to analyse patients' weights. But, what exactly is BMI
BMI measures an individual's entire mass and compares it to their height to determine their overall body score.
The client will walk for 30 min 5 days a week.
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________ refers to behavior considered abnormal if it produces a sense of distress, anxiety, or guilt in an individual or if it is harmful to others in someway.
Abnormality as the inability to function effectively
Abnormality as a legal concept
Abnormality as a sense of personal discomfort
Abnormality as deviation from the ideal
marking two ends of a continuum.
It is best to view abnor
Abnormality as a sense of personal discomfort refers to behavior considered abnormal if it produces a sense of distress, anxiety, or guilt in an individual or if it is harmful to others in someway.
A behavioral trait known as abnormality is associated with those who live in peculiar or dysfunctional circumstances (or dysfunctional conduct). When conduct is unexpected or out of the ordinary, includes unwanted behavior, and limits a person's capacity to function, it is called abnormal. Age, gender, conventional classifications, and social conventions all have a significant impact on these expectations, and behavior that deviates from established societal, cultural, and ethical norms is referred to as "abnormal." Because of these arbitrary components, abnormal psychologists frequently differ on what qualifies as abnormal conduct.
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Describe what is meant by descriptive statistics
Descriptive statistics show and summarize the basic characteristics of a dataset found in the study presented in the summary describing the data sample and its measurements.
What is Descriptive Statistics?A descriptive statistic is defined as a summary statistic which quantitatively describes or summarizes characteristics from a collection of information. This is the process of using and analyzing those data.
There are four types of descriptive statistics:
Measures of FrequencyMeasures of Central TendencyMeasures of Dispersion or VariationMeasures of PositionDescriptive Statistics help analysts to understand the data better.
Thus, descriptive statistics show and summarize the basic characteristics of a dataset found in the study presented in the summary describing the data sample and its measurements.
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which of the following is a reason why the strong age differences in alcohol use disorders decline with age?
One reason alcohol abuse and dependence declines as people age is that People who have used alcohol excessively may die before they reach old age.
What causes alcoholism?Alcohol consumption by people over 60 years old can have serious consequences for health and even lead to death.
In the USA, harmful alcohol consumption is one of the main preventable risk factors for several diseases, especially non-transmissible chronic diseases. Among the elderly population, this situation is even more worrying, since the frequent and excessive use of this substance in this age group can cause serious health complications and even lead to death. Alcohol is the 7th largest risk factor for the total burden of disease among individuals aged 50 to 69 years and the 10th for individuals over 70 years of age.
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Which of the following is a reason why abuse of and dependence on alcohol decline as people age?
a. The increasing percentage of body water decreases the absorption of alcohol.
b. With age, the liver metabolizes alcohol at a faster rate.
c. Older people are financially more secure than younger ones.
d. People who have used alcohol excessively may die before they reach old age.
i exercise should be limited during pregnancy since it can limit delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.
Numerous studies have revealed that exercise, whether it is acute or chronic, is safe for pregnant women and may even be beneficial to their unborn children's development.
36 Weight, length, and circumference measurements are the main indicators of normal growth at birth.
any exercise that could result in even minor abdominal stress, such as moves that are abrupt or include quick direction changes. Activities that call for a lot of hopping, skipping, jumping, or bouncing.
deep knee bends, complete sit-ups, double leg lifts, and toe touches with a straight leg. stretching while bouncing. Early in pregnancy, low-intensity exercise boosts placental circulation, increases umbilical blood flow, and enhances fetal cardiac environment adaptability. The fetus did not experience any negative or positive impacts from relaxation practices.
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QUESTION -
Exercise should be avoided during pregnancy as it can reduce the amount of oxygen and nutrients delivered to the fetus.
You work for a healthcare provider in the IT department. Physicians and other staff have been issued mobile devices. You have been asked to help design a policy for mobile device use by staff while away from the healthcare facility. What would you include in the policy and why?
I have been asked to help design a policy for mobile device use by staff while away from the healthcare facility therefore the things which should be included in the policy to limit an unauthorized users' access, tampering or theft of your mobile device when you physically secure the device so for data privacy to be achieved.
What is a Policy?
This is referred to as the principle of action adopted or proposed by an organization or individual.
Health information has to be secured as it is a crime to release that of clients to a third party which is why it is best to limit an unauthorized users' access to the device through different methods.
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Which of the following is a detached part of the hypnotized person's awareness that silently watches events? a. Hidden observer b. Hypnosis c. Amnesia
The hypnotized person's hidden observers is a detached consciousness that quietly observes occurrences.
a method without medicines that induces an altered state of mind to concentrate attention and promote relaxation. In most cases, it excludes communication with others. Higher cognitive control is the capacity to change the methods that serve as your thinking's guides, whereas higher cognitive monitoring is the capacity to judge how well they work. Meditation is a technique in which someone utilizes a method to train their attention and awareness, reach a cognitively clear and emotionally tranquil and stable state, such as mindfulness or focusing their minds on a certain object, idea, or activity.The hypnotized person's hidden observers is a detached consciousness that quietly observes occurrences. The majority of dreams happen during this REM state. Eye movement, an accelerated pace of breathing, and heightened brain activity are hallmarks of REM sleep.
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n is a student pilot with a large life insurance policy which of these features would limit the insurer's obligation in the event and was killed while flying as a student pilot
N is a student pilot with a large life insurance policy. Exclusion would limit the insurer's obligation in the event and was killed while flying as a student pilot.
What is operation of a life insurance policy?
You and an insurance provider enter into a contract for life insurance. In essence, the insurance company will give your beneficiaries a lump sum, known as a death benefit, in return for your premium payments. The funds are available for any use by your beneficiaries.
Is life insurance profitable?
In most cases, you cannot get your money back if you return an insurance policy. However, return-of-premium life insurance is an exception. This kind of coverage, also known as ROP life insurance, reimburses you for the premiums you paid if you live over the term.
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N is a student pilot with a large life insurance policy. Exclusion would limit the insurer's obligation in the event and was killed while flying as a student pilot.
What is operation of a life insurance policy?A life insurance policy is an agreement between an insurer and an individual or business. The insurer agrees to pay a set amount of money to the policyholder’s beneficiary upon the policyholder’s death. In exchange, the policyholder pays a premium to the insurer. The premium is usually a fixed amount, such as an annual or monthly fee. The amount of the premium depends on the amount of coverage, the policyholder’s age, and other factors. The policyholder can also customize their policy by adding riders, such as a death benefit or critical illness coverage. Riders often have an additional cost, but they can provide additional protection to the policyholder. Life insurance can provide financial security to the policyholder’s family in the event of their death, and can be used to cover funeral costs, college tuition, or other expenses.
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Researchers have found that when participants are exposed to a cold virus the participants with a lower risk of developing a cold were ________________________.
a. less stressed and more positive at the beginning of the study
b. surrounded by more social support throughout the study
c. taking an increased dose of vitamin C
d. those who were receiving psychotherapy
Answer: a
The participants exposed to a cold virus with a lower risk of developing a cold were less stressed and more positive at the beginning of the study.
Your immune system may become weakened if your cortisol levels remain high for an extended period of time as a result of stress. Stress can also cause harm to your body's own cells and even cause immune system reactions, such as increased inflammation, which can leave you more vulnerable to illnesses and viruses. The immune system is suppressed by raising catecholamine and suppressor T cell levels.
Hence, stress weaken body capability to fight infection.
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You work for a large physician practice group, which has just implemented a patient portal. Several physicians refuse to use the patient portal system because they say it takes up too much of their time and is too difficult to use. This results in patients being dissatisfied with the system. You have been asked to meet with the physicians and convince them to use the portal. Prior to the meeting, you want to develop a plan. Create a post describing your plans for the meeting and things you will say at the meeting to convince the physicians to use the portal. In your post, include any objections you anticipate they may have, your response, and anyone you will bring with you to the meeting.
Answer:
Objection: The patient portal takes up too much of their time and is too difficult to use.
Response: I understand that the patient portal may require some adjustment and may take some time to use initially, but the long-term benefits of the portal for both the physicians and the patients are significant. The portal allows for more efficient communication between the physicians and their patients, which can save time and reduce the need for in-person visits. Additionally, the portal has a user-friendly interface and offers training resources to help the physicians become more comfortable using it.
I will bring a representative from the IT department to the meeting to provide technical support and address any specific concerns the physicians may have about the portal. We can also discuss the potential for adjusting the portal to better meet the needs of the physicians, such as by adding features or streamlining certain processes.
Objection: The patient portal is not necessary because they already have a good system in place.
Response: While the current system may be working well, the patient portal offers several benefits that can enhance the care provided to patients. For example, the portal allows for more timely communication between the physicians and their patients, which can lead to better outcomes. It also provides patients with convenient access to their medical information and allows them to communicate with their physicians from the comfort of their own homes. Additionally, the patient portal is a widely used tool in healthcare and can improve the practice's reputation and competitiveness.
I will bring data to the meeting to demonstrate the benefits of the patient portal, including examples of how it has improved patient satisfaction and clinical outcomes at other practices.
Objection: The patient portal is not secure.
Response: The patient portal is designed with security in mind and follows industry-standard protocols to protect patient information. All communication and information shared through the portal is encrypted, and access to the portal is restricted to authorized users. Additionally, the portal has security measures in place to prevent unauthorized access and protect against cyber threats.
I will bring a representative from the IT department to the meeting to address any specific concerns the physicians may have about the security of the portal and to provide more information about the measures that are in place to protect patient information.
Overall, my goal for the meeting is to address the physicians' concerns and objections and to provide them with the information and support they need to feel comfortable using the patient portal. By demonstrating the benefits of the portal and addressing any concerns they may have, I hope to convince the physicians to use the portal and improve the care provided to their patients.
you respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured 4-year-old. her pulse is 130 beats per minute. which of the following best describes this finding?
A. Tachycardic best describes this finding of children's injury.
A pulse rate of 130 beats per minute in a 4-year-old is tachycardic, which means that the pulse rate is abnormally rapid. This could be due to a variety of causes, such as fever, anemia, or a reaction to the medication. It is typically considered abnormal in a 4-year-old and should be further evaluated by a healthcare professional.
If the child is demonstrating other signs and symptoms, such as difficulty breathing, chest pain, or confusion, emergency medical services should be contacted immediately. If the child is not demonstrating other signs and symptoms, the healthcare provider should be contacted for further evaluation and management.
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Complete question:
you respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured 4-year-old. her pulse is 130 beats per minute. which of the following best describes this finding?
A.
Tachycardic
B.
Normal for the child's age
C.
Bradycardic
D.
Unable to determine without knowing the family history give detailed solution?
schizophrenia may take months/years to fully develop into the disorder. when the latter occurs, a person often proceeds through the following phases (in order)
Schizophrenia may take months/years to fully develop into the disorder and when the latter occurs, a person often proceeds through the prodromal, acute, and residual phases.
About seventy fifth of adults with schizophrenic prodromal stage have a symptom section that will last months or years before a vigorous section. For a few folks, symptom begins in childhood or early young years. For others, symptom happens in young adulthood or does not happen the least bit.
In acute phase of schizophrenia changes are how someone thinks and behaves. People usually have episodes of schizophrenic psychosis, throughout that their symptoms square measure significantly severe, followed by periods wherever they expertise few or no symptoms. this is often referred to as acute schizophrenic psychosis.
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a 47-year-old man presents with hiccups for three days. he is unable to stop them with any home remedies. his physical examination is benign. which of the following is a potential cause of hiccups?
The following potential cause of hiccups is hyponatremia.
Hiccups are caused by involuntary contractions of the diaphragm the muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen and plays an important role in breathing. This involuntary contraction causes the vocal cords to close very briefly producing characteristic hiccups.
Irritation can also be caused by breast or throat cancer. Rarely, hiccups may be associated with brain disorders such as tumors or stroke, or with cardiovascular disease. Some drugs can also cause long-term hiccups. Finally, hiccups can persist for no apparent reason. The reason heart problems cause hiccups is in the breathing muscles underneath the heart.
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Amniotic fluid analysis showed a marked increase into zone III of the Liley graph. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratios indicated that the fetal lungs were not mature. Select the most appropriate decision regarding medical intervention.
An intrauterine transfusion
The most appropriate decision regarding medical intervention is an intrauterine transfusion.
A procedure known as an intrauterine transfusion (IUT) involves giving blood to a fetus, typically through the umbilical cord. It is utilized in cases of severe fetal anemia, such as when maternal antibodies are destroying fetal red blood cells. Perinatologists perform IUTs in hospitals or other specialized facilities.
These transfusions typically occur between 19 and 35 weeks of pregnancy. Directed by ultrasound, they are managed through a needle in the maternal midsection, which is then embedded into the umbilical line or fetal mid-region in uncommon cases.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. When a molecule binds to a taste receptor cell, a ____________________ is secreted and an action potential occurs over a sensory neuron. The nerve impulse continues through the ________________________ and the _______________, and is interpreted in the ___________ lobe of the cerebrum. Sensory _____________ also occurs rather quickly, which helps explain the reason the first few bites of a particular food have the most vivid flavor.
When a molecule binds to a taste receptor cell a neurotransmitter is secreted and an action potential occurs over a sensory neuron.
The nerve impulse continues through the medulla oblongata and the thalamus and is interpreted in the insula lobe of the cerebrum.
Sensory adaptation also occurs rather quickly, which helps explain the reason the first few bites of a particular food have the most vivid flavor.
Taste receptor cells sense various compounds in food and transmit these signals through the taste buds to the central nervous system. These sensory signals are essential. They provide information about which foods are nutritious and warn about harmful foods.
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in a goodness-of-fit test, the null hypothesis (no difference between sets of observed and expected frequencies) is rejected when the .
In a goodness-of-fit test, the null hypothesis (no difference between sets of observed and expected frequencies) is rejected when the B. difference between the observed and expected frequencies is significantly large.
What is the null hypothesis?The null hypothesis also called hypothesis zero or H0 is a fine plausible explanation that indicates there are no statistically significant differences between data and assumptions.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the null hypothesis indicates the absence of statistically significant differences in data.
Complete question:
In a goodness-of-fit test, the null hypothesis (no difference between sets of observed and expected frequencies) is rejected when the
a. computed chi-square is less than the critical value. B. difference between the observed and expected frequencies is significantly large.
c. difference between the observed and expected frequencies is small.
d. difference between the observed and expected frequencies occurs by chance.
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A dietitian wishes to see if a person’s cholesterol level will change if the diet is supplemented by a certain mineral. Six subjects were pretested, and then they took the mineral supplement for a 6-week period. The results are shown in the table. (Cholesterol level is measured in milligrams per deciliter.) Can it be concluded that the cholesterol level has been changed at level of 0.10? Assume the variable is approximately normally distributed.
subject:
x1:
A dietician is a medically qualified expert who modifies a person's diet depending on their blood type, body type, or other contributing factors that may affect the nutrition they receive.
Who is Dietician?They primarily work one-on-one to examine, diagnose, recommend, and treat various medical diagnoses and nutritional issues. Their main objective is to make sure the person they are working with is consuming the proper kind and amount of nutrients.
You must complete a 6- to 12-month internship under the supervision of a registered dietitian and enroll in a program that has been granted accreditation by the Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics (ACEND) in order to become registered.
After that, you can take the written test that the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics is going to give. However, not all dietitians choose to register; some choose to only obtain a license. Make sure to research the laws in your state.
Therefore, A dietician is a medically qualified expert who modifies a person's diet depending on their blood type, body type, or other contributing factors that may affect the nutrition they receive.
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Which of the following statements about the effects of cardiovascular exercise on metabolism and body composition is FALSE?
A. It slightly raises the metabolic rate for several hours after exercise.
B. The increase in muscle mass raises the metabolic rate.
C. It increases caloric expenditure and thus helps regulate body weight.
D. It can result in substantial weight gain due to increase in muscle mass.
The correct option is D ; It can result in substantial weight gain due to increase in muscle mass. Overall, exercise training leads to a better body composition as measured by a decrease in body fat,
particularly in overweight and obese people, with little or no long-term effect on body weight.
It boosts calorie expenditure and hence aids in weight regulation. - It can cause significant weight gain owing to increased muscle mass. Because of the increase in muscle mass,
it might result in significant weight gain. - Regular exercise lowers the chance of having a stroke.
Exercise can help to increase your metabolism. Exercising to gain lean muscle mass might modestly raise your resting metabolic rate (the amount of calories your body burns while at rest). Furthermore, strenuous exercise might raise your metabolic rate for several hours afterward.
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which of the following diseases cause flu-like symptoms in most people infected, but can cause muscle weakness or paralysis?
Answer: Polio. I went to get a second opinion and they all said it too
according to present-day growth charts, the average infant will double his/her birth weight at about months of age and will triple his/her birth weight at about months
According to present-day growth charts, the average infant will double his/her birth weight at about 4-6 months of age and will triple his/her birth weight at about 12-18 months.
By age four to six months, an infant's weight ought to be double their birth weight. throughout the last half of the primary year of life, growth isn't as speedy. Between ages one and a pair of, a yearling can gain solely concerning five pounds (2.2 kilograms). Weight gain can stay at concerning five pounds (2.2 kilograms) per annum between ages two to five.
Infants is thought of children anyplace from birth to one year recent. Baby is accustomed confer with any kid from birth to age four years recent, so encompassing newborns, infants, and toddlers.
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which is the most important action for the nurse to perform when assessing bowel sounds? (select all that apply.)
Listen for up to 5 minutes when auscultating for bowel sounds. Begin auscultation in the right lower quadrant. Hence option b and e are correct.
What is auscultation?Auscultation is defined as a technique that your doctor might use to hear the sounds coming from your heart, lungs, arteries, and belly. To make a proper diagnosis, it is crucial to differentiate between typical respiratory sounds like crackles, wheezes, and pleural rub and aberrant ones like these.
Before figuring out what kind of bowel sounds are there, the nurse has to listen for up to five minutes. Prior to moving on to the other quadrants, the nurse should auscultate in the right lower quadrant.
Thus, listen for up to 5 minutes when auscultating for bowel sounds. Begin auscultation in the right lower quadrant. Hence option b and e are correct.
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Your question is incomplete, but probably your complete question was
Which is the most important action for the nurse to perform when assessing bowel sounds?
Select all that apply
- Ask the client if she has lost or gained any weight.
- Listen for up to 5 minutes when auscultating for bowel sounds.
- Perform a rectal exam.
- Inspect the client's abdomen while she is in a semi-Fowler's position.
- Begin auscultation in the right lower quadrant.
is produced by the interstitial cells of the testes under the control of the anterior pituitary lobe.
Explanation:
The interstitial cells or Leydig cells are found in male testes. They are attached to seminiferous tubules. These cells are responsible for the secretion of testosterone hormone in the presence of Luteinizing Hormone (LH), which is secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
Billy has an identical twin who was recently diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Research suggests that the chances are about _____ that Billy will also suffer from bipolar disorder at some point in his life.
7 in 10
Billy has an identical twin who was recently diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Research suggests that the chances are about 7 in 10 that Billy will also suffer from bipolar disorder at some point in his life.
Extreme mood swings, including emotional highs (mania or hypomania) and lows, are a symptom of bipolar disorder, formerly known as manic depression (depression). When you're depressed, you could feel down or hopeless and stop enjoying most activities. You can feel ecstatic, energized, or particularly irritable when your mood swings to mania or hypomania (less severe than mania). Sleep, energy, activity, judgment, conduct, and the capacity for clear thought can all be impacted by these mood changes. Rarely or frequently throughout the year, mood swing episodes can happen.
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a previously healthy 30-year-old man from texas presents to your clinic with a complaint of a suspected insect bite. he tells you that he was outside chopping wood yesterday and since then has had increased pain in his upper right arm. on examination, you note localized skin changes including darkening of the skin, a depressed center and an area of ulceration. which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Buruli ulcer is the most likely cause of his symptoms like darkening of the skin, a depressed center and an area of ulceration.
Insect bite is a large space round the bite becomes red and swollen. you've got symptoms of a wound infection, like pus or increasing pain, swelling or redness. you've got symptoms of a a lot of widespread infection, like a heat, swollen glands and alternative flu-like symptoms.
Buruli ulcer is a unwellness caused by the bacteria mycobacteria ulcerans. It principally have an effect ons the skin however can even affect the bone. Cases are usually seen within the tropics, primarily in geographic area and Australia. Infection typically results in ulcers on the arms or legs, which may additionally destroy skin or soft tissue.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. Tatiana is a competitive endurance athlete who weighs 75 kg. She would like to plan a nutritionally balanced diet that provides enough carbohydrate to maintain her weight and glycogen stores for the 1 to 3 hours per day of training that she undergoes to prepare for events. According to expert recommendations, she should consume at least ________ grams of carbohydrate daily while training.
Athletes should consume 5 to 7 grams of carbs per kg of body weight per day.
What is Nutrition Diet?
Nutrition diet is an individualized eating plan that takes into account a person's lifestyle, health needs, and food preferences. It is designed to provide the necessary nutrients for good health and well-being, while helping to prevent or reduce the risk of chronic diseases. A nutritious diet includes a variety of foods from all the food groups, including fruits and vegetables, whole grains, lean protein, healthy fats and dairy. Eating a variety of foods from each food group helps to ensure that you get all the essential nutrients your body needs. Additionally, nutrition diets may include supplementation to meet specific needs, such as a vitamin D supplement for people living in colder climates. Eating healthy and following a nutrition diet can help to maintain a healthy weight, improve mental and physical health, and reduce the risk of chronic diseases.
Tatiana is 75 kg heavy.
Tatiana needs 5 grams of carbs every 75 kg of body weight.
Thus, Total grams of carbs = 5 * 75 = 375grams.
Tatiana should therefore eat 375 grams of carbohydrates minimum daily.
Her daily carbohydrate intake while training should be at least 375 grams, experts advise.
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A 19-year-old softball player presents to clinic with complaints of bilateral knee pain which has been ongoing for approximately three months. She denies a history of trauma to either knee. The onset has been insidious and slowly increasing over time. She reports worsening of her pain when playing catcher and climbing stairs. She locates the pain over her anterior knees. X-rays are obtained that are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Chondromalacia Patellae
(aka patellofemoral syndrome)
The most likely diagnosis is chondromalacia patellae (also known as patellofemoral syndrome).
The etiology of patellofemoral pain syndrome is unknown, however it has been linked to: Overuse. Sports like running or jumping exert repetitive strain on the knee joint, that can irritate the area under the kneecap. weakness or imbalances in the muscles. Chondromalacia patella is a condition that can occur in certain patellofemoral pain instances. The joint cartilage on the bottom of the kneecap softens and breaks down, a condition known as chondromalacia patella. Because articular cartilage lacks nerves, injury to the chondro itself cannot produce pain. Rarely is chondromalacia patella a serious problem. In actuality, the majority of individuals are able to handle it with rest, elevation, ice, & stretching. However, for some individuals, the disease may deteriorate to the point that pain management techniques at home and over-the-counter pain medicines are ineffective.
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FILL IN THE BLANK jade hears a rattle. when she turns around she sees a rattlesnake inches from her leg. her pupils dilate, her heart pounds, and she begins to sweat. this response is called the______ response.
The response is of flight or fight.
What is fight or flight response?The physiological response that takes place when confronted with anything physically or cognitively alarming is referred to as the fight-or-flight response, also known as the acute stress response.
Hormones that prepare your body to either confront a threat head-on or flee to safety are released when a response is triggered.
The phrase "fight-or-flight" refers to the options available to our prehistoric ancestors when faced with danger in their environment: either to engage in combat or to run.
Stress triggers a physiological and psychological response that primes the body to respond to danger.
Cannon understood that the body's ability to respond to events was aided by a series of swiftly occurring internal reactions.
It is understood that the fight-or-flight response is a component of Selye's general adaption syndrome's initial stage.
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melanie, who is obese, attends a weight reduction program. as part of the 10-week program, whenever melanie is offered her favorite calorie-rich food items, they are accompanied by repulsive odors. after the completion of the program, melanie associates her favorite food with bad odors and does not feel like eating them. she gradually loses weight in the following months. which of the following treatment techniques is exemplified in this scenario?
Aversive conditioning. Aversives can be used artificially or spontaneously (for example, by touching a hot stove) (such as during torture or behavior modification).
Are unpleasant conditioning punishments constructive?An operant response is followed by the introduction of an adverse stimulus in an effort to lessen the possibility that a behavior will happen again in the future. This is corrective discipline.
How does aversion treatment function?By associating an undesirable action with an unpleasant stimuli, aversion behavior therapy encourages people to acquire a strong dislike or revulsion for the undesirable behavior. The impact of the stimulus must happen concurrently with or shortly after the unpleasant behavior for this association to be created.
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Sally has just heard a strange noise in her basement. Which of the following is an example of normal autonomic nervous system function during this type of situation? Multiple Choice a. Sally's heart rate increases preparing for possible activity b. Sally's heart rate decreases to allow her to hear the noise better c. Sally's breathing becomes slower to allow for better gas exchange d. Sally muscle tone increases as she becomes parayed with fear
Sally has just heard a strange noise in her basement therefore the following which is an example of normal autonomic nervous system function during this type of situation is that Sally's heart rate increases preparing for possible activity which is therefore denoted as option A.
What is Autonomic nervous system?This is referred to as a part of the peripheral nervous system that regulates involuntary physiologic processes such as heaert rate, respiration etc.
In a scenario where she is frightened by the noise then the heart rate is usually increased so as to prepare the individual for the possible activity needed.
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Strategies for community and urban design that influence enhancements to the physical and built environment of urban areas of several square miles connecting transportation arteries to increase access to physical activity include all but which of the following?Converting an empty room at the worksite into a gym
Strategies for community and urban design that influence enhancements to the physical and built environment of urban areas of several square miles connecting transportation arteries to increase access to physical activity include all but converting an empty room at the worksite into a gym.
By improving the natural and built environments, reconsidering community design, and providing access to locations for such exercise, communities, organizations, community planners, and public health professionals can promote physical activity.
Possibilities include
• Communities, urban planners, architects, developers, and public health experts creating and putting into action sustainable strategies to enhance the physical environment of communities, whether they are several square miles or larger or as small as a few blocks in size, in ways that support and encourage physical activity.
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