A newborn has chronic sustained hypertension but otherwise appears healthy. What diagnostic testing does the APN facilitate as the priority

Answers

Answer 1

The following test can be done by APN to diagnose chronic sustained hypertension in a newborn is renal function studies.

Chronic hypertension in infants can be due to kidney and heart diseases. Causes of hypertension in newborns and infants include renal vascular thrombosis, renal artery stenosis, coarctation of the aorta, renal dysplasia, bronchopulmonary dysplasia, acute kidney injury, and intracranial blood flow.

In newborns, high blood pressure is often caused by the formation of a thrombus in the blood vessels of the kidneys. Kidney diseases involve renal tissues and artery stenosis (narrowing of the kidney's main blood vessel) that increase the blood pressure and cause hypertension in infants.

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Related Questions

Priya was born with a deficiency of thyroxine. She did not receive prompt treatment. Priya is most likely __________.

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Priya was born with a deficiency of thyroxine. She did not receive prompt treatment. Priya is most likely B) intellectually disabled.

The thyroid is fundamental for the development and growth of many objective tissues, including the brain and skeleton. Thus, irregularities of thyroid organ capability in infants and adolescents result in metabolic outcomes as well as remarkably affect the development and/or development of these thyroid-dependent tissues also.

Congenital hypothyroidism is the point at which the thyroid organ doesn't make an adequate number of thyroid chemicals like thyroxine. It's the most normal thyroid issue in youngsters. Insufficient thyroid chemical prompt signs like sluggish development, absence of activity, and terrible performance in school.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was…

Priya was born with a deficiency of thyroxine. She did not receive prompt treatment. Priya is most likely_____

A) extremely tall for her age

B) intellectually disabled

C) growing at a normal rate

D) strong in spatial relationship skills

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A primigravid client states that she has heard that her nipples will leak milk during the pregnancy and is concerned of embarrassment if this should happen while she is at work. Which nursing suggestion is best

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A primigravid client states that she has heard that her nipples will leak milk during the pregnancy and is concerned of embarrassment if this should happen while she is at work. Which nursing suggestion is best Purchase a padded supportive bra to wear under your clothing.

Even before the baby is born, the breasts are ready for breastfeeding. The breasts start secreting colostrum about week 16 of pregnancy. The greatest recommendation is to wear a supportive, padded bra that can absorb leaks without letting it show through clothing.

1 Changing into a different set of clothes does not solve the issue, and it can be obvious that this has been done.

2 It is not advised to restrict fluid consumption. The expectant mother needs to drink enough fluids.

4 Applying tape on the nipples is not recommended because it could injure them.

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Identify and explain at least three common diseases that affect the cardiovascular system?.

Answers

Answer:

Abnormal heart rhythms. Heart failure. And Congenital heart disease.

Explanation:

What symptoms did John Nash exhibit at the end of the movie ( A beautiful mind).

Answers

Answer:

At the end of the movie the symptoms John Nash exhibit were hallucinations, delusions, paranoid ideations, and a distorted perception of reality.

Christopher Slice, a 17-year-old male, was brought into the OR in the Bracket ASC to have a programmable pump inserted into his spine for pain control. After the anesthesia was administered and Chris was fully unconscious, Dr. Sutton made the first incision. Chris began to hemorrhage. The bleeding was stopped, the incision was closed, and the procedure was discontinued. The coder is coding for the asc facility. what is the modifier number

Answers

30901-XS or 59  is the modifier number.

What is the modifier number?

A CPT® or HCPCS Level II code may have two additional characters (letters or integers) applied to it. Without altering the code's meaning, the modifier offers more details about the medical treatment, service, or supply in question.

CPT modifiers, also known as Level I modifiers, are used to add to or modify care descriptions in order to provide more information about a medical professional's operation or service. Code modifiers assist in expanding on a process code's definition without altering it.

The Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) or Current Procedural Terminology (CPT®) codes are modified to offer additional information required for filing a claim, such as explaining why a doctor or other qualified healthcare professional provided a certain service and procedure.

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This occurs when microorganisms are transferred from one infected person directly into another person.

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According to the research, the correct option is Direct transmission, it occurs when microorganisms are transferred from one infected person directly into another person.

What is direct transmission?

It is the route of transmission of the etiological agents that serves them to pass from one host to another, it is direct when the transmission is immediate that is carried out without intermediaries.

In other words, it is the one that has not been carried out by means of other factors of transmission between the initial host and the next host and can occur by kissing, through coughing, sneezing among others.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is Direct transmission, it occurs when the transmission of the infectious agent is immediate through person-to-person contact.

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During properly performed external chest compression on children under 8 years old or on large toddlers, how much should the sternum be compressed

Answers

During external chest compression on children under 8 years old the sternum should be compressed about 1/3 to 1/2 the depth of the chest.

What is the correct chest compression for a child?

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is known as CPR. When a child's respiration or heartbeat stops, it is a life-saving surgery.  

Compress the breastbone. For a baby or infant, press down 4 or 5 cm, or around one-third of the chest's diameter. At a rate of around 100–120 compressions per minute, quickly release the pressure before repeating. When we've completed 30 compressions, tilt the head, elevate the chin, and take two deep breaths. For adults, compress the chest to a depth of at least 2 inches. Allow the chest to fully rise each time. These compressions must be swift, forceful, and uninterrupted.

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You are caring for a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant. While assessing her breathing, you notice that her rib cage expands visibly with each breath and that her tidal volume appears to be deep. You recognize:

Answers

Answer:an increase in tidal volume that is normal during pregnancy.

Explanation:

REASON FOR REFERRAL
Systemic lupus erythematosus.

HISTORY OF PRESENT ILLNESS
Patient was told she had SLE in 1998.

PAST HISTORY
Illnesses: Lupoid hepatitis, 1998.
Operations: Renal biopsy. Hepatic biopsy.

REVIEW OF SYSTEMS
HEENT: Conjunctivitis and iritis.
Cardiorespiratory: Pleuritic chest pain.
Gastrointestinal: Vague abdominal pain.
Extremities: Edema.

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION
GENERAL: The patient is a 50-year-old female with obvious pedal edema.
CHEST: Heart: RRR. Lungs: Clear. Breasts: Normal.
ABDOMEN: Hepatomegaly. No shifting dullness or fluid waves.
EXTREMITIES: There was 3+ pitting edema in both lower extremities.

DATABASE
Sodium 135, potassium 4.6, calcium 7.6, phosphorus 2.7, total protein 4.5, albumin 1.9, BUN 25, creatinine 1.1, uric acid 5.2. Hemoglobin 13.6, hematocrit 42.1, sedimentation rate 35. WBCs 5,600 with 86 segs, 0 bands, 12 lymphs, MCV 93. The 24-hour urine protein is 10.57 gm, creatinine 828 mg. Q-panel: The 5’-nucleotidase was elevated at 12.98, anti-DNA negative, anticentromere negative, anti-smooth muscle negative, ANA positive at 195, anticardiolipin antibody normal and mitochondrial antibody normal.

ASSESSMENT
1. Abnormal antinuclear antibody positive for lupus.
2. Nephrosis.

RECOMMENDATIONS
Nephrology consultation for evaluation of renal status.
ICD-10-CM:
ICD-10-CM:

Answers

In these cases the ICD-10 for this patient is ICD 10 - L93 Lupus ICD 10 N13. 2 Hydronephrosis with obstruction by renal and ureteral calculi.

1. Abnormal antinuclear antibody positive for lupus. - CID 10 - L93 Lúpus eritematoso

2. Nephrosis. ICD 10 N13. 2 Hydronephrosis with obstruction by renal and ureteral calculi.

What does the ICD mean?

The International Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, better known as the ICD, is one of the main epidemiological tools in everyday medical practice. The main function of the ICD is to monitor the incidence and prevalence of diseases, through universal standardization.

With this information, we can conclude that ICD-10 is the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems

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A client currently has normal hemoglobin levels, but significantly decreased SaO2 and PaO2 levels. What is an implication of this physiologic state

Answers

Answer:
Anemia

Explanation:
There are actually many answers to this question but Anemia is a simple answer to the question. The patient would present cyanosis.

Alberta Roberts was diagnosed as having an inflammation of one or more diverticula. The medical term for this condition is _____.

Answers

Answer:

Diverticulitis

Explanation:

Diverticulitis presents with abdominal pain and cramping in the lower left quadrant.

Which feature of influenza viruses is the reason why vaccines against them have to be produced each year

Answers

The feature of the influenza virus which is the reason behind synthesis of new vaccines for influenza every year is antigenic drift.

Antigenic drift is a phenomenon by which mutations give rise to genetic variations in pathogenic agents like viruses, which changes the viral surface proteins of the virus. These changes in the viral surface proteins in the antigen leads to the generation of new variations. These variations are new to the immune cells in the body and trigger them with different signals every time they infect a host.  The best example to study this effect is the influenza virus which has numerous variations like influenza A, B, C and D. Thus, the influenza virus has to be produced or updated every year.

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The guest complained of vomiting and diarrhea a few hours after eating the raw oysters. What pathogen probably caused the illness

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Vomiting and diarrhea a few hours after eating the raw oysters may probably have caused the illness is Norovirus.

Norovirus is the largest cause of illness from contaminated food in the U.S. The virus is usually spread when an infected food handler touches food before it is served. Oysters and other shellfish are occasionally naturally infected with the norovirus. Although eating raw or undercooked shellfish might infect you with norovirus, oysters are considerably more frequently consumed raw than other shellfish. Norovirus disease often has a sudden onset of nausea and vomiting and/or watery diarrhea with cramps. Sometimes a low-grade fever chills, and body aches occur.

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explain why a tan isn't really healthy after all and actually increases your odds of developing skin cancer

Answers

Answer:

Tanning can be bad for you but comes with the risk of burning that can cause skin cancer.

Explanation:

Tanning can be bad because the human body does not tan until the ultraviolet (UV) rays have pierced the skin. this can cause a change to your DNA. your skin tone can also effect this, the lighter you are the easier it is to burn. tanning every now and then isn't bad but if you are in the sun with no protection for years and the sun keeps hitting one spot, you have a higher chance of getting it. genetics can also control this. hope this helps.

Mr. Liu turns 65 on June 19. He has never previously qualified for Medicare so his first Medicare eligibility date will be by June 1. Mr. Liu’s ICEP and Part D IEP begin March 1 and end on September 30. He wants prescription drug coverage with his Part A and Part B benefits. What advice can you provide him?

Answers

The advice that you can provide him is: He should enroll in a MA-PD so long as he enrolls in Part B and is entitled to Part A.

What is Medicare?

Medicare can be defined as a health insurance coverage that help to cover medical expenses of those under the Medicare plan.

Hence, since he desire a prescription drug coverage the best choice is for him to enroll in Medicare advantage plan in as far as he enrolls in Part B and he is qualify for Part A.

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Please provide a brief example for a patient who can sustain harm due to a inadequate communication from his provider

Answers

Answer:

Inadequate communication can compromise a patients safety and can cause patient dissatisfaction.

Which physical characteristic behavior is an indication that a patron might be obviously intoxicated?.

Answers

Answer:

Ways of walking- not standing straight at all times

The coordination, spilling drinks, difficulty in opening and closing of doors are physical characteristic behavior is an indication that a patron might be obviously intoxicated.

What is meaning of intoxicated?The meaning of intoxicated is affected by alcohol or drug .In this stage the physical and mental control/function has lost for sometime.The main reason of intoxication is drinking of alcohol  much in short term.

There are some ways to deal an intoxicated person.Keep eye contactTalk slowly with clear voice and gently ask some questionUse person's name

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How are the vast majority of foodborne illnesses transmitted in our current food system?.

Answers

Answer:

Most often, food is contaminated by infected food handlers. Food may also be contaminated if it is grown in or irrigated with water contaminated with norovirus, as has been shown with oysters, lettuce, and raspberries.

Explanation:

What diet-planning principle calls for selecting foods from each of the food groups daily and varying your choices within each food group

Answers

Variety is the diet-planning principle calls for selecting foods from each of the food groups daily and varying your choices within each food group.

A healthy diet requires balancing the quantity and quality of the food consumed. A healthy diet is made up of five essential components:Each vital vitamin must be present in an adequate diet, which also includes enough fiber and calories.When you ingest the right proportions of each nutrient, rather than one at the expense of another, you have a balanced diet.Calorie control is required to ensure that the energy you receive from the foods you eat and the energy you use during your day's activities are equal.Eating a variety of meals from each food group is important. You may ensure that you get all the nutrients required for a healthy diet by eating a diversified diet. Risk of taking too much of some nutrients and not enough of others is one of the main downsides of a repetitive diet.

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Using the ICD-10-CM code book, assign code(s) for the following diagnosis: Initial encounter for injury sustained due to nightgown catching fire while cooking breakfast in the kitchen of her mobile home.

List the ICD-10-CM code to report the cause of injury.

Answers

The ICD-10 code for injury sustained due to the shirt on fire is T29 - Burns and Corrosion of Multiple Body Regions

List the ICD-10-CM code to report the cause of the injury.

ICD 10 - T29 Burns and corrosion of multiple body regionsICD 10 - T29.0 Multiple burns, degree not specifiedICD 10 - T29.1 Multiple burns, not to mention burn(s) exceeding first degree

What is ICD 10?

In summary, the acronym covers the classification and coding of diseases. It is of a wide variety of

signssymptomsabnormal featurescomplaintssocial circumstancesand also external causes for injury or illness.

It is also worth remembering that the acronym is used worldwide as the medical standard for cataloging medical diagnoses.

With this information, we can conclude that the ICD 10 is the code  International Classification of Diseases.

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During the initial assessment for an unconscious adult, if your first 2 initial breaths do not make the chest clearly rise, what should you do next?

Answers

During the initial assessment for an unconscious adult, if your first 2 initial breaths do not make the chest clearly then, Tilt the head further back and reattempt the 2 rescue breaths.

Rescue breathing (mouth-to-mouth) and chest compressions are used in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to temporarily pump enough blood to the brain until specialized treatment is available.In CPR, chest compressions should come first. Even if you are unable to perform mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, chest compressions by themselves may still be life-saving. Limit breaks in chest compressions as much as possible until aid arrives.Breathe for one second into the victim's mouth. Track the rise of the chest.If the victim's chest lifts, inhale again into their mouth.If the victim's chest doesn't lift, tilt their head back and bring their chin back down. Then exhale again into the victim's mouth.

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the setting of a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicate: Group of answer choices

Answers

A patient suffering from head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicates herniation of the brain stem.

When blood, brain tissue, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) move from their usual position inside the skull, this can lead to a condition known as brain herniation, which is also sometimes referred to as cerebral herniation. In most cases, the illness is brought on by swelling in the brain as a result of a stroke, head injury, hemorrhage, or brain tumor. Herniation of the brain is a condition that is considered a health emergency and requires prompt medical intervention. If treatment is delayed, it almost always results in death. The most common symptoms of brain herniation include dilatation of pupils, drowsiness, headache, seizures, high blood pressure, etc.

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The lifestyle management techniques recommended by the American Heart Association include all of the following EXCEPT: Consume a diet with more than 15% of the total calories from saturated fat Consume a diet that emphasizes fruit and vegetable intake Limit intake of sweets and sugar sweetened beverages Include low fat dairy and non-tropical vegetable oils

Answers

The lifestyle management techniques recommended by the American Heart Association include all except Consuming a diet with more than 15% of the total calories from saturated fat.

The amount of fat that the AHA advises:

Aiming for a diet that provides 5–6% of calories from saturated fat is advised by the American Heart Association. If you require 2,000 calories a day, for instance, no more than 120 of those calories should be from saturated fat. That equates to roughly 13 grams of saturated fat daily.

The American Heart Association advises eating enough seafood, vegetables, fruits, legumes, nuts, whole grains, and lean protein sources. Additionally, processed meat, refined carbs, and sweetened beverages are prohibited on this regimen. Consume a variety of fruit and vegetable servings each day to maintain a heart-healthy diet.

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If your family provides affirmation, they Select one: a. meet your physical needs. b. make you feel appreciated and supported. c. teach you health skills. d. set limits on your behavior.

Answers

If your family provides affirmation, they make you feel appreciated and supported.

Positive words called affirmations can assist you in battling and overcoming self-defeating and pessimistic ideas. You can begin to make constructive changes when you repeat them frequently and trust in them.Receiving compliments on your achievements from family, no matter how small, can help you feel more confident. A person feels happy when they are respected. A person can perceive things differently if they are joyful.Your ability to modify your negative thought patterns and replace them with good ones is something that affirmations may help you with. They can also help you focus on attaining your life objectives.

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Which is the relative volume and types of diagnostic, therapeutic, and inpatient bed services used to manage an inpatient disease

Answers

Answer:

It is called, "Resource Intensity."

Wilbur has decided to increase his intake of antioxidants like vitamins A and E in order to lower the development of certain age-related diseases and to live longer. The most recent evidence in aging suggests that Wilbur will:

Answers

Wilbur has decided to increase his intake of antioxidants like vitamins A and E in order to lower the development of certain age-related diseases and to live longer. The most recent evidence in aging suggests that Wilbur will be less likely to develop certain age-related diseases but will not live any longer.

Cardiovascular disease and osteoporosis and dementia are commonplace persistent situations at age 85. Osteoarthritis, diabetes, and related mobility incapacity will grow in prevalence as the populace a while and will become more overweight.

Examples of getting older-associated diseases are atherosclerosis and cardiovascular ailment, most cancers, arthritis, cataracts, osteoporosis, type 2 diabetes, high blood pressure, and Alzheimer's ailment. The prevalence of all of those diseases will increase exponentially with age.

The 4 primary antique age issues consist of:

physical troubles.Cognitive problems.Emotional troubles.Social troubles.

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Chronic stress, feelings of depression, and anxiety during pregnancy are associated with: Select one: A. low birth weight and premature birth. B. ventricle malformation. C. Down syndrome and autism. D. fetal teratogen syndrome.

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:

im not 100% sure the all have common symptom's.

Quarter 7 is the final course prior to taking your NCLEX license exam to legally practice the profession of nursing. As a nursing student you have been exposed to theory, clinical experiences, simulations, and skills. To prepare for licensing, what strategies will you employ to ensure a successful NCLEX outcome? Describe 3-4 strategies you will utilize to promote your success.

Answers

All nursing students must pass the National Council Licensure Examination, generally known as the NCLEX, in order to become qualified registered nurses in the United States.

Strategies to promote success: Examine the test strategy. Contrary to what we might believe, the test does not cover all we have learned or seen while in nursing school. Evaluate the knowledge. Concentrate the research on areas of weakness. Practice NCLEX-style questions. Relax mentally.Stress management is one strategy that will help me to prepare for taking the NCLEX exam.Take the exam preparation seriously, but don't limit your attention to studying. In the days, weeks, and months preceding the exam, maintain equilibrium in your life.

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Inflammation of a tendon that is manifested by pain on movement, swelling, possibly some warmth, and usually crepitus is referred to as:

Answers

Answer: Tendonitis

Explanation:

"Tendinitis is inflammation or irritation of a tendon" - Mayo Clinic

Tendonitis can occur around any of the tendons in your body; it is most common around the most frequently moved joints such as shoulders, elbows, wrists, knees, and heels. In minor cases tendonitis can be healed with rest and avoidance of the cause of injury however, severe cases might require surgery.

https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/tendinitis/symptoms-causes/syc-20378243

You have set up an appointment for an in-home sales presentation with Mrs. Fernandez, who expressed interest in the Medicare plans you represent. In preparation for the sales presentation, what must you do?

Answers

Sahahajaiwiwkwmenbenxicixkdndndndkdkdod

Answer:before conducting the presentation, obtain, and document having obtained her permission to visit.......

Explanation:

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20. Consider the following complex sentence:Mrs. Kelley reflected that, besides flying, one thing she had neglected and would like now to have done was to learn to swim. (John Hersey, Here to Stay, 18)a. Find the subordinating conjunction. Highlighlight that with a bright color.b. After the subordinating conjunction, the rest of the sentence is the dependent clause. Highlight from after the subordinating conjunction, to the end, with grey.c. The remainder of the sentence, that is not highlighted is the independent clause. Bold the subject and underline the main verb in the independent clause. Which of the following verbs is not conjugated like ouvrir?A. offrirB. choisirC. souffrirD. couvrir A 2-column table with 5 rows. Column 1 is labeled Number of chores, x with entries 2, 4, 6, 8, 10. Column 2 is labeled Days, y with entries 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. The table shows the number of days required to perform a given number of chores. The number of days varies directly with the number of chores. What is the constant of variation? 2 3 One-half One-third\ The conversion of 1 mol of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to 2 mol of pyruvate by the glycolytic pathway results in a net formation of: how would you say whats up to your friend in the hall 6. The volume of a water tank is 5 m 4 mx 2 m. If the tank is half-filled with water, calculate the pressure exerted at the bottom of the tank. f(x)=3x + 7. Find the inverse of f(x). Describe the general structure of a bone Musculoskeletal System Hello People How Long Will It Take For My Bloody Nail To Heal The Robinsons family drove for 4000 miles. This was thedistance the Jones family drove. How many miles did the Jonesfamily drive? Should Rosa seek medical care for Felix? Explain why or why not.What are some signs and symptoms Rosa should be looking for if she is concerned that her son may have been bitten by a tick infected with the Borrelia burgdorferi bacterium?What measures can be taken to prevent being bitten by infected ticks? A sample of gas has temperature of 372 K and pressure of 3.8 ATM. If the temperature is increased to 550 K, what is the new pressure? which statement is true about finding the midpoint between two points located on a horizontal or vertical line ? A . When finding the midpoint between two points on a vertical line, keep the y-coordinate and find the average of the x-coordinate B . When finding the midpoint between two points on vertical line, keep x-coordinate and find the average of the y-coordinates C . When finding the midpoint between two points on a horizontal line, the x-coordinate is always 0 and the y-coordinates are averaged D. When finding the midpoint between two points on a horizontal line , the y-coordinate is always zero and the x-coordinates are averaged if k = (49 - 125), then find the value of k +2 Why was the bacterio-phage an excellent choice for research to determine whether genes are made of DNA or proteins? which lines lead you to the conclusion that McBeth has decided to kill the king How does the archetype presented in the excerpt support the universal theme of a mother's instinct to protect her children? A company manufactures both mountain bikes and trail bikes. The cost of materials for a mountain bike is $40, and the cost of materials for a trail bike is $40. The cost of labor to manufacture a mountain bike is $90, and the cost of labor to manufacture a trail bike is $30. During a week in which the company has budgeted $1,600 for materials and $2,700 for labor, how many mountain bikes does the company plan to manufacture? why is it important to learn valid proportions 1. Which of the following are leaf characteristics that can be used to classify plants? (Choose all that apply)blade widthcolorvenationarrangement