A plan designed to support the client physically.
A nursing care plan specifies the type of nursing care that an individual/family/community may require. A nursing care plan's main goal is to facilitate standardised, evidence-based, and holistic care.
Care planning goals necessitate that the person have a clear understanding of their condition in order to have an open, honest, and realistic discussion about end-of-life care decisions. If the person's health changes, these objectives should be revisited.
Nursing care plans are typically divided into four columns: (1) nursing diagnoses, (2) desired outcomes and goals, (3) nursing interventions, and (4) evaluation.
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approximately how many vaccines and antiviral treatments are currently in development to reduce hospitalizations due to the sars-cov2 virus?
More than 80 vaccines and antiviral treatments are currently in development to reduce hospitalizations due to the sars-cov2 virus.
What vaccine means?A substance used to boost the immune system's defenses against illness. Most vaccines are given by needle injection, although some can also be taken by mouth or sprays in to nose. It's crucial that you and family children who are able to receive vaccinations are properly immunized to help safeguard them.
How do vaccines function?Immunity to just a disease is provided by vaccinations without the need for prior illness. They are created using the disease-causing germ's components or weakened, dead copies of the virus (called antigens). The proteins used in some vaccines are created through genetic engineering.
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the nurse is admitting a child who has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis to the pediatric unit. the nurse should implement which type of isolation?
the nurse is admitting a child who has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis to the pediatric unit.
bacterial meningitis is caused by one of three organisms, all of which may be transmitted through contact with respiratory droplets.
What is meningitis caused by bacteria? Meningitis is an infection of the meninges, which surround and shield the brain and spinal cord. The membranes swell and press against the spinal cord or brain when they get infected. There may be issues that are fatal. The symptoms of meningitis appear suddenly and get worse quickly.Bacterial meningitis is brought on by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and go to the brain and spinal cord. However, bacterial meningitis can also develop when bacteria enter the meninges directly. An ear or sinus infection, a skull fracture, or — very infrequently — some procedures could be the reason for this.
The full question was
the nurse is admitting a child who has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis to the pediatric unit. the nurse should implement which type of isolation?
a. standard or routine precautions
b. contact precautions
c. airborne precautions
d. droplet precautions
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which of the following is a recommended strategy to avoid excessive intake of arsenic? a. consume a variety of grains. b. consume only domestic grains. c. consume only domestic rice. d. avoid all gr
A recommended strategy to avoid excessive intake of arsenic is consuming a variety of grains.
By properly rinsing raw rice before cooking, using a ratio of 6 cups of water to 1 cup of rice, and draining the excess water afterward, you may be able to reduce your exposure to inorganic arsenic in any variety of rice. That is how rice is often prepared in Asia.
As it enables rice to keep more of its vitamins and other elements, the current method of cooking rice in water that is completely absorbed by the grains has been encouraged. However, studies have shown that rinsing and using additional water removes roughly 30% of the rice's inorganic arsenic level, even if you may lose some of the rice's nutritious value.
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a pregnant nurse in the radiation clinic is assigned care of four clients for the shift. which assigned client should the nurse decline?
Corticosteroids. A baby's lung development can be aided by corticosteroids. If your doctor thinks you're at an elevated risk of giving birth in the next one to seven days and you're between 23 and 34 weeks along, she'll probably advise corticosteroids.Corticosteroids. A baby's lung development can be aided by corticosteroids. If your doctor thinks you're at an elevated risk of giving birth in the next one to seven days and you're between 23 and 34 weeks along, she'll probably advise corticosteroids.
To which patient should the nursing assistant be entrusted?
Because a nursing assistant is trained to offer hygiene care and to care for clients under certain precautions, caring for a client who requires contact precautions is the most suitable assignment for one.
When a client is having intravenous therapy, who on the healthcare team is given the highest priority to administer drugs to the patient?
It is the registered nurse's responsibility to examine vital signs. To unlicensed nursing professionals, hygiene upkeep might be assigned (UNP). The registered nurse is responsible for giving intravenous medication.
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a patient receives an injection of 1.6 milligrams of a drug, and the amount remaining in the bloodstream t hours later is a(t)
1.6 milligrams of a medication are injected into the patient, and t hours later, the quantity still in the bloodstream is. A(t) = 1.6e−0.05t.
Which six medications are they?The six drug classifications. There are six basic categories of drugs based solely on their chemical composition: alcohol, opioids, benzodiazepines, cannabinoids, barbiturates, and hallucinogens.
What categories do medicine names fall under?The chemical name, the International Nonproprietary Name (INN), usually referred to as the approved or generic name, and the proprietary or brand name are the three main names that are used for pharmaceutical compounds. Narcotics, depressants, stimulants, hallucinogens, and marijuana are among the acceptable drug classes.
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while caring for a client with a chest tube, which nursing assessment would alert the nurse to a possible complication?
The patient will require a chest x-ray to determine whether the pneumothorax has resolved, the nurse can foresee.
This just alludes to the medical assessment and assistance given to a patient with medical problems.
But when a patient is undergoing a particular therapy, the nursing assistant also needs to be present to advise the nurses on what needs to be done to make sure nursing intervention is successful.
However, oxygen and the removal of air from the pleural space can be used to treat the majority of pneumothorax patients.
As a result, the nurse can anticipate that the patient will require a chest x-ray to verify that the pneumothorax has resolved.
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after vaccination for measles, a person will not become ill if exposed to the measles virus. the patient's ability to resist the measles virus is called
Your immune system produces antibodies that are protective against the attenuated vaccine virus after you receive the measles vaccination.
Because your body knows how to fight off the wild-type virus if you have received the measles vaccination and are later exposed to someone who has the disease, you are protected against contracting it. Yes. The measles was proclaimed eradicated from the United States in 2000. Because of its highly effective measles vaccine, robust childhood immunisation programme, and excellent public health system for identifying and addressing measles cases and outbreaks, the United States was able to eradicate the disease. Measles eradication, according to the CDC, is the absence of ongoing disease transmission for 12 months or longer in a particular geographic region. Measles no longer exists.
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the pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of cervical cells for cancerous cells. a new, rapid diagnostic test to detect human papilloma virus (hpv) dna before cancer develops is done without microscopic exam. the steps involved in this fasthpv test are listed below. what is the second step? group of answer choices add an rna probe for hpv dna. add enzyme-linked antibodies against dna-rna. lyse human cells. the order is unimportant. add enzyme substrate.
The are steps involved in this FastHPV test and the second step is to add an RNA probe for HPV DNA.
Long-lasting infection with bound varieties of human papillomavirus (HPV) is that the main reason for cervical cancer. HPV is a common virus that's passed from one person to a different throughout sex. a minimum of 1/2 sexually active individuals can have HPV at some purpose in their lives, however few ladies can get cervical cancer.
Human papilloma virus (HPV) is a tiny, non-enveloped desoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) virus that infects skin or tissue layer cells. The circular, double-stranded infective agent order is around 8-kb long.
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jillian is 3-months pregnant with her first child. before she became pregnant, her bmi was 33.4. based on this information, she has a high risk of developing
Gestational diabetes. As part of your prenatal care, your health care provider will screen you for gestational diabetes. If you acquire gestational diabetes, you may require more frequent examinations.
These are most likely to occur during the last three months of pregnancy, when your health care provider will monitor your blood sugar level and your baby's health. When diabetes is discovered for the first time while pregnant, it is called gestational diabetes (gestation).
Blood sugar control can protect both you and your unborn child's health and help you avoid a difficult birth. High blood sugar levels caused by gestational diabetes can jeopardize the health of both you and your unborn child. Gestational diabetes can be managed during pregnancy.
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis infects the lungs and can spread to other organs from the lungs. When an infected individual coughs, the bacteria can enter the air and infect nearby individuals. The mode of transmission for the M. tuberculosis pathogen is the ________ route. The portal of entry forM. tuberculosis is _______.
The nasal route is the transmission method for the pathogen Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The nose serves as M. tuberculosis' point of entrance.
M. tuberculosis spreads by airborne rather than surface-to-surface contact. When a person breathes droplet nuclei carrying M. tuberculosis, the droplet nuclei travel through the mouth, nose, upper respiratory tract, & bronchi to reach the lungs' alveoli. This is known as transmission.
The innate immune cell vacuoles of macrophages provide Mycobacterium TB with a moderately acidic and perhaps nutrient-restricted environment in which to develop. In aquatic and terrestrial habitats, other mycobacterial species are exposed to acidic conditions.
Although TB germs typically assault the lungs, they can also affect the kidney, spine, as well as brain. Not every person who contracts TB germs gets ill.
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which of the following is not a component of physical fitness? a. caloric restriction b. body composition c. flexibility d. muscular endurance
Caloric restriction of the following is not a component of physical fitness.
What is considered caloric restriction?Calorie restriction is the practice of limiting daily calorie intake on average without experiencing famine or nutrient deprivation. In a fasting strategy, a person severely restricts or skips all meals at specific times of day, week, even month. Studies generally indicate that skipping breakfast is equally effective at lowering weight and body fat as typical calorie restriction techniques.
Is calorie restriction beneficial?With dieting, food consumption is decreased without leading to malnutrition. Caloric burn has been linked to enhanced metabolism, increased longevity, and a delay in the start of age-related illnesses, according to animal research.
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the pharmacology instructor is discussing hormones with the nursing students. what hormone, important in the digestive process, is secreted by the gastrointestinal mucosa?
Gastrointestinal mucosa produces hormones that are important in the digestive process (i.e., gastrin, enterogastrone, secretin, and cholecystokinin).the pharmacology instructor is discussing hormones with the nursing students.
A peptide hormone called gastrin is largely in charge of promoting gastric mucosal development, gastric motility, and hydrochloric acid (HCl) production into the stomach. While elevated levels of gastrin may be indicative of pancreatic or duodenal cancers, other illnesses can also elevate gastrin levels. For instance, if you have undergone gastric surgery or your stomach isn't producing acid, your levels of gastrin may be greater. Gastrin levels might increase after using medications that lower acid. The main trigger for gastrin production is the presence of specific meals, particularly peptides, specific amino acids, and calcium in the stomach lumen.
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the nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric (ng) tube who has undergone open-approach surgery for gastric cancer. which finding is associated with acute gastric dilation?
The literature describes acute gastric dilatation as a result of eating disorders, trauma resuscitation, volvulus of hiatal hernias, drugs, electrolyte imbalances, psychogenic polyphagia, superior mesenteric artery syndrome, and a variety of other illnesses.
The following signs and symptoms of advanced stomach cancer may occur: There is blood in the feces. Vomiting. Weight loss for no discernible cause.
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy is the recommended diagnostic method for individuals with suspected stomach cancer. It is critical to accurately stage stomach wall invasion and lymph node involvement in order to determine prognosis and suitable therapy.
Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS) is a staging method that provides for greater accuracy. The transducer is positioned right adjacent to the stomach wall in EUS,
and high-frequency soundwaves are utilized to measure the depth of tumor invasion and detect local lymph node involvement, which can then be examined with a surgical biopsy.
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the laboratory report of a client who is taking psychotherapy medications indicates decreased bone density
Lithium is a psychotherapeutic drug which is responsible for client's laboratory report indicating decreased bone density. The correct option to this question is A.
Children's bone density or bone development may be affected by lithium, a medication that stabilizes mood. Extrapyramidal side effects of haloperidol are common. Tricyclic antidepressant amitriptyline is linked to anxiety, restlessness, hypertension, and gastrointestinal distress. Extrapyramidal and anticholinergic adverse effects of phenothiazine include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention.
Lithium appears to encourage the development of bone in experiments on animals, which suggests that it may provide some protection against osteoporosis.
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Complete question : : The laboratory report of a pediatric client who is taking psychotherapeutic drugs indicates decreased bone density. Which drug might be responsible for this condition?
A) Lithium
B) Haloperidol
C) Amitriptyline
D) Phenothiazine
2yo in significant respiratory distress. breathing shallow 44. rapid pulse. cyanosis in lips and extremities. immediate priority for patient
More oxygen (extra oxygen) persistent positive airway pressure (CPAP). a mechanical breathing device that continuously pushes air or oxygen into the airways to maintain the airways in the lungs' tiny air passageways open.
What should be handled with lower airway blockage first?Emergency Preparedness. Making ensuring the airway is adequate is the top priority in any situation involving respiratory distress. Most asthmatic children who present will be in some degree of distress, but most may be treated without the need for intubation. A thorough physical examination and a concise medical history are necessary.
How should a young infant with respiratory distress be positioned?Background. Young newborns should be positioned on their backs due to the relationship between prone placement and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
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the nurse in charge of a rehabilitation center is planning the client assignments for the day. which client should the nurse assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap)?
The nurse should assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) a client who requires frequent ambulation.
Unlicensed individuals who get training to assist licensed nurses in providing patient/client care are known as unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are not permitted to perform the following tasks:
Assessment,
Planning,
Evaluation, and
Nursing judgment.
A registered nurse is capable of delegating the following tasks:
making unoccupied beds,
supervising patient ambulation or positioning,
assisting with hygiene, and
feeding meals.
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a hospitalized patient is on gentamicin iv, with the next dose scheduled for 9am on wednesday. the health care provider has also ordered a peak and trough study. when would you draw blood for the peak gentamicin blood level?
The next dose of gentamicin IV for a patient in the hospital is scheduled for Wednesday morning at 9 am. A peak and trough research was also mandated by the healthcare professional. At 10 a.m., 60 minutes after the IV, blood will be taken to determine the peak gentamicin blood level.
Injections of gentamicin are used to treat severe bacterial infections in many different parts of the body. Antibiotics classified as aminoglycosides include gentamicin in their group of drugs.Bacteria are eliminated or have their growth stopped as a result of it.
A drip set tubing or a vein should receive gentamicin intravenously over a minimum three-minute time. If given intravenously, the infusion should last no more than 20 minutes and use no more than 100 cc of fluid.
Usually, gentamicin IV is slowly administered intravenously once every 6 or 8 hours for a duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours.
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a client has been diagnosed with functional incontinence. which interventions are most appropriate to care for this type of incontinence? select all that apply.
A client has been diagnosed with functional incontinence. 1. Schedule toileting every 2 hours, interventions are most appropriate to care for this type of incontinence.
1. Schedule toileting every 2 hours.
2. Set up schedule of cues such as mealtimes, awakening, and bedtime.
3. Offer a toileting schedule, including reminders, alarms, or prompts.
4. Encourage the use of assistive devices, such as hand-held urinals or bedpans.
5. Encourage the use of toilet-sitting devices, such as raised toilet seats or toilet frames.
6. Encourage the use of continence products, such as pads or incontinence briefs.
7. Provide education on healthy bowel and bladder habits, such as the importance of proper hydration and avoiding constipation.
8. Encourage the use of pelvic floor muscle exercises to improve bladder and bowel control.
9. Consider the use of medications or other medical interventions, as appropriate, to manage incontinence.
10. Refer the individual to a continence nurse, physical therapist, or other healthcare professional for further evaluation and management.
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A client has been diagnosed with functional incontinence. which interventions are most appropriate to care for this type of incontinence? select all that apply.
1. Schedule toileting every 2 hours.
2. Modify clothing for easy removal.
3. Assess environment for obstacles.
4. Set up schedule of cues such as mealtimes, awakening, and bedtime.
a woman is hospitalized with hyperemesis gravidarum. which other member of the health-care team should the nurse ensure is involved in this clients care as a priority?
a woman is hospitalized with hyperemesis gravidarum. Registered dietician for food suggestion is the other member of the health-care team should the nurse ensure is involved in this clients care as a priority.
For a woman with hyperemesis gravidarum, small, frequent meals are advised in order to prevent nausea and vomiting. Limiting fluid intake and eating food bland carbs may help to calm the stomach health. The pregnant lady may benefit from IV treatment to replenish fluids lost via severe food vomiting. it is thought to be health brought on by a hormone called human chorionic gonadotropin, which is growing in blood levels quickly (HCG). The placenta releases hormone HCG. Morning sickness is frequently mild. Pregnancy-related hyperemesis gravidarum is more severe and less frequent.
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the doctor prescribed 100 mg, available is 1,000 mcg/0.5 ml. how many ml should be administered to the patient?
The patient should be given 50 ml of the 100 mg that the doctor ordered(prescribed) because it is available as 1,000 mcg/0.5 ml in
Drug preparations.
Drug preparations are pharmaceutical products that come in certain forms and are used as either internal or external medications. They comprise one or more active ingredients in a carrier.
The three types of pharmacological dosage forms—liquid (true solutions, suspensions, and emulsions), semisolid (creams, lotions, ointments, gels, and suppositories), and solid—can be categorised according to the substance form.
when a doctor orders syrup with 100 mg. It contains 1,000 mcg/0.5 cc of syrup.
So how do you compute it?
1 mcg = 0.001 mg
1000 mcg Equals 1 mg
(100mg/1mg) times 0.5ml equals 50ml.
Therefore, 50 cc of the medicinal mixture must be administered to patients.
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what are the leading causes of overweight and obesity? a. excess energy intake and lack of primary health care. b. genetics and excess energy intake. c. excess energy intake and decreased activity. d. impact of advertising and genetics. e. lack of primary health care and impact of advertising.
Overeating and inactivity are the primary causes of overweight and obesity.
What is the main cause of obesity?
The two main causes of obesity are overeating and a lack of exercise. Your body will store a large portion of the extra calories you consume, particularly fat and sugar, as fat if you don't burn them off through exercise and other physical activity.
Which are the main three causes of obesity?
Obesity affects both children and adults. A few of the many factors that could cause excessive weight gain include eating patterns, physical activity levels, and sleeping patterns. Involved factors also include certain medications, genetics, and societal determinants of health.
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the nurse knows that phosphates should be given only when hypercalcemia is accompanied by hypophosphatemia. hypophosphatemia is assumed when the serum phosphorus is less than what level?
Hypophosphatemia is assumed when the serum phosphorus is less than 2.5 mg/dL.
What is meant by hypophosphatemia?
To reduce the risk of soft tissue calcification, phosphates should only be used when hypercalcemia is accompanied by hypophosphatemia (serum phosphorus less than 3 mg/dL) and renal function is normal.
Low levels of phosphorus in the blood are known as hypophosphatemia. Low levels can result in a variety of health problems, including as comas, seizures, respiratory or cardiac failure, and muscle weakness. Hypophosphatemia is always the result of another underlying condition, such as an alcohol use problem, burns, malnutrition, or the use of diuretics.
Muscle weakness, heart failure, and respiratory failure are among the clinical signs; coma and convulsions are also possible. Serum phosphate concentration is used for diagnosis.
Treatment for mild to moderate hypophosphatemia typically involves oral phosphate replacement therapy (pills taken by mouth). To lower your phosphate levels, they might also suggest a diet rich in phosphorus. If hypophosphatemia is severe, phosphate replacement is given intravenously.
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what food would most likely be suggested for a patient who is experiencing wasting and malnutrition
The food that would be suggested for a patient who is experiencing waste and malnutrition would be iron and protein-rich foods such as leafy green vegetables, eggs, dates, and cheese.
There are a lot of patients, especially people living below the poverty line, who do not get the minimum amount of their daily calories. As a result, these people suffer from malnutrition which creates a bad effect on their health. With the intake of proper iron-rich foods such as spinach which has lots of iron, then eggs especially the yolk portion, and dates which have a lot of iron, the iron content can be increased in the body.
Also, protein-rich foods are required for the proper sustenance of the body. Protein-rich foods include cheese and paneer. Paneer is usually loved by elderly people.
So including paneer in the regular diet along with cooked rice would improve the health of the patient gradually.
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which adverse response would a nurse assess for when carbidopa-levodop is prescribed for a client with parkison disease
The most frequent side effect of carbidopa/levodopa is dyskinesia, which may necessitate lowering the dosage.
Patients should be advised to plan their meal times around their medication times in order to improve their ability to use their utensils and prevent diets high in protein due to decreased medication absorption.
Hallucinations and behaviors like psychosis have been reported when dopaminergic medications are used. Patients using dopaminergic medications may have strong cravings that they are unable to control, such as the desire to gamble, engage in greater sexual activity, spend money, binge eat, or have other intense urges. These cravings vanished when the medication's dosage was reduced or eliminated.
The risk of melanoma has been found to be higher. There may occasionally be a dark red, brown, or black tint in the saliva, urine, or perspiration when taking carbidopa and levodopa together. Even when the color seems clinically inconsequential, clothing might discolor.
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the medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament.
The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the medial (tibial) collateral ligament.
From the inner surface of the upper shin bone to the inner exterior of the lower thigh bone, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) extends. Your tibia, or shin bone, is stabilized by this ligament. Usually, stress or pressure on the outside of the knee results in MCL damage.
Elevating the knee, resting, and applying ice. Taking pain- and inflammation-relieving oral medicines like aspirin and ibuprofen. Wearing a brace that limits side-to-side motion while allowing the knee to bend.
Knee swelling is a common sign of medial collateral ligament damage. catching or locking of the knee during motion. Along the interior of the joint, there is pain and tenderness.
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the nurse is seeing a client who has been prescribed saquinavir for treatment of hiv/aids. what would be important to teach the client about this drug?
HIV/AIDS patients taking saquinavir (Invirase) should do so within two hours of a high-calorie, high-fat meal.
What is saquinavir?
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is treated with saquinavir in addition to ritonavir and other antiviral medications. It functions by lowering the blood's HIV concentration. Despite the fact that it does not treat HIV, saquinavir may lower your risk of getting AIDS and other HIV-related diseases including serious infections or cancer.
Saquinavir is available as an oral tablet and capsule. Ritonavir (Norvir) is often taken with it twice day, within two hours after a full meal. Saquinavir may be simpler to remember to take if you take it with food.
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the registered nurse develops a care plan for a patient with a c5 vertebral fracture who has developed symptoms of spinal shock. which is the priority intervention in the care plan?
Maintain a patent airway a care plan for a patient with a c5 vertebral fracture who has developed symptoms of spinal shock, is the priority intervention in the care plan.
Physical and occupational therapy are two types of spinal shock treatment that both aim to improve mobility. While OT adjusts activities of daily life to restore patients vertebral fracture , PT concentrates on exercise therapy. Your biceps and deltoid muscles in your shoulders are both vertebral fracture under the control of cervical nerve 5. Your upper arm's top portion, from the shoulder to the vertebral fracture , is sensory thanks to C5. Your spinal shock muscles and your biceps are both under the control of cervical nerve 5.
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if you have moved to a new town and want to find a physician you can see for annual wellness exams and the treatment of routine ailments, you are seeking a(n)
if you have moved to a new town and want to find a physician you can see for annual wellness exams and the treatment of routine ailments, you are seeking a(n) primary care practitioner.
The primary care practitioner offers general medical care and is in charge of overall care, including medical specialist coordination and supportive care. Some insurance policies require members to choose a primary care physician.
A primary care physician (PCP) is a doctor who is the first point of contact for someone who has an undiagnosed health problem and who also provides ongoing care for a variety of medical conditions that are not restricted by reason, organ system, or diagnosis. The term is most commonly used in the United States. In the past, the equivalent term in the United States was 'general practitioner,' but the term is still used in the United Kingdom and other countries.
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Complete question :
If you have moved to a new town and want to find a physician you can see for annual wellness exams and the treatment of routine ailments, you are seeking a(n)
internal medicine practitioner.
primary care practitioner.
allopathic practitioner.
in-network practitioner.
fetal distress is occurring with a laboring client. as the nurse prepares the client for a cesarean birth, what is the most important nursing action?
A client who is laboring is experiencing fetal discomfort. The most crucial nursing intervention is to administer oxygen using a face mask.
Fetal distress: What is it?Fetal distress is an indication that there's something wrong with your baby. When the placenta is not providing the baby with enough oxygen, it occurs. While fetal discomfort can occasionally occur throughout pregnancy, it mostly occurs during labor.
Can anxiety affect a fetal?Growing research shows that even milder kinds of mother anxiety and stress during pregnancy have an impact on the baby, possibly having long-term effects on newborn and child development. Fetal discomfort can result in birth damage or even death if it is not managed. However, a doctor can identify the early indicators of fetal distress if they are identified and evaluated.
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the nurse is flushing the implanted port of a client's central venous access device (cvad) and meets resistance. the nurse verifies that the clamp is open, pushes down on the needle, and, after attempting another flush, meets continued resistance. what should the nurse do next?
When a nurse is flushing the implanted port of a client's central venous access device (cvad) and meets resistance. the nurse verifies that the clamp is open, pushes down on the needle, and, after attempting another flush, meets continued resistance then the nurse should ask the client to perform a Valsalva maneuver
What is a Valsalva Maneuver?In medicine, a Valsalva maneuver is a process which is intended to free up a blocked air way. This is described the act of using force to exhale against a closed airway, usually done by closing one's mouth and pinching one's nose shut while expelling air out as if blowing up a balloon.
Steps for carrying out a Valsalva Maneuver includes the following
Pinch your nose closed.Close your mouth.Forcefully exhale.Bear down, similar to having a bowel movement.Hold this for 10 to 15 seconds.Therefore, when a nurse is flushing the implanted port of a client's central venous access device (cvad) and meets resistance, and the nurse verifies that the clamp is open, pushes down on the needle, and, after attempting another flush, meets continued resistance, the nurse should ask the patient to carry out a Valsalva maneuver.
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