filtration by glomerulus is the process which does not influence the pH of the blood and extracellular fluids in human body. it is associated with kidney.
The process of generating urine starts with glomerular filtration. It is the procedure your kidneys utilize to filter extra fluid and waste from your blood into the kidney's urine-collecting tubules, allowing your body to discard them. Each nephron receives blood through a glomerulus, which is a collection of small blood arteries. Smaller molecules, wastes, and fluid—mostly water—can enter the tubule through the glomerulus' thin walls. Larger molecules like blood cells and proteins stay inside the blood vessel. Fenestrated endothelial cells, glomerular basement membrane, and podocytes are three distinct layers of the glomerular filtration barrier.
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which of the following are abiotic components of an ecosystem select all that apply wind speed humidity biodiversity microbes
Abiotic elements of an ecosystem include wind speed and humidity. Soil, water, the atmosphere, light, humidity, temperature, and pH are examples of abiotic components.
Biotic components, on the other hand, are living things that are categorized as producers, consumers (primary consumers, secondary consumers, tertiary consumers, and decomposers), and decomposers. An ecosystem is a region where a bubble of life is created by plants, animals, and other species interacting with the weather, environment, and other factors. Although linked, ecosystem services and functions are distinct. Ecosystem services are the advantages that people get from ecosystem functions, which are processes that occur within an ecosystem. Water is known to have been the source of all life on earth. Life cannot exist without water.
complete question:
Which of the following are abiotic components of an ecosystem? Select all that apply a. wind speed b. humidity c. biodiversity d. microbes
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if a dietary change results in an increase in blood calcium concentration above normal levels, which of the following is the most likely effect on calcium homeostasis?
If a dietary change results in an increase in blood calcium concentration above normal levels, calcitonin levels will rise, thus promoting the deposit of calcium into bones.
Which of the following impacts calcium homeostasis most likely?
The absorption of ingested calcium from the intestine is the most frequent disruption of calcium homeostasis in mammals, as it is in all tetrapod's. Although vitamin D-dependent absorption mechanisms regulate how quickly this happens, there is still a chance that high plasma calcium levels could result.
How is homeostasis impacted by hypercalcemia?
Lethargy, sluggish reflexes, constipation, loss of appetite, confusion, and coma can all be symptoms of hypercalcemia. PTH, vitamin D, calcitonin, and the interconnections of the skeletal, endocrine, digestive, and urinary systems regulate calcium homeostasis.
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If a dietary change results in an increase in blood calcium concentration above normal levels, calcitonin levels will rise, thus promoting the deposit of calcium into bones.
Which of the following impacts calcium homeostasis most likely?The absorption of ingested calcium from the intestine is the most frequent disruption of calcium homeostasis in mammals, as it is in all tetrapod's. Although vitamin D-dependent absorption mechanisms regulate how quickly this happens, there is still a chance that high plasma calcium levels could result.
How is homeostasis impacted by hypercalcemia?Lethargy, sluggish reflexes, constipation, loss of appetite, confusion, and coma can all be symptoms of hypercalcemia. PTH, vitamin D, calcitonin, and the interconnections of the skeletal, endocrine, digestive, and urinary systems regulate calcium homeostasis.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. some prey species use to scare off predators by puffing up (blowfish), spreading their wings (peacocks), or mimicking a predator.
Some prey species use to scare off predators by puffing up (blowfish), spreading their wings (peacocks), or mimicking a predator Behavioral strategies are the solution.
Predators include weasels, hawks, wolves, mountain lions, and grizzly bears. Because they are carnivores, predators only eat meat. Some predators, like coyotes and bears, are also scavengers, which means they will consume the remains of creatures they haven't personally hunted.
Various Predators
Carnivores Herbivores are their prey, while carnivorous predators kill and devour them. These include creatures that eat plants and plant products, such as cows, buffaloes, goats, sheep, and deer.
Parasites
Small Predators and Large Predators
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Zoe has cystic fibrosis. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
a. Zoe probably inherited one faulty allele from her father, who is a carrier, and one normal allele from her mother.
b. Zoe probably inherited one faulty allele from her mother, who must also have cystic fibrosis, and one normal allele from her father.
c. Zoe must have inherited faulty alleles from both parents, both of whom must also have cystic fibrosis.
d. Zoe must have inherited faulty alleles from both parents, both of whom are carriers.
Zoe must have inherited faulty alleles from both parents, both of whom are carriers is the correct answer.
Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance. The CFTR gene is two copies, one from each parent. A nonworking copy of the CFTR must be passed from both parents to their cystic fibrosis child. Those who have one working copy and one nonworking copy of the CFTR gene(allele) are cystic fibrosis carriers but do not actually have the disease. There is a 1 in 4 probability that a child born to two carriers will have cystic fibrosis.The lungs, digestive system, and other body organs are severely harmed by cystic fibrosis (CF), a genetic condition. The cells that make mucus, perspiration, and digestive fluids are impacted by cystic fibrosis.To know more about cystic fibrosis check the below link:
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1. to calculate the frequency of the brown allele, count the number of blank and divide by the total number of alleles in this population.target 1 of 5 2. in this beetle population, the number of brown alleles is blank.target 2 of 5 3. in this beetle population, the total number of alleles for color is blank.target 3 of 5 4. the frequency of the brown allele in this beetle population is blank.target 4 of 5 5. the frequency of the green allele in this beetle population is blank.target 5 of 5
To calculate frequency of the brown allele, count the number of brown alleles and divide by total number of alleles in this population.
Allele frequency is decided by counting how typically the allele seems inside the population and then dividing by the full variety of copies of the gene.
Gene frequency can be defined as the fraction or percentage of a population that contains an allele at a selected locus (Gillespie 2004). It is also extra accurately known as allele frequency.
Relative genotype frequency and relative allele frequency are the most essential measures of genetic variation. Relative genotype frequency is proportion of individuals in the populace that has a specific genotype.
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for sneaky snakes, being rude (r) is dominant to being respectful (r). complete the cross below, and determine the phenotype (dominant : recessive) ratio.
For sneaky snakes, being rude (r) is dominant to being respectful (r). complete the cross below, and determine the phenotype (dominant : recessive) ratio RRSS
According to the question, the female snake will have genotype rrss while the male snake will have genotype RRSS. The genetic combination "RS" will be present in the four identical gametes that the male snake produces, whereas the genetic combination "rs" will be present in the four identical gametes that the female snake produces.
The genotypes of their offspring are displayed in the connected cross. According to the genotype "RrSs," which merely says, all of their offspring will be heterozygous dominant and, as a result, phenotypically harsh and cunning. The "Punnett square diagram" makes it clear that all of their progeny will have this genotype. Additionally, it eliminates the possibility of producing children that carry the rrss gene, which may make them trustworthy and receptive.
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one of three actions happen to neurotransmitters when they are released into the synapse: 1. some are chemically destroyed by enzymes found in extracellular fluid, 2. [ ], or 3.[ ].
The signaling of a neuron, however, is far more fascinating when we take into account its interconnections with other neurons—no pun intended! In order to analyse incoming information and carry out a reaction, circuits are formed when individual neurons link to target neurons and either stimulate or inhibit their activity.
Release of chemical messengers known as neurotransmitters is a necessary part of chemical transmission. Information is sent from the pre-synaptic—sending—neuron to the post-synaptic—receiving—cell through neurotransmitters.
Multiple branches on a single axon enable it to form connections with various postsynaptic cells. Similar to this, numerous presynaptic—sending—neurons can deliver thousands of synaptic inputs to a single neuron.
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these senses will not cross between brain hemispheres in someone who has had a corpus callosotomy (split-brain procedure):
A corpus callosotomy (split-brain procedure) effectively disconnects the two brain hemispheres from each other, preventing seizures from spreading from one side of the brain to the other. As a result, these senses will not cross between brain hemispheres in someone who has had a corpus callosotomy.
A corpus callosotomy effectively disconnects the two brain hemispheres from each other, preventing seizures from spreading from one side of the brain to the other. As a result, these senses will not cross between brain hemispheres in someone who has had a corpus callosotomy.The senses of hearing and vision are the most affected by a split-brain procedure.
Since the two hemispheres process sensory information differently, the person will be unable to process visual and auditory information from one side of the brain to the other. For example, someone who has had a corpus callosotomy may not be able to see objects on the right side of their vision when looking to the left, or may not be able to hear sounds coming from their right ear when their left ear is open.
Additionally, they may be unable to recognize objects or people on the opposite side of the brain, or may not be able to match sounds or objects with the correct side of their body.
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Explain in details, the difference between budding and cutting
BUDDING -
Budding is the process of creating a new individual from buds.It is an asexual form of reproduction.It entails the development of a new offspring from the expansion of the parent's body.It is commonly observed in several animals, fungi, and plants, including yeast and hydra.CUTTING -
Cuttings can be define as a portion of stem, root, or leaf cuttings in this vegetative growth method. Cuttings are the removed organ tissue from the parent.In the cutting process, a portion of stem is cut so that it has at least one node.Nodes are the places where new stems or leaves emerge.In the end, the bit of stem that was removed will gradually become a new plant.To know more about asexual reproduction click here
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Cutting is a technique in which the stem, leaf, etc. part is cut and grown into a new plant whereas in budding technique a bud of one plant is inserted into another plant.
Both budding and cutting are two different significant processes used for the production of new plants. This type of plant breeding refers to vegetative-propagation. This is a type of asexual reproduction in plants and it has several benefits, both biological and genetic.
In budding, small buds are collected from one plant and it is grown on another plant. Simply the plant is produced by a bud. Detached living portion of a plant is a bud and a bud is inserted into the another plant from one plant.Budding is a grafting technique and it requires less time.There are many methods by which the process of budding can be done, it includes: T and I method of budding, patch budding, forkert budding, ring budding, etc.The most of the budding is done during the early spring season or during the growing season of the stock.Examples include: growing fruits, nut tress and ornamental trees, peach, apple, plums, etc.In cutting, there is only one plant that is involved in cutting. It is a very simple process. In this process, a portion of the stem, root, or leaf is used to create or produce a new plant. In this technique there is no difference in a new plant and a parent plant.Many fruits and vegetables can be propagated via stem cutting or root cutting.The cutting part is grown into a growth medium such as moist soil.Examples: roses, cactus, sugarcane are propagated by stem cutting and Lemon, tamarind, and other citrus fruits are propagated via root cuttings.To learn more about budding and cutting,
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choose the description of a condition where a positive regulator activates citrate synthase. low [atp/adp] ratio. adp is an allosteric activator of citrate synthase. high [atp/adp] ratio. high atp substrate levels favor product formation. high [nadh/nad ][nadh/nad ] ratio. nadhnadh is a positive allosteric activator. high [citrate]. citrate is a positive allosteric activator.
Its substrates, acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate, may be the most important regulators of the citrate synthase process. Both are present in the mitochondria in amounts that are below citrate synthase saturating levels.
What causes citrate synthase to be activated and inhibited?In the first step of the cycle, when acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetic acid combine to form citrate, citrate synthase controls the rate of the reaction. High levels of ATP, acetyl-CoA, and NADH block it, which suggests that there is already a significant amount of energy available.
That which controls citrate synthase is an allosteric chemical.Succinyl-CoA, a later step in the cycle, NADH, ATP, or long-chain fatty acyl-CoA can all act as citrate synthase's negative allosteric modulators, depending on the kind of cell.
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1)A homozygous tomato plant with red fruit and yellow flowers was crossed with a homozygous tomato plant with golden fruit and white flowers. The F1 all had red fruit and yellow flowers. The F1 were testcrossed by crossing them to homozygous recessive individuals, and the following offspring were obtained:
Red fruit and yellow flowers41
Red fruit and white flowers7
Golden fruit and yellow flowers8
Golden fruit and white flowers44
How many map units separate these genes?
A)17.6
B)17.1
C)15
D)18.1
2)Which of the following, if damaged, would most directly hinder RNA polymerase from attaching to the beginning of a gene?
A)introns
B)exons
C)UTR's (untranslated regions)
D)snRNA
E)promoter region
A purebred tomato plant with red fruit and yellow flowers was crossed with a purebred tomato plant with golden fruit and white flowers, and the map distance is 15, which is in option C. If the promoter region is damaged, RNA polymerase can't bind, which is in option E.
What is the map distance?The map distance indicates the distance between two genes that are present on the chromosomes, and when the map distance becomes more than 50%, it indicates the two genes are present on different chromosomes. Here, the red fruit and white flowers and the golden fruit and yellow flowers are recombinants, while the other two are wild types.
Hence, the map distance is 15, which is in option C, and if the promoter region is damaged, RNA polymerase can't bind, which is in option E.
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if, however, it possesses two recessive alleles, the term homozygous_____can be used to describe its genotype, and it will exhibit a recessive phenotype.
This happens as a result of the fact that some alleles are more dominant than others, which means that their phenotype will cover up the phenotypic brought on by the recessive alleles.
The dominant allele will be exclusively expressed, as opposed to both alleles contributing to a trait. Although latent, the recessive allele will be A heterozygous genotype is one in which an organism possesses both a dominant and a recessive allele. This genotype is designated as Bb in our example. Finally, homozygous recessive refers to the genotype of an organism with two recessive alleles. This genotype is denoted as bb in the example of the eye color. two identical alleles present at a specific gene location. Two normal alleles or two alleles with the same variation can both be present in a homozygous genotype.
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When phage nucleic acid is incorporated into the nucleic acid of its host cell and is replicated when the host DNA is replicated, this is considered part of which cycle?
When phage nucleic acid is incorporated into the nucleic acid of its host cell and is replicated when the host DNA is replicated, this is considered part of the Lytic cycle.
A variety of different cycles that bacteriophages may employ in order to infect their bacterial hosts:
The lytic cycle: After infecting a bacterium, the phage hijacks the bacterium to produce numerous phages before extinguishing the cell (lyse) to kill it.
The lytic cycle: One of the two cycles of viral reproduction is called lysogeny, and the other is called the lytic cycle. Lysogeny is described by the integration of the bacteriophage nucleic corrosive into the host bacterium's genome or the development of a roundabout replicon in the bacterial cytoplasm.
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10. you can determine the possible sequence of mrna from a dna strand. first lets practice what the complementary strand of dna would be from this sequence: (remember a-t, g-c, the first few were done for you) a. atg-ctt-cga-tga-tcc-ccc-aaa tac-gaa-gct- - - -
The DNA sequence is 3' T C G T T C A G T 5' and the mRNA sequence will be 5' AG C A A G U C A 3'.
There are a number of widely used methods to detect and determine the abundance of specific mRNAs in total RNA or poly RNA samples. Here, we review four common methods: Northern blot analysis, nuclease protection assay in situ hybridization, and reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction.
During transcription, the DNA of a gene serves as a template for complementary base-pairing, and an enzyme called RNA polymerase II catalyzes the formation of pre-mRNA molecules, which are then processed into mature mRNA. RNA polymerase reads the code in the 3'-5' direction from the template strand and produces the mRNA strand in the 5'-3' direction.
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Which of the following is a molecule that combines with an enzyme to activate it and help it do its job? a) a transport protein b) collagen c) a coenzyme d) a prion
The molecule that combines with an enzyme to activate it and help it to do its job is called a coenzyme. So option c. is correct.
Coenzymes are organic compounds required by many enzymes for catalytic activity. They are often vitamins or derivatives of vitamins. Sometimes they can act as catalysts in the absence of enzymes, but not so effectively as in conjunction with an enzyme. As with metal-enzyme linkages, there is a range of bond strengths for coenzymeenzyme links, the point of distinction between tightly-bound cofactor and loosely-bound cofactor being arbitrary.
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select the true statements about the citric acid cycle. two molecules of coenzyme a are produced per turn of the citric acid cycle. the citric acid cycle is an aerobic process. the citric acid cycle occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. the major reactants in the citric acid cycle are acetyl coa, nad nad , gdpgdp , and fadfad . in the citric acid cycle, acetyl-coa is degraded to produce nadhnadh and fadh2fadh2 .
The correct statement about the citric acid cycle are:
Two molecules of coenzyme A are produced per turn of the citric acid cycle. The major reactants in the citric acid cycle are acetyl CoA, NAD^+, GDP, and FAD.In the citric acid cycle, acetyl-CoA is degraded to produce NADH and FADH2.The citric acid cycle is an important metabolic pathway that connects carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism. The reactions of the cycle are carried out by eight enzymes, which completely oxidize acetate (a two carbon molecule) in the form of acetyl-CoA into two molecules of CO2 and water.
The citric acid cycle provides the electrons that power the oxidative phosphorylation process, which is our primary source of ATP and energy. As the acetyl group degrades, electrons are stored in the carrier NADH and delivered to Complex I.
The process by which electron transport from the citric acid cycle's energy precursors leads to the phosphorylation of ADP, resulting in the production of ATP, is known as oxidative phosphorylation.
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pick the correct match. no cell wall, only plasma membrane: no large vacuole, only small ones: no chlorophyll or chloroplasts: cell plate and no centrioles in cell division: cleavage furrow plus centrioles in cell division: presence of cell wall plus plasma membrane: large hypertonic vacuole: chloroplasts:
Cell walls and plasma membranes are integral components of a cell’s structure and function. The cell wall is a rigid layer of non-living material that surrounds the cell membrane and gives the cell shape and protection. The plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer that controls the passage of substances in and out of the cell, as well as providing structure.
Vacuoles are membrane-bound organelles that store materials such as proteins, carbohydrates, ions, and metabolic wastes. Vacuoles can range in size from tiny organelles known as microvacuoles to large vacuoles, such as the central vacuole of a plant cell, which can take up to 90% of the cell’s volume.
Chlorophyll is the photosynthetic pigment found in chloroplasts, the organelles that produce energy for the cell. Chloroplasts contain a number of other pigments and enzymes needed for photosynthesis, and are found only in photosynthetic organisms, such as plants and algae.
Cell division is the process by which a cell divides into two new daughter cells. During the process of cell division, a variety of organelles and structures, including cell plates and centrioles, play a role in dividing the genetic material of a cell. In cleavage furrow plus centriole cell division, centrioles are involved in forming the cleavage furrow that divides the cell into two new cells. In contrast, in cell plate plus no centriole cell division, a cell plate is formed that separates the two new cells, but centrioles are not involved.
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Answer:
Cell walls and plasma membranes are integral components of a cell’s structure and function. The cell wall is a rigid layer of non-living material that surrounds the cell membrane and gives the cell shape and protection. The plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer that controls the passage of substances in and out of the cell, as well as providing structure. Vacuoles are membrane-bound organelles that store materials such as proteins, carbohydrates, ions, and metabolic wastes. Vacuoles can range in size from tiny organelles known as microvacuoles to large vacuoles, such as the central vacuole of a plant cell, which can take up to 90% of the cell’s volume. Chlorophyll is the photosynthetic pigment found in chloroplasts, the organelles that produce energy for the cell. Chloroplasts contain a number of other pigments and enzymes needed for photosynthesis, and are found only in photosynthetic organisms, such as plants and algae.Cell division is the process by which a cell divides into two new daughter cells. During the process of cell division, a variety of organelles and structures, including cell plates and centrioles, play a role in dividing the genetic material of a cell. In cleavage furrow plus centriole cell division, centrioles are involved in forming the cleavage furrow that divides the cell into two new cells. In contrast, in cell plate plus no centriole cell division, a cell plate is formed that separates the two new cells, but centrioles are not involved.
Explanation:
match the functional property of muscle tissue with its description.1. contractility (click to select)2. excitability (click to select)3. extensibility (click to select)4. elasticity (click to select)
The functional property of muscle tissue with its description are
1. Contractility- A muscle shortens forcefully.
2. Excitability- A muscle responds to a stimulus.
3. Extensibility- A muscle can stretch beyond its normal resting length and still contract
4. Elasticity- A muscle recoils to its original resting length after having been stretched.
The dense central layer of the core is made up of cardiac muscle tissue. It is one of the three types of muscles in the body, the other two being skeletal and sleek. A thin outer layer called the epicardium (also known as the visceral pericardium) and an inner endocardium surround the heart muscle. Numerous connective tissue sheaths cover thousands of muscle fibers that make up each skeletal muscle. Fasciculi are the distinct clusters of muscular fibers that make up a muscle.
Smooth muscle has a non-striated pattern because it is made up of thick and thin filaments that are not grouped into sarcomeres. Microscopically, it will appear to be consistent. An excessive amount of globulin and simple protein can be found in the protoplasm of sleek muscle.
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according to the standard curve above, what is the approximate concentration of a solution whose absorbance at 635nm is 0.60?
The basic idea is to use a graph plotting Absorbance vs. Concentration of known solutions. Once you have that you can compare the absorbance value of an unknown sample to figure out its concentration.
You will compute the concentration using Beer's law.
Beer's law is expressed as A = mCl.
(A = absorption, m = molar extinction coefficient, C = concentration, and l = 1 cm path length)
You ought to have the data set that was employed to build the standard curve. Concentration (an independent variable) should be shown on the x-axis of the graph, and absorption (a dependent variable) should be shown on the y-axis.
You must choose the equation for the line and add a line of best fit to the data points. The formula for the equation should be y=mx + b.
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Most people have observed it "rain" in the produce department of grocery stores, where water spra
green leafy vegetables from a misting system. How does this practice help to keep vegetables fresh
crisp?
A:Extra water creates a hypertonic solution around plant cells, which causes water to diffuse
the cell plasmolysing the cells.
B:Extra water creates a hypotonic solution around plant cells, which causes water to diffuse
the cell creating turgor pressure.
C: Extra water makes plants shiny, increasing the likelihood that consumers will purchase the
plants.
D:Extra water creates an isotonic solution around plant cells, which causes water to diffuse i
and out of the plant cells making them flaccid.
immunity occurs when the person is exposed to a____pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune as a result of the ____ immune response.
Immunity occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune as a result of the primary immune response.
What type of immunity has he developed as a result of his pathogen exposure?Adaptive immunity, Adaptive (or active) immunity develops throughout our lives. We develop adaptive immunity when we're exposed to diseases or when we're immunized against them with vaccines.Immune response is the body's resistance to disease causing microorganisms and damage by foreign substances.Immune system's way of protecting the body against an infectious disease. The three types of immunity are innate, adaptive, and passive. Innate immunity includes barriers, such as skin and mucous membranes, that keep harmful substances from entering the body.Learn more about type of immunity here: brainly.com/question/13778292
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which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false? natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time. natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organism's fitness. natural selection and evolutionary change can occur in a short period of time (a few generations). natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.
Statement which is false regarding natural selection is a)natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time. So, correct option is a.
Natural selection is the differential endurance and generation of people because of contrasts in aggregate. It is a critical system of evolution, the adjustment of the heritable qualities normal for a populace over ages. Charles Darwin advocated the expression "natural selection", standing out it from counterfeit choice, which in his view is purposeful, though natural selection isn't.
Variety exists inside all populaces of organic entities. This happens mostly in light of the fact that irregular transformations emerge in the genome of a singular organic entity, and their posterity can acquire such changes. Over the lifetimes of the people, their genomes associate with their surroundings to cause varieties in characteristics. The climate of a genome remembers the sub-atomic science for the cell, different cells, others, populaces, species, as well as the abiotic climate.
Hence, option a is correct.
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(Complete question) is:
which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?
a)natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time. b)natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organism's fitness.
c)natural selection and evolutionary change can occur in a short period of time (a few generations).
d)natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.
A figure of transport across the cell membrane is shown below. A and B are the two transporters transporting either ions and/or glucose. Match the transporter/molecule to the statement. Transporter A is involved in this type of transport Transporter B is imvolved in in this type o: transport In Transporter B Glucose is moving In Transporter B Sodium ions are moving In Transporter A Sodium ions are moving
In the given image, (1) Transporter A is involved in: Antiport Active Transport.
(2) Transporter B is involved in: Symport Active Transport.
(3) In Transporter B Glucose is moving: inside the cell.
(4) In Transporter B Sodium ions are moving: inside the cell.
(5) In Transporter A Sodium ions are moving: outside the cell.
Antiport Active Transport is a type of secondary active transport where two molecules pass through a channel protein in opposite direction. This type of transport if called co-transport. One molecule in this moves along the concentration gradient while the other moves against its concentration gradient.
Symport Active Transport is also a type of secondary active transport and co-transport. Here both the molecules move in same direction. However one moves along its concentration gradient while the other moves against its concentration gradient.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
A figure of transport across the cell membrane is shown below. A and B are the two transporters transporting either ions and/or glucose. Match the transporter/molecule to the statement. Transporter A is involved in this type of transport Transporter B is involved in in this type o: transport In Transporter B Glucose is moving In Transporter B Sodium ions are moving In Transporter A Sodium ions are moving.
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ADH (Anti-diuretic hormone) is important in maintaining homeostasis in mammals. ADH is released from hypothalamus in response to high tissue osmolarity (=less water in blood). In response to ADH, the collecting duct and distal tubule In the kidney become more permeable to water; which Increases water reabsorption Into caplllaries: The amount of hormone released is controlled by a negative feedback loop. Based on the model presented, what is the relationship between ADH release, osmolarity and production of urine? poni As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted 05 urine As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as unne As tissue osmolarity rises more ADH is released, causing more water t0 be excreted as urine As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted 0: unne Tivo of the above
Bases on the model presented, the relationship between ADH release, osmolarity and production of urine can be presented as: As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted.
ADH is the Anti-Diuretic Hormone released by the hypothalamus, but stored in the posterior pituitary. It is also called vasopressin and plays two roles in the body. It is involved in the constriction of blood vessels as well as maintaining the osmolarity of the body.
Osmolarity can be defined as the concentration of solutes in the body in per liter solvent. It is necessary to maintain the osmolarity of the body in order to prevent any diseases.
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650 nanomolar
The critical concentration of GTP-tubulin heterodimers in vitro has been measured and found to be 200 nanomolar and 1000 nanomolar for the plus and minus ends, respectively. Which of the following GTP-tubulin heterodimer concentrations would favor treadmilling?
When the critical concentration of GTP-tubulin heterodimers in vitro has been determined to be 200 nanomolar and 1000 nanomolar for the plus and minus ends, respectively, it is 650 nanomolar.
Which substances make up a tubulin heterodimer?One - and one -tubulin polypeptides make up the tubulin heterodimer. Without the coordinated action of a group of chaperone proteins, including five tubulin-specific chaperones known as TBCA-TBCE, neither protein can partition to the native form or assemble into heterodimers that are polymerization competent.
Quizlet: What Does Treadmilling in a Cell Mean?When the polymer maintains a consistent length while being assembled at the plus end and disassembled at the minus end at the same rates during treadmilling, dynamic instability alternates between slow growth and quick disassembly.
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HELP Please, I really need help with this project.
In a Section A, the number of seals are less in number. And In section B, number of seals are more in number.
What are Seals?Seals are pinnipeds, which are the only mammals that feed in the water and breed on land. They are divided into three different families: phocidae, which includes eared seals, otaridae, which includes non-eared seals, and odobenidae, which includes walruses.
Seals have a thick coating of blubber that protects them from the cold; a transparent membrane covers their eyes; their nostrils close; and their blood circulation to most of their organs is decreased while diving.
Seals have the ability to snooze underwater and even surface for air without waking up.
Therefore, In a Section A, the number of seals are less in number. And In section B, number of seals are more in number.
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For genotype: lacIS lacP+ lacO+ lacZ - lacY+ / F' lacI+ lacP+ lacOC lacZ+ lacY -
Select the best description of beta-galactosidase activity in the following environmental conditions.
Lactose Absent; Glucose Absent
Lactose Present, Glucose Present
1. High
2. Basal
3. Lower than basal
4. None
For genotype: lacIS lacP+ lacO+ lacZ - lacY+ / F' lacI+ lacP - lacOC lacZ+ lacY -
Select the best description of permease activity in the following environmental conditions.
Answers to both questions are given as follows:
Coli cell of lacI+lacP+lacOc lacZ-lacY+/lacI-lacP+lacO+lacZ-lacY+will Only expresses lacY, only in the absence of lactose.
For genotype: lacIS lacP+ lacO+ lacZ - lacY+ / F' lacI+ lacP - lacOC lacZ+ lacYthe best description of permease activity in the following environmental conditions will be none for both cases.
A set of genes arranged in a specific order for lactose processing is called a coli lac operon. When lactose is present, the lac operon, which consists of three genes termed lacZ that code for enzymes is active.
The regulatory gene lacI, which produces repressor proteins, the enzyme lac-galactosidase, lacY, which produces lactose permease, and lacA, which produces acetyltransferase. The repressor proteins bind to the operator protein and then control transcription. As soon as it attaches to the operator, transcription ceases.
The complete question 2 is:
For genotype: lacIS lacP+ lacO+ lacZ - lacY+ / F' lacI+ lacP - lacOC lacZ+ lacY -
Select the best description of permease activity in the following environmental conditions.
Question 2 options:
Glucose Present; Lactose Present
Glucose Absent; Lactose Present
1. High
2. Basal
3. Lower than basal
4. None
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During the_____blank phase, the inside of the cell becomes positively charged, and during the_____ blank phase, the membrane potential returns to its resting value.
During the depolarization blank phase, the inside of the cell becomes positively charged, and during the repolarization blank phase, the membrane potential returns to its resting value.
During the depolarization phase, what happens?The gated sodium ion channels on the membrane of the neuron rapidly open during the depolarization phase, allowing sodium ions (Na+) that are present outside the membrane to rush into the cell. The intrinsic charge of the neuron decreases from -70 mV to -55 mV when the sodium ions swiftly enter the cell.
Depolarization and repolarization: what are they?Depolarization is the process of bringing a cell's membrane potential to a higher positive value. Repolarization is the process by which the membrane potential shifts from a positive to a negative value. The inner membrane becomes less negative after depolarization.
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d1 and d2 dopamine receptor subtypes have _____effects on adenylyl cyclase, which synthesizes camp; d1 receptors ____it, and d2 receptors ____it.
The D1-like D1 and D5 receptor subtypes, as well as the "D2-like" D2Short (S), D2Long (L), D3, and D4 receptor subtypes, transmit signals in the dopaminergic system.
Each receptor has a unique purpose. Each dopamine receptor's function is as follows[4]: D1: motility, memory, attention, impulse control, and control of renal function. D2: movement, focus, rest, memory, and learning. 2) Both by boosting the plasma membrane expression of DAT and by directly interacting with existing DATs to improve their activity, presynaptically D2-receptors speed up the absorption of dopamine. When dopamine D1 receptors in dendrites are engaged, a little amount of calcium enters the cell through the NMDA receptor, which increases the MEK-ERK and mTOR pathways. Both mechanisms promote protein synthesis by dephosphorylating eEF2 Thr56 and inhibiting eEF2K activity by phosphorylating it on Ser366.
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You have sequenced the genome of the bacterium Salmonella typhimurium, and you are using BL.AST analysis to identify similarities within the S. typhimurium genome to known proteins. You find a protein that is 100 percent identical in the bacterium Escherichia coli When you compare nucleotide sequences of the
S. typhimurium and coli genes, you find that their nucleotide sequences are only 87 percent identical.
a. Explain this observation.
b. What do these observations tell you about the merits of nucleotide- versus protein-similarity searches in identifying related genes?
A) change in the DNA nucleotide sequence, particularly at the nucleotides coding for the third position of a codon, can occur without changing the translated protein because the triplet code is excessive.
B) suggest about the relative advantages of searching for related genes based on nucleotide similarity vs protein similarity.
Protein clusters are expected to evolve and change more gradually than the characteristics that encode them. The majority of codons are adaptable in their nucleotide locations, which allows the DNA sequence to accumulate modifications without affecting protein structure. Given that amino acid modifications may alter the structure and functionality of the protein, protein groupings will grow and diverge all the more gradually. Since the succession of amino corrosives is essentially forced, natural selection will eliminate many deleterious amino corrosive modifications. As a result, the pace of advancement in the amino corrosive succession will slow down, and the amino corrosive arrangement will have more prominent grouping protection as compared to the nucleotide arrangement.
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