Which of the following are true statements regarding the Coanda Effect (choose all that apply)? a) involves the concept of fluid viscosity. b) explains why air flows around an object in the air stream. c) involves a change in direction of air movement but not its speed. d) is the tendency of a moving fluid to be attracted by a curved surface in its path. e) is involved in generating aerodynamic lift. f) is the same as the Bernoulli Effect.

The direction of the electric field at the corner is along the line between the corner and the center of the square, outward of the center.

The formula to calculate the electric field at a point due to a point charge is given by: Electric field = (k * |q|) / r^2
Given that the charge at each corner is 4.75×10−6 C and the side length of the square is 2.12 m, we can calculate the electric field due to each charge at the corner. Since the charges are at the corners, the distance (r) between each charge and the corner is equal to the side length of the square (2.12 m). Calculating the electric field due to each charge and summing them up, we have:Electric field = (k * |q|) / r^2 + (k * |q|) / r^2 + (k * |q|) / r^2
Electric field = (3 * k * |q|) / r^2
Substituting the values, we get:

Electric field = (3 * 9 x 10^9 N m^2/C^2 * 4.75×10−6 C) / (2.12 m)^2

Electric field ≈ 2.526 x 10^6 N/C

Therefore, the magnitude of the electric field at one corner of the square is approximately 2.526 x 10^6 N/C. Now, let's determine the direction of the electric field at the corner. Since the other charges are positive, the electric field vectors due to these charges will point away from them. Considering the symmetry of the square, the electric field vectors at the corner will be directed along the line between the corner and the center of the square, outward of the center.Therefore, the direction of the electric field at the corner is along the line between the corner and the center of the square, outward of the center.

To learn more about electric field:

https://brainly.com/question/11482745

#SPJ11

The acceleration of this car include the following: A. 2 m/s².

In Science, the acceleration of a car can be calculated by using this mathematical expression:

a = (V - U)/t

Where:  

By substituting the given parameters into the acceleration formula, we have;

Acceleration, a = (40 - 10)/15

Acceleration, a = 30/15

Acceleration, a = 2 m/s².

Read more on acceleration here: brainly.com/question/24728358

#SPJ4

Answer:

It happens because the Earth is tilted on its axis around 23 degrees therefore the sun normally never sets at north Pole in summers. The sun doesn't set at Arctic Circle on North pole from about April 19 to August 23 each year due to this phenomenon.

The minimum possible coefficient of static friction between bike tires and the ground is zero. This means that there is no requirement for static friction to exist in order for the bike to remain stationary or in motion.

Static friction is the force that prevents two surfaces from sliding against each other when there is no relative motion between them. It depends on the nature of the surfaces in contact and the force pressing them together. In the case of bike tires and the ground, the coefficient of static friction measures the ratio of the maximum static frictional force to the normal force between the tire and the ground.

If the coefficient of static friction were zero, it would imply that there is no need for static friction to keep the bike tires from slipping. This situation can occur when the surfaces are extremely smooth or when other forces, such as rolling resistance or air resistance, provide enough stability to maintain traction.

However, it's important to note that a zero coefficient of static friction can also indicate a lack of friction altogether, which could make it impossible for the bike tires to maintain contact with the ground and result in sliding or loss of control.

Learn more about static friction here:

https://brainly.com/question/17140804

#SPJ11

The image of the shopper is 75.0 cm from the mirror's surface, and it is virtual.

The magnification (m) of an image formed by a convex mirror is given by the formula:

m = -d_i / d_o,

where d_i is the distance of the image from the mirror's surface and d_o is the distance of the object from the mirror's surface. In this case, the magnification is given as 0.250.

Given that the shopper is standing 3.00 m from the convex mirror (d_o = 3.00 m) and the magnification is 0.250, we can rearrange the formula to solve for d_i:

d_i = -m * d_o.

Substituting the values into the formula:

d_i = -0.250 * 3.00,

   = -0.75 m.

The negative sign indicates that the image is virtual, meaning it cannot be projected onto a screen. Taking the absolute value, the image is 0.75 m from the mirror's surface.

Converting 0.75 m to centimeters, we get 75.0 cm.

The image of the shopper is located 75.0 cm from the convex mirror's surface, and it is a virtual image. This calculation utilizes the magnification formula for a convex mirror to determine the distance of the image based on the given magnification and object distance.

To know more about mirror, visit

https://brainly.com/question/1126858

#SPJ11

(a) The charge moving through the battery each second is 0.80 Coulombs. (b) The electric potential energy of the charge increases by 9.12 Joules as it moves through the battery.

Part A:

The charge moving through the battery each second can be calculated using the formula:

Q = I * t

Where Q is the charge, I is the current, and t is the time.

Given that the laptop uses 0.80 A while running, the charge moving through the battery each second can be calculated as:

Q = (0.80 A) * (1 s)

Calculating this expression gives us:

Q = 0.80 C

Therefore, the charge moving through the battery each second is 0.80 Coulombs.

Part B:

The change in electric potential energy as the charge moves through the battery can be calculated using the formula:

ΔPE = Q * ΔV

Where ΔPE is the change in electric potential energy, Q is the charge, and ΔV is the change in voltage.

In this case, since the battery has an emf (electromotive force) of 11.4 V, the change in voltage is equal to the emf. Therefore, we have:

ΔPE = Q * emf

Substituting the known values, we have:

ΔPE = (0.80 C) * (11.4 V)

Calculating this expression gives us:

ΔPE = 9.12 J

Therefore, the electric potential energy of the charge increases by 9.12 Joules as it moves through the battery.

(a) The charge moving through the battery each second is 0.80 Coulombs.

(b) The electric potential energy of the charge increases by 9.12 Joules as it moves through the battery.

To know more about potential energy ,visit:

https://brainly.com/question/21175118

#SPJ11

Answer:

Hereeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee

Answer:

Yes

Momentum is a vector quantity

Explanation:

A vector quantity is a quantity that has both magnitude and direction

So definitely direction matters

Answer:

no on edge 2021

Explanation:

At a frequency of 500 Hz, the impedance of the circuit is approximately 180.026Ω, and the phase angle of the source voltage with respect to the current is approximately 0.637°.

A) To compute the impedance of the circuit, we use the formula:

Z = √(R² + (XL - XC)²)

Where Z is the impedance, R is the resistance, XL is the inductive reactance, and XC is the capacitive reactance.

Given:

Resistance (R) = 180Ω

Inductance (L) = 0.150H

Capacitance (C) = 0.600μF

= 0.600 × 10⁻⁶ F

At frequency f1 = 500 Hz:

XL = 2πf1L

XC = 1/(2πf1C)

Calculating XL and XC:

XL = 2π(500 Hz)(0.150 H)

= 471 Ω

XC = 1/(2π(500 Hz)(0.600 × 10⁻⁶ F))

≈ 5307 Ω

Using the formula for impedance:

Z1 = √(R² + (XL - XC)²)

= √(180² + (471 - 5307)²)

≈ 180.026 Ω

At frequency f2 = 1000 Hz:

XL = 2πf2L

XC = 1/(2πf2C)

Calculating XL and XC:

XL = 2π(1000 Hz)(0.150 H)

= 942 Ω

XC = 1/(2π(1000 Hz)(0.600 × 10⁻⁶ F))

≈ 2653 Ω

Using the formula for impedance:

Z2 = √(R² + (XL - XC)²)

= √(180² + (942 - 2653)²)

≈ 180.134 Ω

B) The phase angle (θ) of the source voltage with respect to the current can be calculated using the formula:

θ = atan((XL - XC)/R)

At frequency f1:

θ1 = atan((XL - XC)/R)

= atan((471 - 5307)/180)

≈ 0.637°

At frequency f2:

θ2 = atan((XL - XC)/R)

= atan((942 - 2653)/180)

≈ 0.318°

At a frequency of 500 Hz, the impedance of the circuit is approximately 180.026Ω, and the phase angle of the source voltage with respect to the current is approximately 0.637°. At a frequency of 1000 Hz, the impedance of the circuit is approximately 180.134Ω, and the phase angle is approximately 0.318°.

To know more about Impedance visit:

https://brainly.com/question/15110043

#SPJ11

Answer:

Because the hot tea is hot from a microwave or coffee machine when iced tea is cold from ice in the tea.

Explanation:

The magnetic flux if the magnetic field vector is b=(-20 t)i (10 t)k and the area vector is a=(-50 m2)j (8 m2) k is 1000 t j + 80 t k.

The magnetic flux is calculated as follows:

[tex]\phi = \vec{B} \cdot \vec{A}[/tex]

where  

B is the magnetic field vector,  

A is the area vector, and ϕ is the magnetic flux.

In this case, we have:

[tex]\vec{B} = (-20 t)i + (10 t)k[/tex]

and

[tex]\vec{A} = (-50 m^2)j + (8 m^2) k[/tex]

Substituting these values into the equation for magnetic flux, we get:

[tex]\begin{aligned}\phi &= (-20 t)i + (10 t)k \cdot (-50 m^2)j + (8 m^2) k \\&= -20 t \cdot (-50 m^2)j + 10 t \cdot 8 m^2 k \\&= 1000 t j + 80 t k\end{aligned}[/tex]

Therefore, the magnetic flux is a vector with a magnitude of 1000t and a direction of j+k. Note that the magnetic flux is a scalar quantity, so the vector notation is only used to indicate the direction of the flux.

The magnetic flux can also be calculated as follows:

[tex]\phi = \int_A \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{S}[/tex]

where A is the area of the surface, and d

S is a small element of surface area. In this case, the area of the surface is a rectangle with dimensions 50×8 meters. The magnetic field is uniform, so we can calculate the magnetic flux as follows:

[tex]\begin{aligned}\phi &= \int_A \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{S} \\&= \int_{-50}^{50} \int_{-8}^8 (-20 t)i + (10 t)k \cdot dx dy \\&= \int_{-50}^{50} (-20 t) \cdot dy + \int_{-8}^8 (10 t) \cdot dx \\&= 1000 t j + 80 t k\end{aligned}[/tex]

The answer is: 1000 t j + 80 t k

To know more about the magnetic flux refer here :

https://brainly.com/question/15011681#

#SPJ11

The electric and magnetic field amplitudes of an electromagnetic wave can be calculated using the power output of the source and the distance from the source. We can use the formula:

P = (1/2)ε₀cE₀²A,

where P is the power output, ε₀ is the permittivity of free space (8.854x10⁻¹² C²/(N·m²)), c is the speed of light (3x10⁸ m/s), E₀ is the electric field amplitude, and A is the surface area of a sphere with radius R.

First, let's calculate the surface area of the sphere at a distance of 15.0 m:

A = 4πR² = 4π(15.0 m)² ≈ 2827.43 m².

Now, rearranging the formula, we can solve for E₀:

E₀² = (2P) / (ε₀cA) = (2 * 960 W) / (8.854x10⁻¹² C²/(N·m²) * 3x10⁸ m/s * 2827.43 m²).

Calculating this expression gives us E₀² ≈ 8.76x10⁻⁶ N²/C².

Taking the square root, we find:

E₀ ≈ 9.36x10⁻⁴ N/C.

Finally, we can use the relationship between the electric and magnetic field amplitudes in an electromagnetic wave:

B₀ = E₀ / c,

where B₀ is the magnetic field amplitude.

Substituting the values, we get:

B₀ ≈ (9.36x10⁻⁴ N/C) / (3x10⁸ m/s) ≈ 3.12x10⁻¹² T.

Therefore, the electric field amplitude at a distance of 15.0 m from the source is approximately 9.36x10⁻⁴ N/C, and the magnetic field amplitude is approximately 3.12x10⁻¹² T.

To know more about  electromagnetic visit :

https://brainly.com/question/1408043

#SPJ11

Answer: for insulation of heat

Explanation:

Windows in cold countries have double glazing windows to provide a barrier against the outside temperature by creating a buffer zone between two glasses.

The air or any other gas-filled between the glasses act as an insulator and offer great resistance to outside temperature thereby maintaining the inside temperature intact.

To make the red light appear green, you would need to be traveling at a speed of approximately 2.727×10⁸ m/s.

The color of light is determined by its wavelength. Red light has a longer wavelength than green light, with the given values of 650 nm and 550 nm, respectively.

The frequency of light is inversely proportional to its wavelength, so we can use the formula:

frequency = speed of light / wavelength

Given that the speed of light is 3×10⁸ m/s, we can calculate the frequencies of red and green light:

Frequency of red light = (3×10⁸ m/s) / (650×10⁻⁹ m) = 4.615×10¹⁴ s⁻¹

Frequency of green light = (3×10⁸ m/s) / (550×10⁻⁹ m) = 5.455×10¹⁴ s⁻¹

To perceive the red light as green, we need to match the frequencies. Since the speed of light remains constant, we can equate the two frequencies:

(3×10⁸ m/s) / (λ_red) = (3×10⁸ m/s) / (λ_green)

Simplifying the equation, we find:

λ_red = λ_green

From this, we can determine the speed required to make the red light appear green:

v = (λ_red - λ_green) / λ_green = (650×10⁻⁹ m - 550×10⁻⁹ m) / 550×10⁻⁹ m = 100×10⁻⁹ m / 550×10⁻⁹ m

v ≈ 2.727×10⁸ m/s

Therefore, in order for the red light to appear green, you would need to be moving at a velocity of approximately 2.727×10⁸ m/s.

To know more about wavelength, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/7143261#

#SPJ4

Answer:

The kinetic energy of the baseball is 306.25 joules.

Explanation:

SInce the baseball can be considered a particle, that is, that effects from geometry can be neglected, the kinetic energy ([tex]K[/tex]), in joules, is entirely translational, whose formula is:

[tex]K = \frac{1}{2}\cdot m\cdot v^{2}[/tex] (1)

Where:

[tex]m[/tex] - Mass, in kilograms.

[tex]v[/tex] - Speed, in meters per second.

If we know that [tex]m = 0.5\,kg[/tex] and [tex]v = 35\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex], then the kinetic energy of the baseball thrown by the player is:

[tex]K = \frac{1}{2}\cdot m \cdot v^{2}[/tex]

[tex]K = 306.25\,J[/tex]

The kinetic energy of the baseball is 306.25 joules.

The force experienced by the loop can be utilized to measure the field strength of the uniform magnetic field.

This force is known as the magnetic force or the Lorentz force.

The magnetic force (F) on a current-carrying loop of wire in a magnetic field is given by the equation:

[tex]F = I * B * A * sin(\theta)[/tex]

Where:

F is the magnetic force,

I is the current flowing through the loop,

B is the magnetic field strength,

A is the area of the loop, and

θ is the angle between the magnetic field and the normal to the loop.

In this case, the loop is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field, so θ = 90 degrees, and sin(θ) = 1. Therefore, the equation simplifies to:

F = I * B * A

By adjusting the current and measuring the resulting force, we can calculate the magnetic field strength (B) using the equation:

B = F / (I * A)

To know more about Lorentz force, here

brainly.com/question/28211140

#SPJ4

--The complete question is, How the force on a loop of wire in a magnetic field can be used to measure the field strength? the field is uniform, and the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the field.--

Answer:C

Explanation:I think sorry if it’s wrong

The distance between the two 100 kg persons needs to be approximately 8.17 x 10^-4 meters (or 0.817 mm) in order for the force they exert on each other to be equal to 1 N.

To calculate the distance between two 100 kg persons so that the force they exert on each other is equal to 1 N, we can use Newton's law of universal gravitation.

The formula for gravitational force (F) between two objects is:

F = (G * m1 * m2) / r^2

where G is the gravitational constant (approximately 6.672 x 10^-11 N·m^2/kg^2), m1 and m2 are the masses of the objects, and r is the distance between the centers of the objects.

In this case, we want the force to be 1 N, and both persons have a mass of 100 kg. Substituting these values into the formula, we get:

1 N = (6.672 x 10^-11 N·m^2/kg^2 * 100 kg * 100 kg) / r^2

Simplifying the equation:

1 N = (6.672 x 10^-7 N·m^2) / r^2

Rearranging the equation to solve for the distance (r):

r^2 = (6.672 x 10^-7 N·m^2) / 1 N

r^2 = 6.672 x 10^-7 m^2

Taking the square root of both sides:

r ≈ 8.17 x 10^-4 m

Therefore, the distance between the two 100 kg persons needs to be approximately 8.17 x 10^-4 meters (or 0.817 mm) in order for the force they exert on each other to be equal to 1 N. Option B, 6.672 x 10^-7 m, appears to be a typographical error as it corresponds to the value of the gravitational constant rather than the distance.

To learn more about Distance click here

https://brainly.com/question/13034462

#SPJ11

Answer:

When atoms from different elements are joined together in groups, they form molecules. The atoms in molecules bind together chemically, which means that the atoms cannot be separated again by physical means, such as filtration. The molecule has different properties from the elements from which is was made.

Explanation:

When heating a sample of liquid water, the point at which boiling begins is best described as the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the atmospheric pressure.

The point at which boiling begins is when the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the atmospheric pressure. At this point, the liquid can no longer hold any more vapor and bubbles of vapor form and rise to the surface. The temperature at which this occurs is called the boiling point.

For water at sea level, the boiling point is 100°C (212°F). However, the boiling point of water can vary depending on the atmospheric pressure. At higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is lower, so the boiling point of water is lower. For example, at the top of Mount Everest, the boiling point of water is about 70°C (160°F).

The boiling point of a liquid can also be affected by the presence of impurities. For example, salt water has a higher boiling point than pure water. This is because the salt molecules interfere with the formation of water vapor.

To learn more about atmospheric pressure click here

https://brainly.com/question/1391071

#SPJ11

Answer:

he word that musicians use for frequency is pitch. The shorter the wavelength, the higher the frequency, and the higher the pitch, of the sound. In other words, short waves sound high; long waves sound low. ... In other words, it sounds higher

Explanation:

The gauge pressure that someone would measure for the can of soda located at sea level is 2.0 atm.

Gauge pressure is the pressure measured relative to atmospheric pressure. At sea level, the atmospheric pressure is approximately 1.0 atm. To find the gauge pressure, we subtract the atmospheric pressure from the internal absolute pressure.

Gauge pressure = Internal absolute pressure - Atmospheric pressure

Given that the internal absolute pressure is 3.0 atm and the atmospheric pressure is 1.0 atm, we can substitute these values into the equation:

Gauge pressure = 3.0 atm - 1.0 atm = 2.0 atm

If the can of soda is located at sea level, someone would measure a gauge pressure of 2.0 atm. Gauge pressure represents the pressure above or below atmospheric pressure, and in this case, the can has an internal pressure that is 2.0 atm higher than the atmospheric pressure at sea level.

To know more about pressure visit :

https://brainly.com/question/28012687

#SPJ11

If a buffer solution is 0.210 m in a weak acid and 0.470 m in its conjugate base. The pH of the buffer solution is approximately 4.53.

To determine the pH of a buffer solution, we can use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, which is given by

pH = pKa + log ([A-] / [HA])

Where:

pH is the logarithmic measure of the hydrogen ion concentration in the solution.

pKa is the negative logarithm of the acid dissociation constant (Ka) of the weak acid.

[A-] is the concentration of the conjugate base.

[HA] is the concentration of the weak acid.

In this case, the concentration of the weak acid ([HA]) is 0.210 M, and the concentration of the conjugate base ([A-]) is 0.470 M. The acid dissociation constant (Ka) is given as 6.7 × [tex]10^{-5}[/tex].

First, let's calculate the pKa

pKa = -log(Ka) = -log(6.7 × [tex]10^{-5}[/tex]) = 4.18

Next, substitute the given values into the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation:

pH = 4.18 + log(0.470 / 0.210) = 4.18 + log(2.238) = 4.18 + 0.35

pH = 4.53

Therefore, the pH of the buffer solution is 4.53.

To know more about pH here

https://brainly.com/question/17742323

#SPJ4

Answer:

liquids and gases

Explanation:

Liquids and gases are considered to be fluids because they yield to shearing forces, whereas solids resist them.

Answer:

It's often called the law of inertia. Acceleration is produced when a force acts on a mass. The greater the mass (of the object being accelerated) the greater the amount of force needed (to accelerate the object). ... A more massive object has a greater tendency to resist changes in its state of motion.

Explanation:

Answer: It's often called the law of inertia. Acceleration is produced when a force acts on a mass. The greater the mass (of the object being accelerated) the greater the amount of force needed (to accelerate the object). ... A more massive object has a greater tendency to resist changes in its state of motion.

HOPE THIS HELPS

Answer:

A force of 355 N is applied to an object that accelerates at a rate of 7.8 m/sec2 . What is the mass of the object ?

Explanation:

Answer:

d=v1t - .5at^2

d=4.88 x .872 - 0.5 x (4.88/0.872) x 0.872^2

d=4.255 - 2.12

d= 2.135m

Explanation:

acceleration is negative because she is slowing down.

a) The work function of the metal is 2.00 eV.

b) When the photon energy is adjusted to 6.10 eV, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons will be 4.10 eV.

a) The work function (Φ) of the metal can be determined by subtracting the maximum kinetic energy (KEmax) of the photoelectrons from the energy of the incident photons (Ephoton).

Given:

The energy of incident photons (Ephoton) = 4.00 eV

The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons (KEmax) = 2.00 eV

To find the work function (Φ):

Φ = Ephoton - KEmax

Φ = 4.00 eV - 2.00 eV

Φ = 2.00 eV

Therefore, the work function of the metal is 2.00 eV.

b) To calculate the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons when the photon energy is adjusted to 6.10 eV, we use the same formula as in part (a).

Given:

The energy of incident photons (Ephoton) = 6.10 eV

To find the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons (KEmax):

KEmax = Ephoton - Φ

Using the previously determined work function (Φ) of 2.00 eV:

KEmax = 6.10 eV - 2.00 eV

KEmax = 4.10 eV

Therefore, when the photon energy is adjusted to 6.10 eV, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons will be 4.10 eV.

a) The work function of the metal is 2.00 eV.

b) When the photon energy is adjusted to 6.10 eV, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons will be 4.10 eV.

To learn more about kinetic, visit    

https://brainly.com/question/1135367

#SPJ11

The error propagation equation for δk (the kinetic energy) is:

δk = √((1/4v^4) * δm² + m²v² * δv²).

To derive the error propagation equation for δk (the kinetic energy), we first need to understand what error propagation is.

Error propagation is a method used to estimate the uncertainty of a quantity that is derived from several other measured quantities that have uncertainties. In other words, it is a way to determine how the errors of the input quantities affect the error of the output quantity.

Now let's derive the error propagation equation for δk (the kinetic energy):

The kinetic energy (k) of an object can be calculated using the following equation:

k = 1/2mv^2

Where m is the mass of the object and v is its velocity.

We can use the standard error propagation formula to find the uncertainty in k.

This formula is given as:

δk = √((∂k/∂m)² * δm² + (∂k/∂v)² * δv²)

where δm and δv are the uncertainties in the measured values of m and v, respectively.

To find ∂k/∂m and ∂k/∂v, we need to take the partial derivatives of k with respect to m and v.

∂k/∂m = 1/2v²

∂k/∂v = mv

Now we can substitute these values in the error propagation equation:

δk = √((1/2v²)² * δm² + (mv)² * δv²)

Therefore, the error propagation equation for δk (the kinetic energy) is:

δk = √((1/4v^4) * δm² + m²v² * δv²)

To learn more about error propagation , visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30765830

#SPJ11