Answer:
Cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, are photosynthetic prokaryotes that produce oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis. In this respect, cyanobacteria resemble the chloroplasts found in plant and algal cells, which are also responsible for photosynthesis.
Like chloroplasts, cyanobacteria have an outer membrane and an inner membrane that enclose the photosynthetic pigments. These pigments, such as chlorophyll, capture light energy and convert it into chemical energy. The inner membrane of cyanobacteria is also folded into thylakoid stacks, similar to the thylakoid membranes found in chloroplasts.
Thus, while cyanobacteria are not eukaryotes and do not have cell organelles, their function as photosynthetic organisms is similar to that of the chloroplasts found in eukaryotic cells.
Explanation:
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TRUE/FALSE. three types of threats to biodiversity are: habitat loss and fragmentation the introduction of exotic, or non-native, species overexploitation, or overharvesting
The statement above is true that three types of threats to biodiversity are: habitat loss and fragmentation the introduction of exotic, or non-native, species overexploitation, or overharvesting.
What is Biodiversity?Biodiversity is a term used for the diversity of natural resources, including the number and frequency of ecosystems, species and genes in a place.
Biodiversity Level
Gene level: Rice (Oryza sativa), Mango (Mangifera indica), Dog (Canis familiaris), Cat (Felis catus).Species level: lime (Citrus aurantifolia), sweet orange (Citrus nobilis), leopard cat (Felis bengalensis), domestic cat (Felis silvestris).Ecosystem Level: Moss ecosystems are located in areas around mountain peaks or in cold areas around the poles and are dominated by mosses. Animals that can be found in it are thick furry animals such as polar bears.Biodiversity Benefits:
Clothing and Food Sector: Humans can meet their protein needs from animal products, namely eggs and fish meat and various other marine animals.Field of Ecology: Acts as the lungs of the earth and maintains global climate stability.Pharmaceutical Field: Honey is believed to increase the immune system of anyone who drinks it.Field of Science and Technology: Until now there are still many animals and plants that have not been studied and their benefits are not known. Thus this situation can still be used as a means of developing knowledge and research for various fields of knowledge.Learn more about Biodiversity at: https://brainly.com/question/11542363
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what icd10cm code for insertion of an artificial inflatable urinary sphincter for urinary incontinence.
N36.42 Intrinsic sphincter deficiency (ISD) and N39.3 Stress incontinence are the codes for inserting an artificial inflatable urinary sphincter for urine incontinence.
Implantation of an artificial urinary sphincter device is considered medically necessary in adults following prostate surgery to treat urinary incontinence due to reduced outlet resistance (Intrinsic Sphincter Deficiency [ISD]) when the symptoms of incontinence have been refractory to at least 6 months of conservative medical treatment. The most commonly billed code utilizing the AMS 800 Urinary Control System is CPT 53445 (Insertion of inflatable urethral/bladder neck sphincter, including placement of pump, reservoir and cuff)
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Which of the following occurs late in chronic glomerulonephritis?
a) Peripheral neuropathy
b) Nosebleed
c) Stroke
d) Seizure
a) Peripheral neuropathy
Explanation:
Peripheral neuropathy with diminished deep tendon reflexes and neurosensory changes occur late in the disease. The patient becomes confused and demonstrates a limited attention span. An additional late finding includes evidence of pericarditis with or without a pericardial friction rub. The first indication of disease may be a sudden, severe nosebleed, a stroke, or a seizure.
The final stage is chronic glomerulonephritis A. Peripheral neuropathy
Glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease caused by inflammation of the small intestine in the kidneys or glomeruli. The kidneys contain glomeruli which function to remove excess waste and fluid from the bloodstream which is excreted in the urine. Glomerulonephritis can be caused by infection, autoimmune disease, vessels in the blood vessels, or certain diseases. The stages of this disease range from nosebleeds, blows, attacks and peripheral neuropathy.
Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that occurs due to damage to the peripheral nerves and occurs late in the disease. At this stage a person will often experience falls due to lack of coordination and paralysis of the muscles if the motor nerves are disturbed.
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find the kinetic energy kkk of the block at the moment labeled b. express your answer in terms of kkk and aaa .
The kinetic energy of the block at moment b can be expressed as kkk aaa².
In order to find the kinetic energy of the block at the moment labeled b, we must understand the concept of kinetic energy and how it applies to a block in motion. Kinetic energy, often abbreviated as KE, is the energy an object possesses due to its motion. It is calculated using the formula KE = ½ mv², where m is the mass of the object, and v is the velocity of the object.
In this case, we are asked to express the kinetic energy of the block at moment labeled b in terms of kkk and aaa. This means that we must find the mass and velocity of the block and use the equation for KE to calculate its kinetic energy.
Assuming the mass of the block is kkk kilograms and its velocity is aaa meters per second, we can calculate the kinetic energy of the block at moment b as KE = ½ kkk (aaa)². This simplifies to KE = kkk aaa².Therefore, the kinetic energy of the block at moment b can be expressed as kkk aaa².
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The nervous system
Monitors internal and external stimuli, transmits info in the form of action potentials, interprets or assesses information, maintains homeostasis
True. All mentioned includes the functions of the nervous system.
The nervous system is a complex network that regulates every activity in the body such as walking, speaking, moving, and swallowing. The nervous system consists of the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.
Receptors which are special cells that function to respond to internal and external changes, the nervous system will detect stimuli and produce impulses. Through the neurons, electrical impulses in the form of action potentials will be carried to the central nervous system. When the information reaches the central nervous system, the information will be processed and the brain will react by ordering the muscles, for example, to move to avoid heat.
Homeostasis is a mechanism that occurs automatically without us realizing it, the autonomic nerves will keep the body in balance when the nervous system detects a change in the environment, receptors will send electrical signals to the control center and will automatically respond to these signals.
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you have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: carbohydrates, organelle density, picograms of dna, cell wall components, and enzymatic activity. which of the following cell characteristics would you expect to increase significantly between a cell in mitosis and one just beginning g1?
Organelle density and enzymatic activity would be expected to increase significantly between a cell in mitosis and one just beginning g1.
What is mitosis?One cell (the mother) divides into two new cells (the daughters) that are genetically identical to the mother cell through a process known as mitosis. In the context of the cell cycle, mitosis refers to the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.
Mitosis is used in the vast majority of cell divisions that take place in your body. Mitosis fills an organism's body with cells during development and growth, and it replaces old, worn-out cells with new ones over the course of an organism's existence. Mitotic divisions are a type of reproduction for single-celled eukaryotes like yeast, resulting in the generation of new members of the population.
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Which of the following describes an example of selection?
Group of answer choices
Allele R reaches a frequency of 1.0 because individuals with genotype rr are sterile.
Allele m is lost when a virus kills all but a few individuals and just by chance, none of the survivors possess allele m.
Random mutation increases the frequency of allele A in one population but not in another.
Allele g for fat production increases in a small population because birds with more body fat survive better during harsh winter.
The statement which best describes an example of natural selection is that Allele m is lost when a virus kills all but a few individuals and just by chance, none of the survivors possess allele m, which means option B is the right answer.
Alleles refers to the two versions of DNA sequence which are located at a specific genomic location. Natural selection has short term effect in changing the frequency of a particular allele while it has long term effects on fixing a specific allele among the population. Natural selection is based on Darwin's theory of survival of the fittest. The allele which tends to surpass all the extremities of nature is best suited to survive in the environment. Since there are few alleles than genotypes, hence it becomes convenient to describe the gene pool by using allele frequencies than genotypes itself.
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Determine whether the following statements describe cellular adhesion, cellular recognition, or both adhesion and recognition.- CELLULAR ADHESION:
RECOGNITION AND ADHESION:
CELLULAR RESPONSE:
CELLULAR ADHESION: tight junctions form a seal between two cells.
RECOGNITION AND ADHESION: the process can lead to an intracellular response.
CELLULAR RESPONSE: carbohydrate chains are attached to cell surface proteins or phospholipids.
Cellular recognition is described as a dynamic process that results in a specific response. When it can be indicated that cell adhesion is facilitated by molecules with specific binding properties, it is a prime illustration of cell recognition. Cellular response is a stable state of biochemical mediator production and degradation in the cell, which can happen in a variety of ways.
Cellular responses can be extremely fast, such as the opening of ion channels to cause a change in membrane potential or muscle fiber contraction, which occurs within milliseconds of data transmission, or they can take minutes, such as whole cell movement.
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label the nerves of the lumbar plexus (t12 and l1-l4) anterior view by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.
Labeling of the nerves of the lumbar plexus (t12 and l1-l4) anterior are done below:
How many nerves are in the lumbar plexus?Additionally, the lumbosacral plexus releases five nerves, each of which is named after the muscle it innervates. There are several of them, including the quadratus femoris nerve (L4-S1), the obturator internus nerve (L5-S2), the piriformis nerve (S1-S2), and nerves to the levator ani and coccygeus that emerge from S3 and S4, respectively.
The nerves that originate in your lower back go downward and combine with other nerves to produce a network of nerves that regulates pain perception and lower limb motion. The groyne and genital region are sensed by the L1 spinal nerve, which also aids in hip muscle movement.
Thus, labeling in the image are shown below:
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The complete question is as follows:
Zero level channel of distribution is also
called as
OA. direct marketing
OB. multilevel marketing
OC. two level marketing
O D. micro level marketing
Zero level channel of distribution is also called as direct marketing and is therefore denoted as option A.
What is Marketing?This is referred to as the activity or business of promoting and selling products or services an dis usually done so as to increase the sales and profit needed to keep the organization afloat.
On the other hand, Zero level channel of distribution is also known as direct marketing and it includes an organization directly selling its products to the customers without a middle man such as the wholesalers or retailers and is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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Help please, info in the pic
you have discovered a fossil-bearing layer in east africa and you wish to estimate its age. there are abundant fossils of many savanna species, and you have identified most of them to species or genus. you know that the genus equus makes its first appearance in africa at 2.3 mya, and the species connochaetes gnou first appears at about 1.07 mya.
There are abundant fossils of many savanna species, and identified most of them to species or genus is known as paleontology
The conditions in this statement are If your site includes Equus but not Connochaetes gnou. If your site includes both Equus and Connochaetes gnou. If your site contains neither Equus nor Connochaetes gnou.
The study of fossils, including their age, formation process, and evolutionary importance, is known as paleontology. If a specimen is more than 10,000 years old, it is typically regarded as a fossil. The earliest fossils date back between 4.1 billion years and 3.48 billion years. A geological timeline and the relative ages of various fossils were recognized in the 19th century as a result of the discovery that specific fossils were linked to specific rock strata. Scientists are now able to quantitatively determine the absolute ages of rocks and the fossils they contain thanks to the introduction of radiometric dating methods in the early 20th century.
Fossils range in size from microorganisms with a diameter of one micrometer (1 m) to dinosaurs and trees that were many meters long and weighed many tons. In most cases, a fossil merely preserves a small section of the extinct organism, typically the component that was partially mineralized during life, like the vertebrates' teeth and bones or the invertebrates' chitinous or calcareous exoskeletons. Additionally, fossils may include signs that the organism left behind while it was still living, such as feces or animal footprints (coprolites). As opposed to body fossils, these kinds of fossils are referred to as trace fossils.
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What happens to the phenotype of the heterozygotes when traits are inherited?
When traits are inherited, All of the children produced by crossing true-breeding, or homozygous, individuals who differ for a certain trait will be heterozygous for that trait.
When qualities are inherited in a dominant and recessive manner, the F1 offspring will all have the homozygous dominant trait of the parent.
Mendel came to the conclusion that some features predominated other inherited traits after seeing that a heterozygote offspring might exhibit the same phenotype as the parent homozygote. But unlike the dominant and recessive patterns that Mendel identified, the link between genetics and phenotype is rarely as straightforward.
As the study of inheritance evolved beyond the seven qualities Mendel first looked at and also covered creatures other than pea plants, researchers started to observe a diversity of interactions between alleles that code for the same trait. Our knowledge of how genotype results in phenotype has been substantially improved by these allelic interactions, which were not just recessive or dominant.
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b. A balanced ecosystem is sustainable.
(give reason)
Answer:
It consists of animals, plants, microorganisms and more which depend on each other and their surroundings
Explanation:
sexual selection is selection that occurs between all individuals of a population solely with respect to reproduction
Happens when a transformative attribute is chosen for in view of mating achievement.
Sexual selection can bring about phenotypic attributes that don't work on a creature's capacity to endure like tunes or long tails that draw hunters, however are gone on through generation.
In any case, these characteristics are chosen since they can be given to the future.
• While natural selection builds an organic entity's capacity to get by, sexual selection attempts to expand an organic entities capacity to give qualities to people in the future.
• The natural selection of mating
• Sexual selection is a benefit which certain people have over others of similar sex and species, exclusively in regard to multiplication.
• The lopsidedness in energy consumption leads to two sorts of sexual selection: intrasexual and intersexual selection
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Cell theory began to develop in 1839, following the research of Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann into plant and animal tissues. Both the botanist Schleiden and the physiologist Schwann noticed that every organism they viewed under a microscope, whether plant or animal, was composed of cells. Their observations that all living species are made up of one or more cells led to the early formation of cell theory. Which tenet of cell theory is described by the paragraph about the historical observations of cells? All cells come from preexisting cells. O The cell is the basic unit of every organism. An organism is dependent on the total activity of all its cells. O All organisms are composed of one or more cells.
All organisms are composed of one or more cells.
Give a brief description of cell theory.
The scientific idea that cells make up living organisms, that they are the fundamental structural and organizational unit of all species, and that they all originate from previously existing cells is known as cell theory. It was first proposed in the middle of the nineteenth century. Because cells are the foundation of all life, this is essential for our understanding of biology. We can have single-celled organisms like yeasts and bacteria. All living things grow and develop on the basis of cell division, which is the division of a cell from one to two to four.
Hence, the answer is all organisms are composed of one or more cells.
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Which of the following factors DOES NOT affect the pulmonary and systemic gas exchange rate?
a. Molecular weight and solubility of the gases
b. All are factors that affect gas exchange rate
c. Partial Pressure difference of gases
d. Diffusion distance
e. Surface area available for gas excha
Answer:
b
Explanation:
cause you it is telling you your factors and you dont need that
FILL IN THE BLANK. two chambers, the utricle and saccule, contain receptors called___which are composed of___embedded within a gelatinous otolithic membrane.
The macula, which are receptors found in the utricle and saccule, are made up of hair cells that are encased in a gelatinous otolithic membrane.
The utriculus and saccule, which are situated in the bony vestibule, contain the receptor known as the macula. The semicircular canals of the ear have receptors that produce information about rotational movements (angular acceleration), while the utricle and saccule have receptors that produce information about linear acceleration and the effects of gravity. The inner ear is made up of three tiny semicircular canals that are filled with fluid and are situated deep inside the brain (ducts). Each duct's end has a protrusion called an ampulla. The crista, or tiny "balancing" receptors, are found in the ampulla.
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True or False: The parasympathetic nervous system controls both erection and contraction of the smooth muscle in the seminal vesicle.
The answer is false. One step further is the rhythmic contraction of the perineal muscles, which is controlled by the somatic muscles, during ejaculation.
What is under the jurisdiction of the parasympathetic nervous system?Your body is relaxed by your parasympathetic nervous system, a network of nerves cells , after stressful times. During the times when you feel secure and ease, it also aids in the operation of life-sustaining functions like digestion.
Parasympathetic arousal: What is it?Parasympathetic arousal is linked to feelings of enhanced wellbeing and focus. Although arousal may have a significant impact on several cortical and subcortical brain regions, little is known about how it affects the execution and processing of cognitive tasks.
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TDQ #4: Create an analogy for cell division. If you want you can use this prompt: "As a student, you are tasked with taking an exam. Use the scenario of preparing for and taking an exam to create an analogy for cell division (interphase through cytokinesis)."
The people from rural area migrate to city and colonies their and form society. This is better analogy to explain cell division
Telophase and cytokinesis can be compared as a marriage breaking up. When they separate, they each become their own unique individual after being once-inseparable as a bundle deal (cells). In telophase (as the cell elongates further), the couple is brought further apart until they eventually split off. Anaphase could be compared to the fighting phase where everything is pulled apart.
Let's compare the cell cycle to a city and its population.
G1-Growth
S-Synthesis
The cell cycle is comparable to a developing metropolis since a city's population can rise and change over time.
G2-Growth
In a cell, a newly formed cell enlarges and copies vital organelles; in a city, more people would move there, increasing the population.
M-Mitosis and Cytokinesis
All of the DNA in a cell is duplicated, doubling the population in a city.
Hence, cell is basic process without this life is not possible.
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TRUE/FALSE. if both parents are overweight, their children are twice as likely to be overweight as children with one overweight parent.
It is TRUE that children with two overweight parents have a higher risk of being overweight than children with only one.
Among the two, which group has a faster metabolism?The average metabolic rate of a woman is higher than a man's. Reduced metabolic rate is caused by prior weight loss. People's metabolisms speed up when they gain more lean body mass. When compared to other forms of transportation, flying is the most expensive.
Do the majority of people's genes have a significant impact on how they become obese?The single-gene (monogenic) obesity syndrome has so far been linked to uncommon variations in at least nine genes. No one hereditary factor can be blamed for obesity in the majority of fat persons. Over 50 genes have been linked to obesity since 2006, according to studies on genome-wide associations.
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in the dissection of the fetal pig, the esophagus was located to trachea. multiple choice dorsal lateral posterior anterior g
In the dissection of the fetal pig, the esophagus was located to trachea. Dorsal is the correct choice
Once the trachea and esophagus are visible, continue to separate the tissue using a probe. The trachea is dorsal to the esophagus. The larynx is a substantial, hard structure that is connected to the trachea. The vocal chords are located there.
To make the trachea more visible, the heart and blood arteries in the neck area have been removed. These components shouldn't be removed just yet because the blood vessels will need to be identified during the dissection. The abdominal cavity is divided from the lung (pleural) and heart (pericardial) cavities by the diaphragm, which is attached to the body wall (figure 16 and 18 below). The diaphragm contracts, forcing air into the lungs.
The nasopharynx, hard palate, soft palate, epiglottis, glottis, trachea, and larynx have already been observed. As you follow the trachea to its two bronchi, you will see that each one connects to a lung. While the right lung has four lobes, the left has three. A pleural cavity is a bodily cavity that houses each lung.
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A student is studying how energy is used in cells. She measures the concentration of ADP and ATP at two locations inside cell: 'graph of her data is shown below. AtP pnd ADP Concentration Which ofthe following cellular processes are most likely occurring at these locations? A) Location I; osmosis_ Location 2: meiosis B) Location 1: mitosis_ Location 2: photosynthesis C) Location 1 protein synthesis_ Location 2 diffusion D) Location 1: cellular respiration_ Location active transport
She measures the concentration of ADP and ATP at two locations inside the cell, cellular processes are most likely occurring at these locations D - Location 1: cellular respiration, Location 2 - active transport
Location 1: Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain all contribute to the production of ATP for the process of cellular respiration; consequently, the concentration of ATP rises as the process progresses.
Location 2: Ion channels require ATP as a source of energy for the active transport process. Dephosphorylation converts the ATP to ADP as the process continues. As a result, the level of ADP in the cell rises.
The other options are incorrect because photosynthesis produces ATP in one half of the reaction and uses it in the other half. Mitosis, meiosis, and diffusion do not require ATP and ADP.
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which of the following functional groups does not afford an alcohol when treated with a Grignard reagent followed by a protic work-up?
When Nitrile functional groups are treated with a Grignard reagent followed by a protic work-up, no alcohol is produced.
Grignard reagent: What is it?Organometallic compounds known as Grignard reagents are very helpful in the study of organic chemistry. They possess potent nucleophilic properties and the capacity to create fresh carbon-carbon bonds. A Hauser base is the substance that results when an amido group is added to a Grignard reagent in place of the alkyl group. Even more nucleophilic than their Grignard counterparts, these chemicals.
Describe nitrile.Colorless solids or liquids with distinctive odours are nitriles. Their boiling temperatures range from 82 to 118 °C. Strong dipole-dipole interactions as well as the Van der Waals forces of dispersion between the molecules are both present in nitriles.
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a protein that uses atp hydrolysis to separate the two dna strands during replication is called . group of answer choices all of these are good answers helicase gyrase
The protein that uses ATP hydrolysis to separate the two DNA strands during replication is called helicases.
DNA is the genetic material present in majority of the living organisms. It is a double stranded DNA molecule that is helical in shape with anti-parallel strands. The constituents of DNA are: deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group and the 4 nitrogenous bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine.
Replication is the process of making a duplicate copy of DNA. The process occurs in the nucleus of the eukaryotic cell and the nucleoid of the prokaryotic cell. Both the strands of a DNA molecule act as the template strand for DNA synthesis.
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The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is
turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
permanently turned on.
The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is only permanently turned off when glucose is available in the growth medium.
In the field of genetics, an operon is a functional piece of DNA that houses a collection of genes that are all regulated by the same promoter.The genes are combined during transcription into a single strand of messenger RNA (mRNA), which is then either translated simultaneously in the cytoplasm or split into monocistronic mRNAs, which are translated independently and consist of multiple strands of mRNA that each encode a single gene product. This has the effect of either causing the operon's genes to express themselves simultaneously or not at all. To define an operon, several genes must co-transcribe.To know more about tryptophan operon
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Compare the outermost electron in each of the following atoms. Which one will experience the smallest effective nuclear charge?
a. beryllium
b. potassium
c. calcium
d. sodium
Potassium option - b is correct answer. Effective nuclear charge increases from left to right and decreases down a column.
The definition of effective nuclear chargeEffective nuclear charge is the positive charge that nuclear protons have and that attracts valence electrons. Because of the shielding effect, the effective nuclear charge is never equal to the total number of protons in a nucleus.
Because electrons in this shell encounter the least amount of shielding and as a result, the largest effective nuclear charge, the Atomic Shell that is closer to the Nucleus (i.e., which is of lower energy), experiences this phenomenon.
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Joints in which the bone ends are bound together by hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage are classified as:
A. Immovable joints
B. Synovial joints
C. Cartilaginous joints
D. Fibrous joints
C. Cartilaginous joints ,articular cartilage joints
In cartilaginous joints, hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage holds the bones together. The joints are further divided into primary and secondary cartilaginous joints depending on the kind of cartilage involved. Amphiarthroses. Amphiarthroses are joints with a small range of motion. The word "amphiarthrosis" is singular. In this kind of joint, hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage holds the bones together. Between the right and left pubic bones is the symphysis pubis.
The sternal body and the manubrium form the manubriosternal joint.
discs between the vertebrae.
symphysis of the sacrococcyx. Fibrous connective tissue holds the bones of fibrous joints together. Since there is no cavity or space between the bones, the majority of fibrous joints remain immobile or have limited range of motion. Three varieties of fibrous tissue exist.
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A chemist is trying to get two substances to react, but he is unsuccessful. He knows that the two substances should react with one another. Which of the following could he do to possibly get the substances to react? (Select all that apply)
a
increase the concentration of one of the substances
b
crush up one of the substances
c
decrease the concentration of one of the substances
d
cool the substances
e
heat the substances
Answer:
heat the substances
If we heat the substances because heating will make any substances react
By heating the substance, it is possible that the substances react to form the product. Heating a substance will increase the kinetic energy of the substance. Thus, the correct option is E.
What is a Chemical reaction?A chemical reaction is a process during which one or more substances, known as reactants, are converted to different substances, known as products. The substances are either chemical elements or compounds depending upon the reactants.
Heating the solution will result into formation of product as an increase in temperature will typically increases the rate of reaction by increasing the average kinetic energy of the reactant molecules in a solution. This will increase the collision frequency between substances in a solution which will lead to formation of products.
Therefore, the correct option is E.
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How does the speed of sound change as the sound of a boat engine moves down to the depths of the ocean?
sound speed increases with depth
dositsorg