The most essential detail needed to evaluate the accuracy of neurologic examination would be about the time of last narcotic use, which means option B is the right answer.
Narcotics are opioids such as morphine and codeine which are not made from opium but have the tendency of taking over control of central nervous system. The use of narcotics by any person affects their mental actions and well being and hence its use must be known to the clinician during the neurologic test. The mental status carries extreme importance during the neurologic examination. Consciousness is the most sensitive indicator of neurological change. A neurological examination is designed to assess the motor and sensory skills, hearing and speech, vision, coordination, and balance.
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To refer complete question, see below:
When completing a neurologic examination on a client, which question is most essential to evaluate the accuracy of the data?
a) Have you experienced any unusual sensations?
b) When, if any, was your last narcotic use?
c) Do you have any history of forgetfulness?
d) Have you been diagnosed with any mental health issues?
a client being treated for diabetes type 2 with insulin presents to a clinic for routine visit. blood work reveals a hba1c of 11.0% (high). which response by the client may account for this abnormal laboratory result?
The "My meter broke so I have not been checking my blood glucose levels for a while." is the response by the client may account for this abnormal laboratory result.
What is blood glucose?
The primary source of energy for the body's cells, glucose is the most prevalent kind of sugar in the blood. Our bodies can generate glucose from other substances or it can be obtained from the meals we eat. Through the bloodstream, glucose is delivered to the cells. The amount of glucose in the blood is regulated by a number of hormones, including insulin.
What is insulin?
Insulin, a hormone, lowers the blood level of glucose, a type of sugar. The pancreatic beta cells generate and release glucose into the blood when the blood glucose levels raises, such as after eating.
Therefore, "My meter broke so I have not been checking my blood glucose levels for a while." is the response by the client may account for this abnormal laboratory result.
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a client arrives at the ambulatory care clinic with low abdominal pain. a routine urine specimen reveals hematuria. the client does not have a fever. the nurse should next ask the client about a history of which condition?
The patient should next be questioned by the nurse about any abdominal or bladder injuries or blows.
Infection is one of the most dangerous side effects of peritoneal dialysis. Either the skin around the catheter exit site will get infected, or you will suffer peritonitis, an infection of the fluid inside your abdomen. Age, diabetes, underlying renal insufficiency, and heart failure are all risk factors for acute renal failure, according to research findings. The subset of diabetics with the highest risk is those who have baseline renal insufficiency. Become guided by a core group of ambulatory care preceptors who are committed to the student's personal and professional development as an ambulatory care pharmacy trainee.
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which protective equipment would the nurse use when caring for an infant admitted with gastroenteritis mask gown face shield pair
Wearing gloves and a plastic apron or impermeable gown when in touch with the patient or the patient's environment is a precaution known as a contact precaution. This is especially important when catering to the toileting and hygiene needs of the patient.
If so, would the nurse dress in a gown?When there is a possibility of coming into contact with blood or bodily fluids (secretions and/or excretions), or when there is a chance of being exposed to airborne infections, you should use a mask, respirator, or face shield. Anytime there is a chance that your clothing or exposed flesh will come into contact with wet or dripping objects, you should wear a gown.
Is gastroenteritis airborne or in droplets?
Vomiting also has the potential to spread infection through the air. Most often, a person with symptoms is the one who spreads it. Some individuals can spread the virus while exhibiting no symptoms.
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The first period of rapid bone growth is
A) during fetal development.
B) from birth to age 2.
C) from age 2 through age 5.
D) during adolescence.
Answer: B) from birth to age 2.
The first period of rapid bone growth occurs during the first two years of life. Hence option b is correct. During this time, bones increase in both length and width, and the body's skeleton is constructed.
This period of rapid bone growth is essential for proper development and growth throughout life . At birth, babies are born with 300 bones, which will eventually fuse together and form 206 bones in the adult body. Most of the bones in the human body form during the first few years of life. During this time, bones are actively forming and growing and are particularly susceptible to environmental influences, such as nutrients and physical activity.
During the first two years of life, bones will grow at a rate of about 1 inch (2.5 cm) per month. This rapid growth gives babies the ability to reach their full height potential by the time they reach school age. During this time, calcium and phosphorus are the two most important minerals for bone growth. These minerals are found in breast milk, formula, and solid foods, and can help ensure that babies get the nutrition they need for healthy bones .Physical activity is also important for bone growth during this period. Infants and toddlers should be encouraged to explore and move around, which helps strengthen the muscles and bones. Activities such as crawling, rolling, and walking are important for proper bone development.
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comprehensive investigations revealed consistent pathophysiological alterations after vaccination with covid-19 vaccines
'Comprehensive investigations revealed consistent pathophysiological alterations after vaccination with COVID-19 vaccines'. This statement is true. In fact, this is the title of one of the study papers from 2021 that has generated a significant amount of controversy.
As a result of the COVID-19 pandemic, widespread COVID-19 vaccination campaigns are presently being carried out in numerous nations. Here, scientists show similar changes in hemoglobin A1c, serum salt and potassium levels, clotting profiles, and kidney functions in healthy volunteers following immunization with an inactivated SARS-CoV-2 vaccine, in addition to the development of neutralizing antibodies. Similar alterations had also been identified in COVID-19 patients, indicating that immunization mirrored an illness.
According to the study, more care should be used when administering vaccinations to those who already have certain clinical diseases (or comorbidities), such as coagulation disorders, diabetes, electrolyte imbalances, kidney dysfunction, etc.
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a pregnant woman at 32 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency room because she has begun to experience bright red vaginal bleeding. she reports that she is experiencing no pain. what does the nurse suspect?
When a pregnant lady at 32 weeks gestation goes to the emergency department because she has started to suffer bright red vaginal bleeding without discomfort, the nurse suspects placenta previa.
A previous birth, being older than 35, and a history of prior procedures, such as a cesarean section (C-section) and uterine fibroid excision, are all risk factors for placenta praevia.
During the second part of pregnancy, bright crimson vaginal bleeding without discomfort is the major symptom. Significant bleeding during or before delivery might also be brought on by the disease.
The following are some potential causes & risk factors for placenta previa. the low success rate of a fertilized egg implanting. Uterine lining abnormalities, such as fibroids. The uterine lining is scarring.
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the nurse is caring for an older client with dementia. for which reasons will the nurse question giving the client a prescribed antipsychotic medication? select all that apply.
In elderly people with dementia, there are numerous behavioural and psychological changes in the patient. Antipsychotics are therefore recommended.
Describe dementia.
A medical disorder known as dementia causes amnesia in the sufferer. As a result, it is difficult to concentrate, which has an impact on daily tasks.
Most cases of dementia are found in older adults. Ageing is the main factor contributing to dementia.
The signs of dementia can be seen as mental disorientation, forgetfulness, mood swings, difficulty concentrating or making decisions, and memory loss.
Dementia is probably inherited. Some brain traumas can cause dementia as well.
Several biochemical tests can be used to diagnose dementia. Brain scans like CT-Scans and MRIs are among the other delicate examinations.
There are numerous variations of dementia. One such prevalent kind of dementia in which the brain's neurons gradually diminish and die is Alzheimer's.
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alendronate (fosamax) is prescribed for a patient. which statement made by the patient will indicate to the nurse that further instruction is needed?
After taking this medication, I could retire to bed is the statement made by the patient will indicate to the nurse that further instruction is needed
Both osteoporosis and Paget's disease of the bones are treated with alendronic acid, a bisphosphonate drug. Fosamax is only one of the brand names used to promote it. It is consumed orally. Usage is frequently suggested together with dietary adjustments that increase calcium intake, vitamin D supplementation, and lifestyle adjustments.
This medicine may, in exceedingly rare circumstances, cause severe esophageal irritation and ulceration. If you have any of the unlikely but highly dangerous side effects described below, you should stop taking alendronate immediately and contact your doctor or pharmacist. Any of these symptoms, including heartburn that has appeared or worsened or swallowing difficulty.
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quick changes in weight during a diet, in particular fad diets or low carb diets, are most likely the result of:
Quick changes in weight during a diet, in particular fad diets or low-carb diets, are most likely the result of: Water weight loss.
When you go on a diet, especially a low-carb diet, your body is deprived of its main source of energy, which is carbohydrates. The Effects of Low-Carb Diets on Weight LossThis process causes your body to break down stored fat and protein, which causes your body to lose water weight. This is why you may see a sudden drop in weight during a low-carb diet.
However, it is important to note that this weight loss is usually temporary, and the weight can quickly return once you return to your normal eating habits. Therefore, it is important to make sure that you are still eating healthy and nutritious food when trying to lose weight.
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what is the most common category of psychological disorders in the united states?which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
Negative symptoms experienced by people living with schizophrenia include: losing interest and motivation in life and activities, including relationships, lack of concentration, not wanting to leave the house, and changes in sleeping patterns.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by recurring or persistent psychotic episodes. Hallucinations, which often involve hearing voices, delusions, and distorted thinking, are among the most prevalent symptoms. Apathy, decreased emotional expressiveness, and social disengagement are further symptoms. Symptoms typically start in early adulthood, develop slowly, and frequently never go away. The diagnosis is made using observed behavior, a history that includes the person's stated experiences, and observations from those who are familiar with the person rather than an objective diagnostic test. Symptoms and functional impairment must be present for six months (DSM-5) or one month in order to be diagnosed with schizophrenia (ICD-11). Substance abuse issues, anxiety disorders, depressive disorders, and obsessive-compulsive disorders are typically present in patients.
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If an individual agrees to participate in a research study because he or she believes that harm or
punishment will result for refusing to participate in the study, the individual's decision to participate
was:
A. Obtained voluntarily.
B. Influenced improperly (coerced).
C. Neither.
Answer: The correct answer is B. Influenced improperly (coerced).
If an individual agrees to participate in a research study because they believe that harm or punishment will result for refusing to participate in the study, their decision to participate was not made voluntarily. It was influenced improperly by the prospect of harm or punishment. Therefore, the individual's decision to participate was coerced.
Explanation:
which std is characterized by active and dormant stages? when a person chooses to treat this std, a future outbreak (active stage) may be more serious and harder to get rid of.
when a person chooses to treat this std, a future outbreak (active stage) may be more serious and harder to get rid of An STD called syphilis is brought on by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.
Up until the development of the antibiotic penicillin in the late 1940s, syphilis posed a serious threat to the population.
Bacterial infection is what it is.
It starts as a sore on the mouth, genitalia, or rectum that doesn't initially hurt.
The infection might become active at any time after lying dormant for years.
It can result in serious health issues if untreated.
It harms the brain, nerves, muscles, eyes, heart, bones, and the heart.
It is quite lethal.
It can be treated with antibiotics, but the injured organs cannot be restored.
Even after treatment, it could flare up once more and get worse.
Muscle aches, sore throats, hair loss, and swollen lymph nodes are common symptoms.
Depending on the patient, these symptoms may arrive and disappear often at first before gradually fading over time.
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a client with a history of schizophrenia is being treated with olanzapine. which assessment should the nurse prioritize when planning care for this client
When organizing care for this client, the nurse should give the metabolic syndrome assessment first priority.
What affects a person with schizophrenia?Schizophrenia is a serious mental condition in which victims have odd perceptions of the world. Schizophrenia can cause incapacitating hallucinations, delusions, and extremely irrational behaviors and thinking that can make it impossible to carry out daily tasks. Schizophrenia patients require ongoing care.
Can one recover from schizophrenia?Chronic mental illness schizophrenia has no known treatment. It results in hallucinations, delusions, delusional thoughts and speaking, behavior problems, and disturbances in emotional affect, which are psychotic symptoms. Although there is no cure for this ailment, it can be properly treated.
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engaging in which of the following increases fitness and vitality and stimulates endorphins and can even rival the effectiveness of antidepressant drugs? question 13 options:
Neurological adverse effects are more likely while using first generation antipsychotics. These include extrapyramidal symptoms of dystonia and tardive dyskinesia, among others.
What stimulates endorphins and rival the effectiveness?Clients may learn from humanistic therapists to: assume more accountability for their own thoughts and deeds. Active listening is a key component of client-centered treatment.
Antipsychotic medications are often only used to treat serious mental diseases like schizophrenia or bipolar disorder due to these negative effects.
Therefore, They can result in hyperglycaemia, sedation, weight gain, and movement abnormalities such twitching and restlessness.
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when educating a client prescribed testosterone transdermal patch therapy, the nurse will provide what information regarding patch placement?
Place the patches on the back, abdomen, upper arms, or thighs information regarding patch placement.
What is the role of a nurse?Nurses treat wounds, give medicine, do regular physicals, take thorough medical histories, monitor blood pressure and heart rate, run diagnostic tests, handle medical equipment, take blood samples, and admit and release patients in accordance with doctor's orders.
Can anybody work as a nurse?The California Board of Registered Nursing must grant you a license before you may work as an RN in California (BRN). Whatever the job's perceived difficulty or ease, you must satisfy educational criteria, pass a criminal history check, and complete the national license exam. Nursing is regarded as a high-stress and challenging profession owing to a variety of factors, including exams.
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a client has severe osteoarthritis in the left hip and is having surgery to replace both articular surfaces of the hip. what type of surgical procedure will the nurse prepare the client for?
A client has severe osteoarthritis in the left hip and is having surgery to replace both articular surfaces of the hip. Reduction is the surgical procedure of the hip used to treat the fracture.
What is the device that is used to treat the certain fractures and maintain the stability of the bones ?It is the splint that makes up the stability of the extremely unstable position of the bone.
Closed reduction is the procedure to set the broken bones without cutting skin open. The broken bone put back in the place that allows it to grow back it together in a better alignment. It works best when it is done as soon as after bone breaks.
Treating osteoporosis does involve the treating and preventing of the fractures and the using of the medicines to make the bones strengthen . Although the diagnosis of the osteoporosis is just on the basis of the results on the results of the bone density scan with the decision about the type of the treatment that is needed if any is based on number of other factors including age and sex.
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which is the only completely reliable way to avoid exposure to sexually transmitted diseases?
The only completely reliable way to avoid exposure to sexually transmitted diseases is to prevent unprotected sex.
STDs are illnesses that can be passed from an infected person to an uninfected person through sexual interaction. Only three of the four diseases are currently curable: trichomoniasis, syphilis, and gonorrhea. The other four viral diseases that cannot be treated are hepatitis B, herpes simplex virus (HSV), HIV, and human papillomavirus (HPV). With the correct application of latex protections, the danger of acquiring or spreading STDs is greatly reduced, albeit not totally eliminated. The only guaranteed way to avoid contracting an STI is to avoid any sexual activity.
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TRUE/FALSE. the rise of preventive medicine contributed to an increasing interest in the measurement of the quality and efficiency, or cost-effectiveness, of medical care.
"The rise of preventive medicine contributed to an increasing interest in the measurement of the quality and efficiency, or cost-effectiveness, of medical care". This statement is false.
Encouraging preventive healthcare is the practice of preventive medicine, which aims to enhance patient wellness. The ultimate objective is to avoid death, illness, and disability. Washing hands, breastfeeding, and vaccinations are a few basic examples of preventive medicine.
What impact does preventative medicine have?New medicinal options are provided by preventive medicine. Primary prevention, or preventing sickness; secondary prevention, or slowing the spread of illnesses; and tertiary prevention, meaning functional recovery via rehabilitation, are the three basic categories of preventive medicine. The fundamental goal of primary prevention is to enhance lifestyle choices, including good nutrition, rest, exercise, and perhaps even mental wellbeing. Cancer screening is a good example of secondary prevention because it strives for early diagnosis and treatment.
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the nurse is conducting an admission assessment of a 41-year-old client. each time that the nurse asks the client a question, the client defers to the client's spouse to answer the question. such behavior is consistent with which personality disorder?
The Dichotomous is behavior is consistent with which personality disorder.
What is Dichotomous ?
A dichotomous key is a crucial piece of scientific equipment used to distinguish between various species based on their observable characteristics. Dichotomous keys are a set of assertions with two options for each that guide users to the right identification.
What is personality disorder ?
A personality disorder is a sort of mental illness where you have an unnaturally inflexible way of thinking, acting, and behaving.
Those with BPD usually exhibit dichotomous thinking, or a tendency to view things as absolute: either black or white, good or bad, with no perception of compromise. This type of thought pattern would not be documented as abstract, irrational, or disorganized.
Therefore, Dichotomous is behavior is consistent with which personality disorder.
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a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (tens) is prescribed for a client with pain, and the nurse provides information to the client about the tens unit. which client statements indicate the need for further teaching? select all that apply.
The needles are inserted in the subcutaneous tissue to stimulate the nerve is that statement indicate the need for further teaching.
What is subcutaneous tissue ?
One of the three layers of skin is the subcutaneous layer, which lies below the dermis. The layer of skin that extends the deepest is made up of fat cells, collagen, blood vessels, and nerves.
What is nerve ?
Your brain sends electrical impulses to the rest of your body through your nerves, which act as cables. Additionally, they continue to carry out some autonomic processes like breathing, sweating, and food digestion. Neurons are another name for nerve cells.
Therefore, needles are inserted in the subcutaneous tissue to stimulate the nerve is that statement indicate the need for further teaching.
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the spouse of a client who has been in a long-term care facility for a few months due to a brain injury that caused a vegetative state asks the nurse why the client is still being fed through the gastrostomy tube. what is the nurse's best response
A state of complete unconsciousness with some eye-opening and periods of wakefulness and sleep is called the vegetative state (VS). DUe to this condition, client is still feeding with gastrostomy tube.
vegetative state (VS) is the brain's "vegetative functions," which frequently return before a person regains consciousness and include controlling respiration, body temperature, and other bodily functions. (Also known as unresponsive wakefulness syndrome) Following a catastrophic brain injury, a person often experiences various stages of rehabilitation. Recovery through these stages be sluggish or cease.
Facts of VS
return of the sleep-wake cycle, which includes intervals of eye opening and closingmight create noises, such as moaning, when stretching out tight muscles.may display various facial expressions, such as a smile or tear, without apparent reason.learn more gastrostomy tube about here
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brain-tingly feeling that may come from hearing whispering or crinkling, in brief
In a word, the answer to the crossword clue "Brain-tingly feeling that may result from hearing whispering or crinkling" is: ASMR
The term "Autonomous Sensory Meridian Response" (ASMR) refers. In most cases, it alludes to the 'tingly feeling' that some people get in response to particular noises, emotions, or descriptions. These might be a light touch, a whisper, or the sound of paper creasing.
The intense relaxation and enjoyable scalp tingling are known as an autonomous sensory meridian response (ASMR). Some people experience certain emotions in reaction to whispering or quiet sounds paired with slow movements and one-on-one attention.
We can therefore conclude that the following is the answer to the crossword puzzle that asks, in essence, "The solution to the Brain-tingly feeling that may result from hearing whispering or crinkling": ASMR
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which reason will the nurse explain is the purpose for neomycin being prescribed to a client with cirrohsis
The nurse will explain the purpose of neomycin being prescribed to a client with cirrhosis is to reduce the blood ammonia level.
The impact of bacterial activity on blood and wastes in the gastrointestinal tract is lessened by lowering the blood ammonia level. Neomycin is an antibacterial aminoglycoside, although it is not given to treat infections. Intestinal edema is either little or not affected by neomycin. Abdominal distention is not diminished by neomycin.
Neomycin is a drug used for perioperative prophylaxis as well as treating and managing hepatic coma. Neomycin is a member of the class of antibiotics known as aminoglycosides; it kills gram-negative bacteria by preventing the production of bacterial proteins.
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what advice should the nurse give a client with dermatitis until the etiology of the dermatitis is identified?
The nurse should give advice as to Put on rubber gloves before handling soaps.
Never swap towels, clothes, bathwater, razors, or washcloths. The spread of these items might infect more people. After treating the boil, wash your hands thoroughly. Any skin condition or underlying illness should be treated.
Although topical corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment, acute, severe allergic contact dermatitis, such as that brought on by poison ivy, frequently necessitates a 2-week course of systemic corticosteroids.
Benzoyl peroxide may cause severe skin rashes or a rare but serious allergic reaction. Stop using this drug and get immediate medical help if you experience any of the following negative effects: Hives, itching, breathing issues, vertigo, or swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or neck may occur.
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when planning care for a client with burns on the upper torso, which nursing diagnosis should take the highest priority?
The highest priority for the diagnosis of burns in the upper torso is Ineffective airway clearance associated with airway edema.
When caring for patients with upper body torso burns, the primary goal of caregivers is to maintain respiratory integrity. Second-degree burns covered more than 10% of her body surface. Burns to the face, arms, legs, or large joints. Third-degree burns. Electrical burns, including electric burns.
The emergency department's first priority remains the airway, breathing, and circulation. respiratory tract. 100% humidified oxygen is administered and the patient is encouraged to cough, which clears secretions.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. High blood levels of the amino acid ________ have been linked to increased risks of cardiovascular disease.
High blood levels of the amino acid homocysteine have been linked to increased risks of cardiovascular disease.
An amino acid is homocysteine.The vitamins B12, B6, and folate break down homocysteine to create other molecules your body needs.Your homocysteine levels may indicate a vitamin insufficiency. Elevated homocysteine raises your chance for dementia, heart disease, and stroke if you don't get therapy.
Homocysteine levels that are too high can harm the lining of your arteries and raise your chance of developing blood clots. This could make you more vulnerable to heart attacks, strokes, and other heart and blood vessel conditions.
The biggest cause of death worldwide, cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), account for 17.9 million fatalities per year. Coronary heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, rheumatic heart disease, and other ailments are among the afflictions that fall under the umbrella term of "CVDs," or cardiovascular and vascular diseases.
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which statement by the parent of a 6 week old would lead the nurse to assess the infant for the prescence of a skeletal abnormality
"It's hard to put the diaper between her legs" would lead the nurse to assess the infant for the presence of a skeletal abnormality.
What is Skeletal abnormality?
Skeletal abnormality is a condition in which the shape, structure, or function of the skeleton is unusual. It can be caused by genetic or environmental factors, and it can affect any part of the skeleton. Common skeletal abnormalities include skeletal dysplasias, such as achondroplasia and spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia, and skeletal deformities, such as scoliosis. Symptoms vary depending on the type of abnormality, but can include stunted or deformed limbs, delayed growth, and pain. Treatment options can include medications, physical therapy, or surgery.
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after checking for breathing and a pulse, you find that the patient is not breathing normally but does have a pulse. Rescue breaths are needed. What is the ventilation rate?
1 breath every 6 seconds...10 breaths per minute
check for pulse every 2 minutes and do CPR if there is no pulse.
What is Ventilation rate?
An athlete's ventilation rate will immediately increase in reaction to exercise, just like their heart rate does. The body is responding to the rising levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, which is the same cause of the increase in HR. Your body must exhale the carbon dioxide in order to eliminate it. Your body's ability to eliminate more carbon dioxide while also inhaling more oxygen is increased by raising your respiratory rate.
The ventilation flow rate can be expressed as an air-change rate proportional to the volume of the space or as an absolute ventilation flow rate expressed in l/s or m3/s. The air-change rate is the relative amount of inflow air per unit time in this recommendation, whereas the ventilation rate is the absolute quantity of inflow air per unit time (litre per second or l/s, cubic metre per hour or m3/hr).
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a child drank most of a bottle of furniture polish. which does the nurse expect will be done for this child?
The nurse would expect to call the poison control center for a child who has consumed most of a bottle of furniture polish.
If a suspected poisoning occurs, the poison control center should be informed promptly. The nurse can assist the mother in contacting the poison control center. Without consulting the poison control center, vomiting should not be forced. If the client is unconscious or the material they swallowed is a potent corrosive or petroleum product, inducing vomiting is not recommended.
Treatment would be delayed if the child were sent to the emergency room or if an ambulance were called. In the event that the poison control center advises the mother to take the child to the emergency room, the mother needs to contact an ambulance.
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A nurse id planning care for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ADRS). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Administer low-flow oxygen continuously via nasal cannula
b. Encourage oral intake of at least 3000 mL of fluids per day
c. Offer high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods frequently
d. Place in a prone position
d. Place in a prone position
The intervention that nurse should include in the plan of care for ARDS is (d) Place in a prone position.
The tiny, elastic air sacs (alveoli) in your lungs experience fluid buildup, which results in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Less oxygen enters your circulation because of the fluid's ability to prevent your lungs from filling with enough air. Your organs are deprived of the oxygen they require to function as a result.
People who are already critically ill or have severe injuries are more likely to develop ARDS. The primary symptom of ARDS, severe shortness of breath, typically appears a few hours to a few days after the injury or illness that caused it.
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