use the list of choices below for the following question: i. helicase ii. dna polymerase iii iii. ligase iv. dna polymerase i v. primase which of the enzymes covalently connects segments of dna?

Answers

Answer 1

Enzymes which covalently connects segments of DNA is v)primase. So, correct option is v.

Primase is a catalyst that blends short RNA groupings called groundworks. These preliminaries act as a beginning stage for DNA union. Since primase produces RNA particles, the protein is a kind of RNA polymerase. Primase capabilities by integrating short RNA groupings that are reciprocal to a solitary abandoned piece of DNA, which fills in as its format.

Primase is important that groundworks are blended by primase before DNA replication can happen. This is on the grounds that the chemicals that incorporate DNA, which are called DNA polymerases, can join new DNA nucleotides to a current strand of nucleotides. Hence, primase serves to prime and establish a groundwork for DNA blend.

Hence, option v is correct.

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Related Questions

the hypothesis that processes similar to those at work in microevolution can, over eons of time, transform an organism into a completely different kind of organism.

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The hypothesis that processes similar to those at work in microevolution can, over eons of time, transform an organism into a completely different kind of organism is one of the most important theories in evolutionary biology.

This hypothesis proposes that small, incremental changes in an organism's genes, traits, and behavior can accumulate over long periods of time to yield substantial changes in the species. In other words, small differences in characteristics can accumulate and become much larger ones, eventually leading to the emergence of an entirely new species.

The primary process at work in this hypothesis is natural selection. Over time, certain traits become more advantageous than others, and those that are beneficial are more likely to be passed on to future generations. This leads to the gradual accumulation of beneficial traits, which can eventually lead to a major change in the organism. For example, a species of birds living in an environment with a great deal of wind may gradually evolve larger wings to help them better navigate the air currents.

Another process important to the hypothesis is genetic drift. This occurs when random changes in the gene pool occur due to chance, rather than due to natural selection. These changes can sometimes be beneficial, and they can accumulate over time, leading to significant changes in the species.

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A group of stone age farmers settles on a remote island. The allele frequency of this first generation is P=0.8 and Q=0.2, with P being the dominant allele frequency and Q being the recessive allele frequency. One thousand years later, no member of this population has the recessive allele. This is an example of: A) Natural Selection B) Genetic Drift C) Mutation D) Gene Flow

Answers

A group of stone-age farmers settles on a remote island, and the allele frequency of this first generation is P = 0.8 and Q = 0.2. One thousand years later, no member of this population has the recessive allele, and this is an example of the genetic drift present in Option B.

What is genetic drift?

Genetic drift occurs when genes from one population migrate to another through migration, mating, or other means, causing changes in the gene pool of that population. In this way, after a thousand years, the recessive allele is lost.

Hence, this population has no recessive allele, and this is an example of the genetic drift present in Option B.

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french biologist, living in the late 1700s and early 1800s, who was the first to propose a mechanism by which evolution might occur. although this mechanism was later found to be incorrect, he was the first to emphasis how the environment plays a key role in evolution and that the environment can help explain changes in organismal forms seen in the fossil record.

Answers

Answer:

Jean Baptiste Lamarck

In the general population, 1 in 300 individuals is a carrier for Tay-Sachs disease, while 1 in 30 individuals of Ashkenazi Jew descent are carriers. Tay-Sachs also affects 1 in 30 individuals with French-Canadian ancestry, although two completely unique mutations are responsible for the Ashkenazi and French-Canadian mutations.Part A What are the chances of two individuals having a child with Tay-Sachs if both individuals are not of Ashkenazi or French-Canadian descent? Enter your answer using scientific notation. For the multiplication symbol, use an asterisk ). 2.77×10-8 Submit My Answers Give Up CorrectPart B What are the chances of two individuals having a child with Tay-Sachs if one individual is of Ashkenazi descent and one is not? 2.77*10-5 Submit My Answers Give Up CorrectPart B What are the chances of two individuals having a child with Tay-Sachs if one individual is of Ashkenazi descent and one is not? 2.77*10-5 Submit My Answers Give Up CorrectPart D What are the chances of two individuals having a child with Tay-Sachs if the father is an Ashkenazi carrier and the mother is a French-Canadian carrier?

Answers

(1/30) × (1/300) × 1/4 = 2.77 × 10⁻⁵,Chance of mom being a carrier × Chance of dad being a carrier × Chance of having an affected child if both parents are carriers), In the general population, 1 in 300 individuals is a carrier for Tay-Sachs disease, while 1 in 30 individuals of Ashkenazi Jew descent are carriers

Tay-Sachs disease is a rare genetic ailment that is inherited from both parents. It is brought on by the lack of an enzyme that aids in the breakdown of fatty materials. These fatty compounds, known as gangliosides, accumulate to toxic amounts in the brain and spinal cord and impair the nerve cells' ability to function. By the age of 3 to 5 years, the illness is typically deadly, frequently as a result of complications from a lung infection (pneumonia). Juvenile Tay-Sachs disease and other uncommon forms of the disease first manifest in early adulthood or later in childhood (late-onset Tay-Sachs disease).

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Primary motor neurons of the __________ motor pathway originate in the primary motor cortex, whereas primary motor neurons of the __________ motor pathway originate in the brainstem
direct, indirect

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Primary motor neurons of the direct motor pathway originate in the primary motor cortex, whereas primary motor neurons of the indirect motor pathway originate in the brainstem.

The term "motor neuron" refers to a specific type of neuron whose cell body is found in the motor cortex, brainstem, or spinal cord and whose axon (fiber) travels to the spinal cord or to sites outside the body to directly or indirectly control effector organs, primarily muscles and glands. The two different types of motor neurons are upper motor neurons and lower motor neurons. Interneurons in the spinal cord allow upper and lower motor neuron axons to occasionally connect directly. The axons from the lower motor neurons are the efferent nerve fibers that transmit signals from the spinal cord to the effectors. Lower order motor neuron types include alpha and beta motor neurons.

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the atp synthase from bovine heart mitochondria has 8 c subunits. what is the p:o ratio for nadh? use 2 significant figures

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The ATP synthase from bovine heart mitochondria has 8 c subunits, and the p:o ratio for NADH will be 2.7.

Adenosine triphosphate, an energy storage molecule, is made from ADP and inorganic phosphate by the enzyme ATP synthase. Because it modifies ADP by producing a P-O link, ligases are the category that best describes this enzyme. A molecular machine that produces ATP is called ATP synthase.

The enzyme that was extracted from the mitochondria of bovine hearts had a c8 ring.  which will result in an expected P/O of 10/(2.67 + 1) = 2.7. As a result, the ratio of H+ to ATP will be 2.67. 

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The pelvic splanchnic nerves are formed by preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the ______ region of the spinal cord.

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Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the sacral region of the spinal cord form the pelvic splanchnic nerves.

The pelvic splanchnic nerves are preganglionic nerves that emerge from the spinal cord's lateral horn grey matter at the sacral segments of the S2, S3, and S4. The S3 nerve usually contributes the most of these fibers.

Sympathetic nerve fibers emerge from the gray matter of the spinal cord's intermediolateral horns between segments T-1 and L-3. There are no sympathetic nerve fibers that originate in the cervical or lumbar or sacral segments of the cord below L-3.

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Which one of these series of events is in the correct
chronological order of first appearance?
A. Photosynthesis, multicellularity, eukaryotic
cells, prokaryotic cells
B. Prokaryotic cells, photosynthesis,
multicellularity, eukaryotic cells
C. Photosynthesis, prokaryotic cells,
multicellularity, eukaryotic cells
D. Prokaryotic cells, photosynthesis, eukaryotic
cells, multicellularity
E. None of the above

Answers

Among these series of events D) Prokaryotic cells, photosynthesis, eukaryotic cells, multicellularity is correct.

The process includes of three distinct but brief phases: the growth phase, during which the mass of the cell increases; the chromosomal replication phase; and the final phase, during which the chromosomes are divided and the cells are physically split into two independent new cells. To begin with, whether a cell has a nucleus determines which of two primary classes it belongs to. Eukaryotic cells, which include bacteria, have a nucleus where the genetic material is segregated from the cytoplasm. Prokaryotic cells, which include bacteria, lack a nuclear envelope. Comparing prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, the former are often smaller and more basic. Despite these distinctions, prokaryotes and eukaryotes both rely on the same fundamental molecular pathways for survival, proving that all modern cells are descendants of a single primordial progenitor. The process by which plants convert carbon dioxide, water, and sunshine into oxygen and sugar-based energy is known as photosynthesis. The four stages of photosynthesis include light absorption, electron transfer, ATP production, and carbon fixation.

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a complete halt to trading with a particular nation or in a particular product is called an embargo.

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An embargo is a full halt to trade with a specific country or in a specific good. . true.

When a product is exported in huge quantities, is the price lower than what it would be if it were sold domestically or less than what it would cost to make the product?

Dumping happens when a nation or business exports a good at a cost that is less expensive in the foreign market than it is in the exporter's home market.The ability of flood the market with goods at prices that are frequently thought to be unfair is the main benefit of dumping.

Is indeed the exportation of a commodity in big numbers at a cheaper cost than the domestic market price?

Dumping is the export of a product in big quantities at a cheaper rate than the domestic market price for the same product.

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which of the following correctly describes the order of how information is sent through the papez circuit?

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C. Thalamus → cingulate cortex → hippocampus → mammillary bodies → thalamus is the correct order of how information is sent through the Papez circuit.

The Papez circuit is a circuit of neurons that starts in the thalamus, which then connects to the cingulate cortex. The cingulate cortex then connects to the hippocampus, and then to the mammillary bodies, which then connect back to the thalamus. This circuit is thought to be involved in processing emotions and memory.

The circuit includes the hippocampus, the entorhinal cortex, the mammillary bodies, the anterior thalamic nuclei, the cingulate gyrus, and the prefrontal cortex. This circuit helps the brain to store and retrieve memories, as well as process emotions.

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which of the following correctly describes the order of how information is sent through the Papez circuit?

A.

Cingulate cortex → thalamus → hippocampus → mammillary bodies → cingulate cortex

B.

Cingulate cortex → hippocampus → thalamus → mammillary bodies → cingulate cortex

C.

Thalamus → cingulate cortex → hippocampus → mammillary bodies → thalamus

D.

Thalamus → cingulate cortex → mammillary bodies → hippocampus → thalamus

manipulations that decrease blood glucose level cause ; manipulations that increase blood glucose level cause . group of answer choices an increase in hunger; a decrease in hunger an increase in general arousal; a decrease in general arousal a decrease in general arousal; an increase in general arousal a decrease in hunger; an increase in hunger

Answers

An increase in hunger is a side effect of blood glucose level manipulations. A decrease in hunger is a side effect of blood glucose level manipulations.

The quantity of glucose dissolved in a person's blood is known as blood glucose. For their energy needs, the body's many cells obtain this glucose. Diabetes, on the other hand, is a condition where the cells do not absorb the dissolved glucose.

Hunger is an organism's desire to consume food. The hormone ghrelin causes the body to produce the sensation of hunger. When the stomach is empty, it is let go. It causes the hypothalamus to send a signal that makes someone feel hungry.

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Peter went swimming at a lake with his friends. They arrived early in the morning. Peter walked on the sand around the lake with his bare feet. The sand is cool. At noon, when Peter walked around the lake with his bare feet, the sand is very hot.

What has made the sand hot at noon?
A heat from the motion of the waterheat from the motion of the water
B hot rock under Earth’s surfacehot rock under Earth’s surface
C radiant energy from the Sunradiant energy from the Sun
D warmth from human bodies

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

pls mark me the brainliest

The radiation from the sun warms the sand. Therefore, option "C" is correct.

What is low specific heat?

Sand has low unambiguous intensity, meaning it needs almost no energy from the sun to warm up quickly. Sand can store a significant amount of the gained thermal energy due to its high density.

The amount of intensity expected to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance by one Celsius degree is referred to as the specific heat. Typically, calories or joules per gram and Celsius degrees are the units of specific heat. Water, for instance, has a specific heat of 1 calorie (or 4.186 joules) per gram for every degree Celsius.

Therefore, matters having low specific heat get warm easily which they get in contact with the heating material.

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The five phases of a hazardous material's life does not include production, transportation, storage, elimination, and disposal. True or False.

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It is false that the five phases of a hazardous material's life does not include production, transportation, storage, elimination, and disposal.

What are hazardous material?

Hazardous materials are substances or chemicals that are harmful to the environment or pose a health risk.

Toxic materials, are compounds that when able to transport are a risk to health, protection, property and the environment. Hazardous materials are dangerous goods that pose risks even when not being transported.

Consider the five phases of a hazardous material's "life" when determining where they are found in your community: production, transportation, storage, use, and disposal.

Thus, the given statement is false.

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Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries has the GREATEST risk for shock due to blood loss? A. pelvic fracture B. posterior hip dislocation C. unilateral femur fracture D. proximal humerus fracture

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Pelvic Fracture is a musculoskeletal injury which has a greater risk for shock due to blood loss, among the rest of the options.

A break in one or more of your pelvic bones is known as a pelvic fracture. The severity of pelvic fractures, which are a rare kind of fracture, can range from minor to severe. While minor pelvic fractures typically heal without surgery, major fractures necessitate treatment.

With a shattered pelvis, it is painful to stand, sit, or move around. The bladder, intestines, and other significant blood arteries are shielded either by the pelvis. Numerous significant abdominal and leg muscles also link to the pelvis, enabling proper body motion and function.

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in checkpoint inhibition therapy, which of the following is a protein targeted by therapeutic monoclonal antibodies?

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Monoclonal antibodies or targeted therapies are how checkpoint inhibitors are characterized.

How do blood antibodies work?

Antibody-containing proteins are found in plasma. They are a part of the natural defenses that your body has. They recognize foreign substances, such as germs, and alert your immune system, which subsequently gets rid of them. Red blood cells' surface shell contains glycoprotein known as antigens.

What do dangerous antibodies do?

Autoimmune diseases can be brought on by the "bad" antibodies, which also are known to fight against body's own tissues. It was formerly believed that they were rendered inactive over time or that the immune eliminated them because of this.

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look over the pedigree you constructed in part a. based on the inheritance pattern, which mode of inheritance must be the cause of galactosemia? view available hint(s)for part b look over the pedigree you constructed in part a.based on the inheritance pattern, which mode of inheritance must be the cause of galactosemia? sex-linked dominant autosomal dominant sex-linked recessive autosomal recessive

Answers

Autosomal recessive, Galactosemia must be an autosomal recessive trait as their daughter has the same ailment and there is no indication of a sex-linkage.

Galactosemia is a form of mutation, right?

CRM+ missense mutations, the most prevalent type, CRM- missense mutations, and splicing mutations are the three kinds of disease-causing mutations that have been identified. Due to the well-documented clinical diversity associated with galactosemia, it is interesting that the illness is heterogeneous at the molecular level as well.

Is the deletion mutation galactosemia present?

Galactosemia is a metabolic condition brought on by a GALT (galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase) enzyme deficiency. We have previously demonstrated that the Duarte (D2) allele is related with a deletion in the GALT gene's 5' upstream (promoter) region.

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Can anyone do this for me like 10-20 minutes?

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The six geneticists can be Gregor Mendel, Francis Collins, Wilhelm Johannsen, William Bateson, Hugo DeVries, and Tschermak.

What is genetics?

The scientific study of genes and heredity i.e., how particular traits or qualities are passed from parents to children as a result of changes in DNA sequence is known as genetics.

Gregor Mendel We have a better understanding of the fundamentals of inheritance because to Gregor Mendel's work on the pea plant. The originator of genetics

Francis Collins, an American geneticist and former head of the National Institutes of Health, uncovered the genes that cause hereditary disorders (NIH).

Wilhelm Johannsen, a botanist, first used the term "gene" to refer to the Mendelian units of heredity. From the word gene, William Bateson created the term genetics in 1905.

A generation after Mendel published his papers, Hugo DeVries, Carl Correns, and Tschermak each independently rediscovered Mendel's work in the same year.

Thus, these are some geneticists who are well known for their works.

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The data in the graph are the result of a paramecium being placed in a hypertonic salt solution.

A graph entitled Paramecium Contractile Vacuole Contractions has salt concentration on the horizontal axis and contractions per minute on the vertical axis. A very low salt concentration has 30 contractions per minute, low: 22, medium: 15, high: 8, very-high: 2.

Based on the data in the graph, which would most likely happen if the paramecium were placed in distilled water?

Answers

Based on the data in the graph, the most likely thing that will happen if the paramecium were placed in distilled water is that the contractions would increase.

What is paramecium?

Paramecium is described as a genus of eukaryotic, unicellular ciliates, commonly studied as a representative of the ciliate group.

The most likely thing that will happen if the paramecium were placed in distilled water is that the contractions would increase as the result of a hypertonic solution.

The total movement of water in an aqueous solution is from the higher water concentration to a lower water concentration and so because a hypertonic solution has higher solute in the cell than the outside. The movement is from the cell to the outside and so the cell will shrink.

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Answer:

The contractions would increase.

Explanation:

1. to calculate the frequency of the brown allele, count the number of blank and divide by the total number of alleles in this population.target 1 of 5 2. in this beetle population, the number of brown alleles is blank.target 2 of 5 3. in this beetle population, the total number of alleles for color is blank.target 3 of 5 4. the frequency of the brown allele in this beetle population is blank.target 4 of 5 5. the frequency of the green allele in this beetle population is blank.target 5 of 5

Answers

To calculate the frequency of the brown allele, count the number of brown alleles and divide by the total number of alleles in this population.

To calculate the allele frequency, divide the number of times the allele of interest is observed in a population by the total number of copies of all the alleles at that particular genetic locus in the population. Allele frequency can be expressed as a decimal, percentage, or fraction.

The distribution of genetic variation in a population is depicted by the relative genotype frequencies. Relative allele frequency is the percentage of all copies of a specific gene in a population that carry a specific allele. This is an accurate measure of genetic variation in a population. The fraction or percentage of a population that carries an allele at a specific locus is referred to as gene frequency.

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Please concisely explain the difference between ecosystem function and ecosystem services. Your answer
should be a single complete and grammatical sentence.

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Answer: Ecosystem function refers to the processes and interactions that take place within an ecosystem, such as the cycling of nutrients and energy through the food web. Ecosystem services, on the other hand, are the benefits that humans derive from ecosystems, such as the provision of food, clean water, and air, as well as the regulation of climate and other environmental factors.

explain the following terms: dna,chromosomes,sister chromosomes homologous chromosomes and replication chromosomes

Answers

DNA stores the genetic code, chromosomes are thread-like structures, and sister chromatids are two halves of chromosomes.

Your genetic code is stored in every cell of your body in the form of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). It makes your body's instruction manual. The DNA molecule is packaged into thread-like structures called chromosomes in each cell's nucleus. The term "homologous chromosome" refers to chromosomes that share the same genetic foundation but may also have variants caused by replication. The two halves of a given chromosome that are held together at the centromere are called sister chromatids. After the cell has gone through the process of DNA replication in order to get ready for cell division, chromosomes are known as "replication chromosomes" emerge.

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Help me with this questions​

Answers

Answer:

(1) In this experiment, the variable that should be changed is the temperature at which the seeds are germinated.

(2) The variable that should be measured is the rate of germination, or the percentage of seeds that germinate within a certain time period.

(3) Some important variables that should be kept constant in this experiment include the type of seeds used, the amount of moisture the seeds are exposed to, and the amount of light the seeds receive. These variables can all affect the rate of germination, so it is important to keep them constant in order to accurately measure the effect of temperature on germination.

ADH (Anti-diuretic hormone) is important in maintaining homeostasis in mammals. ADH is released from hypothalamus in response to high tissue osmolarity (=less water in blood). In response to ADH, the collecting duct and distal tubule In the kidney become more permeable to water; which Increases water reabsorption Into caplllaries: The amount of hormone released is controlled by a negative feedback loop. Based on the model presented, what is the relationship between ADH release, osmolarity and production of urine? poni As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted 05 urine As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as unne As tissue osmolarity rises more ADH is released, causing more water t0 be excreted as urine As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted 0: unne Tivo of the above

Answers

Option a. As tissue osmolarity RISES, MORE ADH is released, causing LESS water to be excreted as urine.  The relationship between ADH release, osmolarity and production of urine.

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a chemical produced within the brain that causes the kidneys to release less water, reducing the quantity of urine produced. A high ADH stage reasons the frame to provide less urine. A low degree results in greater urine production.

ADH is a substance produced naturally in a place of the brain known as the hypothalamus. it is then launched by using the pituitary gland at the bottom of the mind.

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The primary function of the humoral, or antibody-mediated, immune response is to control freely circulating pathogens.
Drag the images into the corresponding boxes to indicate the correct order of events illustrating the mechanism of antibody-mediated immunity.
Humoral
1- A B cell binds to the antigen for which it is specific. A T-dependent B cell requires cooperation with a T helper cell.
2- the B cell, oftern with stimulation by cytokines from a T helper cell, differentiates into a plasma cell. Some B cells become memory cells.
3- Plasma cells proliferate and prodcue antibodies against the antigen.

Answers

The pathogen is first engulfed by a macrophage. The macrophage then breaks down the bacterium and displays the pathogen's antigens in step two. The third step involves a T helper cell attaching to a macrophage and becoming an activated T helper cell. Step 4: A B cell is triggered by a T helper cell that has bound to another B cell.

How does antibody-mediated immunity work?

The antibody-mediated immune response's effector response is completed in three steps: B-cell growth and activation to create antibodies. A change in antibody class. Antigen elimination is mediated by antibodies.

What is the proper flow of dialogue in a humorous response?

The following is a timeline of what happens in the comedy reaction. 1) Pathogen-eating macrophages display antigen on TH cell-specific MHC II markers. 2) Particular TH cells attach to the MHC II complex through particular cell receptors. 4) A TH cell that has been activated multiplies and produces interleukin II.

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The typical skeletal muscle fiber contains several components that facilitate the production of ATP. Check All That Apply a. Mitochondria b. Myoglobin c. Myosin d. Glycogen

Answers

The normal skeletal muscle fiber has a number of parts that help ATP generation.

The mitochondria of muscle fibers produce ATP during routine tasks and modest exercise, a process known as aerobic respiration. In order to break down food energy (often glucose and fat) and produce ATP for muscular contractions, aerobic respiration needs oxygen. The three following processes—glycolysis, tricarboxylic acid cycle, and lastly oxidative phosphorylation—catabolize glucose, the primary energy source for cellular metabolism, to create ATP. Slow-twitch muscle fibers, also known as type I fibers, are red in color and have a lot of mitochondria. Myoglobin, a protein that both stores oxygen in muscle and transports oxygen in the blood to the mitochondria, is correlated with fiber color.

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Defective proteins are often degraded quickly, making their effects temporary. Single amino acid substitutions caused by errors in mRNA transcription would not affect protein function. Unlike DNA mutations, mRNA transcripts have short half-lives and are not inherited across many generations. Degradation of defective proteins activates mRNA repair pathways RNA polymerases synthesize many transcripts per gene, so only a small fraction of RNA transcripts would have errors. ch mRNA molecule is only translated once and then degraded. Incorrect At least one of the reasons you have selected does not explain why RNA polymerases do not require rigorous error correction. Transcription can produce many mRNA transcripts that then can be translated into many proteins. If only one of these mRNAs contains an error, not all the copies of that particular protein will contain an error. Additionally, mRNAs and proteins have a finite lifetime and can be degraded while DNA persists from generation to generation. Identify answers that are consistent with these features of transcription and translation.

Answers

It is true to say that defective proteins are often degraded quickly, making their effects temporary.

Protein degradation assumes a focal part in numerous cell capabilities. Misfolded and harmed proteins are taken out from the cell to keep away from harmfulness. The convergences of administrative proteins are changed by degradation at the fitting time. Both unfamiliar and local proteins are processed into little peptides as a feature of the versatile safe reaction. In eukaryotic cells, an ATP-subordinate protease called the proteasome is liable for quite a bit of this proteolysis.

Proteins are focused on for proteasomal degradation by a two-section degron, which comprises of a proteasome restricting sign and a debasement inception site. Here we depict how the two parts add to the particularity of corruption. Single amino acid substitutions  can do degradation of defective proteins which activates mRNA repair pathways.

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(Complete question) is:

Defective proteins are often degraded quickly, making their effects temporary. Single amino acid substitutions caused by errors in mRNA transcription would not affect protein function. Unlike DNA mutations, mRNA transcripts have short half-lives and are not inherited across many generations. Degradation of defective proteins activates mRNA repair pathways RNA polymerases synthesize many transcripts per gene, so only a small fraction of RNA transcripts would have errors. ch mRNA molecule is only translated once and then degraded. Incorrect At least one of the reasons you have selected does not explain why RNA polymerases do not require rigorous error correction. Transcription can produce many mRNA transcripts that then can be translated into many proteins. If only one of these mRNAs contains an error, not all the copies of that particular protein will contain an error. Additionally, mRNAs and proteins have a finite lifetime and can be degraded while DNA persists from generation to generation. Identify answers that are consistent with these features of transcription and translation.Select statement is true or false.

be able to describe the environmental conditions that might give rise to semelparity vs. iteroparity.

Answers

Salmon in the Pacific are semelparous, putting enormous energy into a single, massive reproductive attempt. Iteroparous individuals have recurrent reproductive cycles (most vertebrates, shrubs, and trees).

Why is semelparity more common than iteroparity?

The average individual in the iteroparous population will generate 340 seeds in its lifetime, more than in the semelparous population, if adult mortality in the population is 30% annually. Semelparity will be preferred over iteroparity in populations with a high enough mortality rate.

Why is semelparity advantageous?

Semelparity has the benefit of enabling an organism to invest as much as possible in reproduction, leading to larger clutch sizes, greater parental investment, or quicker generation times.

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Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth ? A. All organisms require energy . B. All organisms reproduce . C. All organisms show heritable variation . D. All organisms use essentially the same genetic code .

Answers

Cell function is often strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth as all organisms reproduce. Thus, option B is correct.

What are centrioles?

Centrioles has been considered as the small, cylindrical cell organelles, which is present just near the nuclei of the animal cells. It has been involved in the formation of the spindle fibers at the time of the cell division that help in the proper separation of the chromosomes during cell division.

Nucleus as well as ribosomes has been present in both animal and plant cells, while cell wall is found only in plant cell. The organelle in the diagram that should be listed under animal only will be 'centriole.'

Therefore, Cell function is often strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth as all organisms reproduce. Thus, option B is correct.

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Propose a hypothesis in an attempt to find explanations for this curiosioty ​

Answers

Answer:

True As you find an hypotheses to learn something new. I hope this is what you meant.

sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when an individual has two recessive alleles. scientists have discovered that some people who are carriers of one allele for sickle-cell anemia are protected against malaria. deduce which genotype would be the most advantageous to protect people against malaria without causing sickle-cell anemia.

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Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when an individual has two recessive alleles.

Scientists have discovered that some people who are carriers of one allele for sickle-cell anemia are protected against malaria. Aa Heterozygous genotype would be the most advantageous to protect people against malaria without causing sickle-cell anemia.

A genetic disorder called sickle cell anemia manifests from birth. The changed or mutated genes from your mother, father, or both parents are the root cause of many genetic disorders.

Red blood cells in sickle cell anemia sufferers have a crescent or sickle shape. A hemoglobin gene mutation is the cause of this odd form. Red blood cells' haemoglobin component enables them to carry oxygen to tissues all over your body.

Red blood cells' sickle shape can cause a number of difficulties. They can get caught inside blood arteries because of their atypical structure, resulting in uncomfortable symptoms. Furthermore, sickle cells age more rapidly than regular red blood cells, which can cause anemia. Some genetic disorders, but not all of them, can be passed down from one or both parents. One such disorder is sickle cell anemia. It has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance.

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