The correct answer is False ; Many people believe that smoking cigars and pipes is safer than smoking cigarettes. While the danger of acquiring cancer from smoking cigars and pipes is lower than that of smoking cigarettes, it is not zero. Cigar and pipe smokers continue to have a higher risk of cancer than nonsmokers.
Yes. If you only smoke one pipe every week, the tobacco will dry out. That is a waste of time. Smoking a few pipes a day can make you feel better and the tobacco will not become as dry between smokes.
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#39 The Joint Commission's requirements for the minimum contents of the medical staff bylaws include all but which of the following:
A. fair hearing
B. credentialing, privileging, and appointment
C. medical staff infection control committee
D. corrective actions
Answer:
A. fair hearing
The Joint Commission's requirements for the minimum contents of the medical staff bylaws include provisions for credentialing, privileging, and appointment, as well as a requirement for a medical staff infection control committee. However, the Joint Commission's requirements do not include a provision for a fair hearing. A fair hearing is a process in which a medical staff member who has been accused of wrongdoing or has had their privileges challenged can present their side of the story and have their case heard by a neutral third party. While fair hearing processes are an important part of medical staff governance and can help to ensure that decisions about privileges and appointments are fair and unbiased, they are not specifically required by the Joint Commission. Other requirements for the minimum contents of medical staff bylaws may include provisions for corrective actions, peer review, and medical staff governance.
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Explanation:
FILL INTHE BLANK under the hipaa privacy rule, when an individual asks to see his or her own health information, a covered entity_____ . must always provide access can deny access to psychotherapy notes can demand that the individual pay to see his or her record can always deny access
under the hipaa privacy rule, when an individual asks to see his or her own health information, a covered entity can deny access to psychotherapy notes.
The HIPAA Privacy Rule establishes national standards to protect patient medical records and other individually identifiable health information, and it is applicable to health plans, healthcare clearinghouses, and healthcare providers who participate in particular electronic health care transactions (collectively referred to as "protected health information"). Without a person's consent, the Rule places restrictions and conditions on the uses and disclosures of protected health information that are permitted. Additionally, it requires appropriate safeguards to maintain the confidentiality of such data. People are also given access rights to their protected health information under the Rule, including access to their medical records for viewing and copying.
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both klebsia pneumonie and sttreprococcus pneumone avoid phagocytosis by releasing ab toxins that kill lukocyte true or false
FALSE. By producing leukocyte-killing ab otoxin, Klebsia pneumonie and Streptococcus pneumonie both resist phagocytosis.
Not all Klebsiella pneumoniae infections are harmful. But when it does, it's pure stuff for nightmares. The bacteria may create a variety of issues when it is not in the stomach, not the least of which is the horrific necrotizing fasciitis, which can kill a healthy person in a matter of days. The homologous wzi, wzc, and/or wzy alleles of the cps locus, as well as whole genome data, have been used in more recent research to categorize K. pneumoniae capsules [45–49]. The CPS conceals subsurface features like the external membrane protein K36 (OmpK36) that cause complement activation in order to avoid being killed by serum complement [50, 51]. FALSE. By producing leukocyte-killing ab otoxin, Klebsia pneumonie and Streptococcus pneumonie both resist phagocytosis.Tetracycline, sulfonamides, rifampin, aminoglycosides, and quinolones are a few therapeutic options. Ciprofloxacin can be used to treat ozena for a period of three months.
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for dinner, brice goes to a sports bar and orders a dozen chicken wings, a side of nacho cheese fries, and drinks four beers while watching his favorite basketball team on the big screen. which of the following changes could brice have made to better comply with the dietary guidelines?
In the sports bar, Brice should have ordered a baked sweet potato instead of nacho cheese fries.
The purpose of the Dietary guidelines is to produce recommendation on what to eat and drink to create a healthy diet that may promote healthy growth and development, facilitate stop diet-related chronic unwellness, and meet nutrient desires.
Baked sweet potatoes are an alimentary and healthy complicated saccharide that you just will fancy year-round . each sweet and savory, this prime potato choose is packed filled with vitamins, minerals, antioxidants, and fiber. Sweet potatoes may be mashed and served as a facet, in casseroles, or sliced and baked for sweet potato fries.
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Which of the following psychologists most likely deals with the special mental health problems faced by the elderly?A.Geropsychologists; B. clinical; C. Neuropsychologists
The correct answer about the psychologists which deals with the special mental health problems faced by the elderly is the Geropsychologists.
The correct answer choice is option a.
What is meant by physiologist?A physiologist simply refers to a person who studies the function of the structures of the body. In order words, someone who studies physiology is called physiologist. There are different branches of physiologist; among which also includes the ones which is concerned with special mental health problems faced by the elderly and is known as Geropsychologists.
In conclusion, we can now confirm from the explanation given above that physiologists too are closely related to physicians.
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the overload demands placed on the body during exercise enable it to handle added stresses and strains that occur during physical activity. True or False
TRUE. The body can tolerate additional strains and stresses that arise during physical activity thanks to the excessive demands imposed on it during exercise.
The body must be overloaded in order to gain physical fitness because, under higher demands (overload), the body gets stronger. The next time, you should use five pounds heavier, walk for five minutes longer, and exercise five times more. The fundamental idea that says you must engage in more physical activity than is typical (overload) to enhance your physical fitness and gain health advantages. For those who are disabled, exercise is more crucial than for those who are well. When your body adjusts to your current routine, you should increase overload, which may be accomplished by employing FITT (frequency, intensity, time, and type).
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Describe what is meant by descriptive statistics
Descriptive statistics show and summarize the basic characteristics of a dataset found in the study presented in the summary describing the data sample and its measurements.
What is Descriptive Statistics?A descriptive statistic is defined as a summary statistic which quantitatively describes or summarizes characteristics from a collection of information. This is the process of using and analyzing those data.
There are four types of descriptive statistics:
Measures of FrequencyMeasures of Central TendencyMeasures of Dispersion or VariationMeasures of PositionDescriptive Statistics help analysts to understand the data better.
Thus, descriptive statistics show and summarize the basic characteristics of a dataset found in the study presented in the summary describing the data sample and its measurements.
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doctors and hospitals that operate as health maintenance organizations (hmos) obtain payment based on the number o
Plans called HMO Point-of-Service (HMOPOS) HMOs let you receive some treatments outside of your network in exchange for a higher copayment or premium.
A health maintenance organisation (HMO) is what, exactly?A health insurance policy known as a managed care organization manages costs by restricting services to a neighborhood network of healthcare facilities and physicians. For any type of specialized care, HMOs often demand referrals from a primary-care doctor.
What does HMO signify in regards to medicine?HMO A health management organization (HMO) is a type of insurance policy that restricts access to a neighborhood's doctors and healthcare facilities in order to contain expenses. For any type of specialized care, HMOs often demand recommendations from the a primary care doctor.
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#70 The HIPAA privacy rule __________.
A. Applies only to Medicare patients
B. Applies only to government-operated healthcare facilities
C. Both a and b are correct
D. Both a and b are incorrect
Answer:
D. Both a and b are incorrect
The HIPAA privacy rule is a federal law that applies to all healthcare providers and facilities that handle protected health information (PHI). The rule sets out the rules and requirements for protecting the privacy of PHI, and it applies to any provider or facility that is covered by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), regardless of whether they are Medicare providers or government-operated facilities. The HIPAA privacy rule establishes standards for the use, disclosure, and protection of PHI, and it requires covered entities to implement safeguards to protect the privacy of patients' health information. The HIPAA privacy rule does not apply only to Medicare patients or government-operated facilities, and it is an important part of HIPAA's overall goal of protecting the confidentiality and security of PHI.
Explanation:
A therapist who uses different techniques and theories based on the need of the client and the diagnosis could be referred to as an ___ therapist
A) eclectic
B) cognitive behavioral
C) Gestalt
D) humanistic
A therapist who uses different techniques and theories based on the need of the client and the diagnosis could be referred to as an electric therapist.
Who is electric Therapist?electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) is a process in which tiny electric currents are purposely used to cause a brief seizure in the brain. ECT appears to alter brain chemistry in a way that swiftly alleviates the signs and symptoms of several mental health problems.
A significant portion of the stigma surrounding ECT stems from early procedures in which excessive amounts of electricity were given without anesthetic, causing memory loss, bone fractures, and other devastating adverse effects.
Today's ECT is substantially safer. Despite the possibility of some negative effects, ECT today uses regulated electric currents to achieve its goals.
Therefore, A therapist who uses different techniques and theories based on the need of the client and the diagnosis could be referred to as an electric therapist.
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which of the following diagnostic criteria differentiate tourette syndrome from other neurological disorders
Childhood onset is the diagnostic criteria differentiate Tourette syndrome from other neurological disorders.
have at least two motor tics (such as shrugging the shoulders or blinking) and at least 1 vocal tic (such as humming, cleansing the throat, or shouting out a word or phrase), even if they may not always occur at the same time. having tics for a minimum of a year. Childhood onset is the diagnostic criteria differentiate Tourette syndrome from other neurological disorders.Hyperactive/attention-deficit disorder (ADHD) An autism spectrum condition. Conduct disorders or oppositional defiance disorder (ODD) are examples of behavioral issues (CD). A neurological condition known as tourette syndrome (TS) is characterized by tics, which are brief, fast, repeated, and undesired movements or vocalizations. One of the illnesses of the growing nervous system known as tic disorders is TS. Although there is no known therapy for TS, certain symptoms can be managed with certain medications.
(Which of the following diagnostic criteria differentiate Tourette syndrome from other neurological disorders?
Childhood onset
Comorbid symptoms of depression
Developmental delay
Observation of tics on physical exam)
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Lee is riding an elevator to the top floor of a tall building. During a brief conversation with a stranger in the elevator, Lee mentions that he is afraid of heights, which is not how he normally thinks of himself. After arriving at the top floor, Lee realizes that his fear of heights came to mind because of the elevator ride. This example best illustrates how Lee's thoughts were influenced by
a. his working self-concept
b. a sociometer
c. a self-serving bias
d. his self-esteem
Lee's thoughts were influenced by (a) his working self-concept.
The highly active, contextually aware part of the self-concept that directs behaviour and information processing on a moment-by-moment basis is known as the working self-concept (WSC). Depending on the signals in one's current setting, the WSC's components are activated differently.
One's self-concept, for instance, could encompass a number of roles, such as being a parent, a husband, and an employee. These distinct social situations are linked to these alternate self-concepts, and they are triggered when the proper social cues are available.
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which of the following diseases cause flu-like symptoms in most people infected, but can cause muscle weakness or paralysis?
Answer: Polio. I went to get a second opinion and they all said it too
Which of the following can be associated with intrinsic motivation? Multiple Choice allowance praise enjoyment reward
Answer:
enjoyment
Explanation:
The correct answer is: enjoyment. Intrinsic motivation is a type of motivation that comes from within an individual, rather than from external factors such as rewards or incentives. It is based on the enjoyment and satisfaction that a person derives from engaging in an activity, and is often associated with activities that are personally meaningful or fulfilling. In contrast, allowance, praise, and reward are all examples of extrinsic motivators, which are external factors that can influence a person's behavior.
Carson is divorced, lives alone, has very few friends, and he rarely interacts with others outside of work. According to psychological research on social isolation, Carson's lack of social relationships is likely correlated with: O better health O an optimistic explanatory style and positive emotional states. O the stress contagion effect. O poorer health
Answer an optimistic explanatory style and positive emotional states.
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i exercise should be limited during pregnancy since it can limit delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.
Numerous studies have revealed that exercise, whether it is acute or chronic, is safe for pregnant women and may even be beneficial to their unborn children's development.
36 Weight, length, and circumference measurements are the main indicators of normal growth at birth.
any exercise that could result in even minor abdominal stress, such as moves that are abrupt or include quick direction changes. Activities that call for a lot of hopping, skipping, jumping, or bouncing.
deep knee bends, complete sit-ups, double leg lifts, and toe touches with a straight leg. stretching while bouncing. Early in pregnancy, low-intensity exercise boosts placental circulation, increases umbilical blood flow, and enhances fetal cardiac environment adaptability. The fetus did not experience any negative or positive impacts from relaxation practices.
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QUESTION -
Exercise should be avoided during pregnancy as it can reduce the amount of oxygen and nutrients delivered to the fetus.
If you ate a 606 calorie meal, how many calories of that meal would go to making ATP? Show work
Answer: 83 calories
Explanation:
There are 7.3 ATP in one calorie. 606 divided by 7.3 = 83 calories got to ATP.
Which statement is accurate regarding the use of nicotinic acid (Niacin) for lowering blood cholesterol levels?
1. It works primarily by lowering LDL and HDL levels.
2. Due to adverse effects, niacin should not be used with statins.
3. Hot flashes are a common side effect when niacin is used in high doses.
4. High doses of 2530 mg per day are often necessary.
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: Niacin is used as a vitamin supplement in doses of 25 mg/day. The usual dose of 23 grams/day for lowering blood cholesterol levels often results in hot flashes. Niacin lowers LDL levels and increases HDL levels. It is often used with other drugs like the statins.
According to the research, the correct answer is Option 3. Hot flashes are a common side effect when niacin is used in high doses.
What is niacin?It refers to a water-soluble vitamin, that is, it is soluble in water and is involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
In this sense, it can help reduce cholesterol and it is absorbed by passive diffusion, it is not stored in the body and the excess is eliminated in the urine where hot flashes are side effects.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, niacin is necessary for the body to be able to take advantage of the nutrients.
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A 19-year-old softball player presents to clinic with complaints of bilateral knee pain which has been ongoing for approximately three months. She denies a history of trauma to either knee. The onset has been insidious and slowly increasing over time. She reports worsening of her pain when playing catcher and climbing stairs. She locates the pain over her anterior knees. X-rays are obtained that are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Chondromalacia Patellae
(aka patellofemoral syndrome)
The most likely diagnosis is chondromalacia patellae (also known as patellofemoral syndrome).
The etiology of patellofemoral pain syndrome is unknown, however it has been linked to: Overuse. Sports like running or jumping exert repetitive strain on the knee joint, that can irritate the area under the kneecap. weakness or imbalances in the muscles. Chondromalacia patella is a condition that can occur in certain patellofemoral pain instances. The joint cartilage on the bottom of the kneecap softens and breaks down, a condition known as chondromalacia patella. Because articular cartilage lacks nerves, injury to the chondro itself cannot produce pain. Rarely is chondromalacia patella a serious problem. In actuality, the majority of individuals are able to handle it with rest, elevation, ice, & stretching. However, for some individuals, the disease may deteriorate to the point that pain management techniques at home and over-the-counter pain medicines are ineffective.
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complete the sentences using the terms on the left. labels may be used more than once or not at all.
1. The hepatitis B vaccine contains antigens from the surface of the hepatitis B virus.
2. After receiving the hepatitis B vaccine, the immune system
produces memory cells that remain in the body.
3. If the vaccinated individual is later expected to the the hepatitis B virus, a primary immune response is triggered.
4. If the macrophages change, then the immune system will not
recognize them. Scientists would have to develop a new vaccine.\
Who is in need of the hepatitis B vaccine?Every newborn, every child and adolescent under the age of 19, every adult between the ages of 19 and 59, and every adult 60 and older with risk factors for hepatitis B infection should receive the hepatitis B vaccine.
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Complete question is in following attachment
schizophrenia may take months/years to fully develop into the disorder. when the latter occurs, a person often proceeds through the following phases (in order)
Schizophrenia may take months/years to fully develop into the disorder and when the latter occurs, a person often proceeds through the prodromal, acute, and residual phases.
About seventy fifth of adults with schizophrenic prodromal stage have a symptom section that will last months or years before a vigorous section. For a few folks, symptom begins in childhood or early young years. For others, symptom happens in young adulthood or does not happen the least bit.
In acute phase of schizophrenia changes are how someone thinks and behaves. People usually have episodes of schizophrenic psychosis, throughout that their symptoms square measure significantly severe, followed by periods wherever they expertise few or no symptoms. this is often referred to as acute schizophrenic psychosis.
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should young children be allowed to snack between meals? multiple choice yes, because they have relatively high nutrient needs, but can only eat a small amount of food at one time. no, because it will decrease their appetite and limit food intake at mealtimes. no, because snacking contributes to high rates of childhood obesity. yes, because children need more sugar and salt than adults.
yes, because they have relatively high nutrient needs but only can eat a small amount of food at one time. Hence, young children be allowed to snack between meals.
For an organism to live, grow, and reproduce, it needs food. Nutrients must be consumed by all living things, including plants, animals, fungi, and protists. Nutrients can enter cells for metabolic purposes or can be ejected from them to create extracellular structures like hair, scales, feathers, or exoskeletons. Some nutrients can be biologically broken down into smaller molecules to release energy, resulting in the end products of water and carbon dioxide, including carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and fermentation products (ethanol or vinegar). Every living thing needs water. Mammals require a variety of nutrients, including sources of energy, a particular group of fatty acids, vitamins, and particular minerals, as well as some of the amino acids needed to create proteins.
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according to present-day growth charts, the average infant will double his/her birth weight at about months of age and will triple his/her birth weight at about months
According to present-day growth charts, the average infant will double his/her birth weight at about 4-6 months of age and will triple his/her birth weight at about 12-18 months.
By age four to six months, an infant's weight ought to be double their birth weight. throughout the last half of the primary year of life, growth isn't as speedy. Between ages one and a pair of, a yearling can gain solely concerning five pounds (2.2 kilograms). Weight gain can stay at concerning five pounds (2.2 kilograms) per annum between ages two to five.
Infants is thought of children anyplace from birth to one year recent. Baby is accustomed confer with any kid from birth to age four years recent, so encompassing newborns, infants, and toddlers.
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is the amount of mental effort required to understand a message. Interpersonal communication is high involvement. It requires a great deal of thought and action. Thus, health professionals, family members, and friends tend to have high impact
The message is among the most crucial elements of interpersonal communication.There are numerous ways to communicate a message, including speech, body posture, tone of voice, gestures, and other signs.
By interpersonal communication, what do you mean?In essence, it is the process by which individuals exchange concepts, knowledge, emotions, and intentions using messages and signs.Some exchanges between people are considered interpersonal communication. These exchanges can take place in person, on the phone, online, or in person.
Interpersonal example: what is it?The message is among the most crucial elements of interpersonal communication.There are numerous ways to communicate a message, including speech, body posture, tone of voice, gestures, and other signs.
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a 22-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that has been worsening over the last three days and vaginal discharge for the last week. she has associated nausea and chills. physical exam reveals cervical motion tenderness and a mass in the right adnexa. pregnancy test is negative. a pelvic ultrasound reveals a complex multiloculated right adnexal mass. which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
pelvic pain that has been worsening over the last three days and vaginal discharge for the last week .Most adnexal masses result from issues with the female reproductive system. One of the most frequent reasons is ovarian cysts. These fluid-filled cysts form on your ovaries.
Explain adnexal.
a growth in the ovary or a fallopian tube near to the uterus. Examples of adnexal masses include ovarian cysts, endo (tubal) pregnancies, benign (non cancerous), and malignant tumors. The term "adnexa" refers to the ligaments, fallopian tubes, and ovaries that support the female reproductive systems.
Adnexal masses vanish, correct?
The location and cause of the adnexal mass will determine the sort of treatment chosen. Ovarian cysts can sometimes be surgically removed or allowed to go away spontaneously. Tumors, whether benign or malignant, are frequently removed surgically.
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FILL IN THE BLANK jade hears a rattle. when she turns around she sees a rattlesnake inches from her leg. her pupils dilate, her heart pounds, and she begins to sweat. this response is called the______ response.
The response is of flight or fight.
What is fight or flight response?The physiological response that takes place when confronted with anything physically or cognitively alarming is referred to as the fight-or-flight response, also known as the acute stress response.
Hormones that prepare your body to either confront a threat head-on or flee to safety are released when a response is triggered.
The phrase "fight-or-flight" refers to the options available to our prehistoric ancestors when faced with danger in their environment: either to engage in combat or to run.
Stress triggers a physiological and psychological response that primes the body to respond to danger.
Cannon understood that the body's ability to respond to events was aided by a series of swiftly occurring internal reactions.
It is understood that the fight-or-flight response is a component of Selye's general adaption syndrome's initial stage.
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#58 The Hill-Burton Act _________.
A. Provided hospitals with money for construction and modernization
B. Decreased the obligation to provide uncompensated care
C. Exempts hospitals from complying with EMTALA
D. Was passed by Congress in 2000
Answer:
A. Provided hospitals with money for construction and modernization
The Hill-Burton Act was a federal law passed by Congress in 1946 that provided hospitals with money for construction and modernization. The act was intended to help improve the quality of healthcare in the United States by providing funding for the construction of new hospitals and the renovation of existing facilities. The Hill-Burton Act required hospitals that received funding to provide a certain amount of uncompensated care to low-income and uninsured patients in exchange for the funding. The act was later amended in 1976 to decrease the obligation to provide uncompensated care, but it continues to be a significant source of funding for hospitals in the United States. The Hill-Burton Act does not exempt hospitals from complying with the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA), which requires hospitals to provide emergency medical care to patients regardless of their ability to pay.
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Explanation:
TRUE/FALSE. Qualitative researchers often strive to purposefully select sample members based on emerging information needs.
true. Qualitative researchers often strive to purposefully select sample members based on emerging information needs for their research to get intensive information.
Purposive Sampling is selective sampling, purposeful sampling is a sampling strategy used by qualitative researchers to choose individuals who may offer in-depth and thorough information about the topic under study. The term "emergent design" describes the capacity to adjust to novel theories, notions, or conclusions that develop when undertaking qualitative research. The variety of sampling approaches that may be applied to such qualitative research designs thanks to purposive sampling, including homogenous sampling, critical case sampling, expert sampling, and more, is one of the main advantages of this method.
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ndicate whether each statement is true or false.1. during contraction, the myosin myofilaments shorten. (click to select)2. during contraction, the actin myofilaments shorten. (click to select)3. the sliding filament model explains how myofilaments slide past each other. (click to select)4. the sliding of the myofilaments past each other cause the sarcomere to shorten. (click to select)
In the given statement 1 and 2 are false; 3 and 4 are only true abou contractions.
A striated muscle fiber contracts as myosin heads pull on the actin filaments, shortening the sarcomeres that are linearly distributed within myofibrils. Since here is where filament movement begins, the area where thin and thick filaments overlap is crucial to muscular contraction.The sliding filament model of muscle contraction describes how actin myofilaments slide through myosin myofilaments during contraction. A contraction is the use of symbols or words to shorten a sentence or phrase, which makes it informal.Neither the actin nor the myosin fibers shorten during contraction. During contraction, the H zones and I bands shorten, but the A bands remain the same length.To know more about contraction check the below link:
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Which dietary pattern helps reduce risk of heart disease and supports brain health--two concerns for older adults?
A diet with a focus on fruits, vegetables, lean protein and fish, and low-fat dairy helps reduce risk of heart disease and supports brain health--two concerns for older adults.
Older adults are conscious about their health, specifically their heart and brain as these two organs are vital for the sustenance of life.
Research has shown that such a kind of diet that is rich in fruits and vegetables with a balanced amount of fish and lean proteins is effective in reducing the chances of heart diseases as well as brain abnormalities. Also, a low-fat or fat-free diet is essential for reducing heart disease. Hence, old adults tend to focus on such diet plans.
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