To help regulate body calcium levels, bone has two reserves. The disadvantage of the stable reserve is that it ____ a. is easily exchanged with the blood b. cannot easily be exchanged or released into the tissue fluid c. will compromise bone growth if it is use d. cannot be stored in large quantities

Answers

Answer 1

To help regulate body calcium levels, bone has two reserves. The disadvantage of the stable reserve is that it cannot easily be exchanged or released into the tissue fluid (option b).

Answer - To help regulate body calcium levels, bone has two reserves. The disadvantage of the stable reserve is that it cannot easily be exchanged or released into the tissue fluid. While the stable reserve provides a long-term source of calcium for the body, it is not readily available for immediate use. This means that if the body requires a sudden influx of calcium, it must rely on the labile reserve, which is more easily exchanged with the blood. However, the labile reserve is limited in quantity and can quickly become depleted if the body's demand for calcium exceeds its intake. Therefore, the stable reserve serves as a backup source of calcium, but cannot be relied upon for immediate needs.

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Related Questions

Iron is a mineral that we need in order to live. What two (2) things is iron used for in our bodies?

Answers

Iron is an essential mineral that plays an important role in many bodily functions like in maintaining hemoglobin, myoglobin.

It is a crucial component of hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells that helps transport oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. Without adequate iron, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin, leading to iron-deficiency anemia.

Iron is involved in the production of myoglobin, a protein found in muscle cells that helps store and transport oxygen within the muscle tissue. This is important for physical activity and exercise, as muscles need oxygen to function properly. Overall, iron is essential for oxygen transport and storage, making it vital for overall health and wellbeing.

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Which division of the autonomic nervous system has preganglionic fibers within the facial nerve?A) parasympathetic B) somaticC) sympathetic D) CNS

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parasympathetic is a division of the autonomic nervous system that has preganglionic fibers within the facial nerve

The facial nerve, also known as cranial nerve VII, is a mixed nerve that contains both motor and sensory fibers. Among its many functions, the facial nerve carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the lacrimal glands, submandibular glands, and sublingual glands, which are responsible for tear production and salivary secretion.

These preganglionic parasympathetic fibers originate from the superior salivatory nucleus in the brainstem and travel within the facial nerve to synapse with postganglionic parasympathetic neurons located in the ganglia near the target glands.

This is an example of parasympathetic innervation within the facial nerve.

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A region in a blood vessel has prothrombinase in it. Which stage of hemostasis is taking place?

Answers

The third stage is taking place

The single greatest current threat to biodiversity is _____. a) global warming b) reduced genetic variability c) overexploitation d) introduced species e) habitat destruction

Answers

The single greatest current threat to biodiversity is habitat destruction.

Habitat destruction, which includes deforestation, conversion of land for agriculture and urbanization, and fragmentation of ecosystems, is the main cause of species extinction and loss of biodiversity. When habitats are destroyed, species lose their homes and food sources, and are often unable to adapt to new conditions. This can lead to a decline in populations and the eventual extinction of species. While other factors such as climate change and overexploitation can also have significant impacts on biodiversity, habitat destruction is the most pervasive and immediate threat that is driving many species towards extinction.

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How do linked genes react during meiosis and fertilization?

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Linked genes are genes that are located close to each other on the same chromosome, and as a result, they tend to be inherited together.

During meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic information through a process called crossing over. If linked genes are close together, they are less likely to undergo crossing over and therefore are more likely to be inherited together. This is known as linkage disequilibrium.

During fertilization, the linked genes on the parents' chromosomes are combined to form the offspring's chromosomes. The offspring can inherit the linked genes in the same combination as one of the parents, or a new combination through crossing over during meiosis.

In summary, linked genes tend to stay together during meiosis and are more likely to be inherited together during fertilization, but crossing over can result in new combinations of linked genes.
Linked genes are genes located on the same chromosome, which means they tend to be inherited together during meiosis and fertilization. During meiosis, chromosomes undergo recombination, which can lead to crossing over, where homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material. However, linked genes have a lower probability of crossing over due to their close proximity on the chromosome. As a result, linked genes are more likely to be inherited together during fertilization, leading to specific phenotypic traits being expressed together in offspring.

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How old is a sample that contains U-235 to Pb-207 ratio of 1:7

Answers

Answer:

700 million years

Explanation:

hope it helps

As discussed in lecture, sequencing the hypervariable region of mitochondrial DNA can be used to trace which type of lineage?

Answers

As discussed in lecture, sequencing the hypervariable region of mitochondrial DNA can be used to trace maternal lineage.

Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is inherited solely from the mother, making it a useful tool for studying ancestry through the maternal line. The hypervariable regions within mtDNA contain a high level of variation between individuals, allowing for the identification of specific maternal lines. By sequencing and comparing these hypervariable regions in different individuals, researchers can determine relationships between maternal lineages and estimate the time to the most recent common ancestor. This approach has been instrumental in uncovering human migration patterns, population histories, and tracing the origins of certain ethnic groups.

Moreover, mtDNA has a relatively high mutation rate, which contributes to the high variability in the hypervariable regions. This characteristic further enables scientists to differentiate between maternal lineages more accurately. Overall, the analysis of the hypervariable region of mitochondrial DNA serves as a valuable tool for tracing maternal lineage and understanding human population history. As discussed in lecture, sequencing the hypervariable region of mitochondrial DNA can be used to trace maternal lineage.

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Question 6
The factor that will ultimately result in chronic water shortage is:
a. The amount of precipitation in a region
b. The conservation practices in a region
c. Unchecked population size
d. The amount of business and industry in a region

Answers

The factor that will ultimately result in chronic water shortage is the unchecked population size, option (c) is correct.

As the population increases, there is a corresponding increase in demand for water for domestic, industrial, and agricultural purposes. This increased demand can lead to overuse and depletion of available water resources, ultimately resulting in a chronic water shortage.

While the amount of precipitation in a region and conservation practices can certainly impact water availability, population growth is the primary driver of increased water demand and depletion of water resources. The amount of business and industry in a region can impact water use, population growth is a key factor driving increased business and industry, and therefore increased demand for water resources, option (c) is correct.

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Cells link _____ acids together by _________ synthesis. The resulting bond between them is called a _____ bond.

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Cells link amino acids together by peptide synthesis. The resulting bond between them is called a peptide bond.

Amino acids are organic molecules that are the building blocks of proteins. They contain an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), and a side chain that is unique to each amino acid.

There are 20 different amino acids that are commonly found in proteins, and they differ from each other based on the chemical structure of their side chains.

During protein synthesis, amino acids are linked together in a specific order to form a polypeptide chain, which folds into a three-dimensional protein structure.

Peptide bonds are covalent bonds that link two amino acids together in a protein chain during peptide synthesis. The bond forms between the carboxyl group (-COOH) of one amino acid and the amino group (-NH2) of another amino acid, releasing a molecule of water in the process.

This results in the formation of a peptide bond (-CO-NH-) between the two amino acids, and the chain of amino acids linked by peptide bonds is called a polypeptide chain.

The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain determines the protein's unique three-dimensional structure and its function.

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Which plant is the only kingdom that has cell walls, autotrophic and multicellular?

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The plant kingdom is the only kingdom that has cell walls, is autotrophic, and multicellular. These three characteristics define plants and set them apart from other living organisms.

Cell walls: Plant cells are surrounded by cell walls, which are made up of cellulose. Cellulose is a complex carbohydrate that provides rigidity and support to the plant. The cell wall also helps to protect the plant cell from damage. Autotrophic: Plants are autotrophic, which means they are able to produce their own food. This is achieved through the process of photosynthesis, in which plants use energy from the sun, water, and carbon dioxide to produce glucose and oxygen. This process is vital for the survival of not only plants, but also all other living organisms.

Multicellular: Plants are multicellular organisms, which means they are made up of many cells. These cells work together to perform various functions such as photosynthesis, nutrient absorption, and reproduction.

In summary, the combination of cell walls, autotrophy, and multicellularity are what make plants unique and essential to life on Earth.

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Which sentence describes a type of connective tissue found in an animal's body?
OA. It contracts to pump blood through the heart.
OB. It makes up most of the brain and spinal cord.
OC. It lines the joints and makes up the nose, ears, and air passages.
OD. It covers the inner and outer surfaces of the body.​

Answers

It lines the joints and makes up the nose, ears, and air passages is a connective tissue found in animals body. Thus, The correct option is C.

Thus, Along with epithelial tissue, muscular tissue, and nerve tissue, connective tissue is one of the four main forms of animal tissue. It grows from the mesenchyme, which is derived from the middle embryonic germ layer known as the mesoderm.

Everywhere in the body, including the nervous system, connective tissue can be found in the spaces between other tissues. Connective tissue makes up the three meninges, which are membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord.

Three basic elements typically make up connective tissue: cells, ground material, and elastic and collagen fibers.  Specialized fluid connective tissues without fibers include blood and lymph.

Thus, the ideal option is C.

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Which of these factors is NOT a major factor in determining how fast decomposition occurs?
Number of detritivores present None of the choices (all are important) Temperature Moisture

Answers

The major factors that determine how fast decomposition occurs include temperature, moisture, oxygen availability, and the type of organisms present.



Decomposition is the process by which organic materials break down into simpler components, releasing nutrients back into the ecosystem. Major factors affecting decomposition rates include temperature, moisture, oxygen availability, and the type of organic material. However, one factor that is NOT a major determinant of decomposition rates is the color of the organic material.
While the color of organic material may be an indicator of its composition, it is not a direct factor affecting the rate at which it decomposes. Instead, decomposition rates are primarily influenced by environmental conditions and the chemical makeup of the material, which determine the activity of decomposers such as microorganisms, insects, and fungi. By focusing on factors like temperature, moisture, and oxygen availability, we can better understand and predict decomposition rates in various environments.

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Describe in detail what is industrial smog and examples of places that have industrial smog.

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Answer: Industrial smog is a type of air pollution which typically exists in urban areas and is mainly made of two primary components, that is sulfur dioxide and particulates which include dust and soot from burning coal and which creates a thin blanket of haze close to the ground.

Explanation:  Examples of places where you can observe industrial smog are:

Thermal power plants where fossil fuel is burned to produce electricity

Industries which use fossil fuel for production

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The presence of bilirubin in a urine specimen produces a:
A. Yellow foam when shaken
B. White foam when shaken
C. Cloudy specimen
D. Yellow-red specimen

Answers

Yellow foam is produced when the urine specimen containing bilirubin is shaken. So, option (A) is correct.


Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is a byproduct of the breakdown of old red blood cells. Normally, bilirubin is excreted through bile and feces, but when present in urine, it can be a sign of liver problems or other medical conditions.

The significance of the presence of bilirubin in a urine specimen is that it can indicate an underlying issue with the liver or the excretion of bilirubin. When a urine specimen containing bilirubin is shaken, it produces a yellow foam due to the yellow pigment present in bilirubin.

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When a B cell binds to its specific antigen, it undergoes ________ to produce antibodies to the antigen.a.reproductionb.clonal expansionc.clonal anergyd.differentiation

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When a B cell binds to its specific antigen, it undergoes clonal expansion to produce antibodies to the antigen.

During clonal expansion, the B cell begins to rapidly divide and produce many copies of itself, all of which have the ability to produce antibodies specific to the antigen that triggered the response. These B cells differentiate into either plasma cells or memory B cells. The plasma cells are responsible for producing and secreting large amounts of antibodies into the bloodstream. These antibodies bind to the antigen and can neutralize it by making it unable to bind to its target or by marking it for destruction by other immune cells. Memory B cells, on the other hand, remain in the body after the infection has been cleared. They can quickly recognize and respond to the same antigen if it is encountered again in the future.

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Suggest how the cell cycle will be affected in cells that have become cancerous (2)

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A normal cell will undergo apoptosis if its DNA is damaged beyond repair. A cancer cell that has DNA damage that can't be fixed won't go through apoptosis and will keep growing.

Uncontrolled cell growth is cancer. Cancer can be caused by gene mutations that accelerate the rate of cell division or inhibit normal system controls like cell cycle arrest or programmed cell death. A mass of cancerous cells has the potential to grow into a tumor.

A typical cycle is followed by normal cells: They multiply, split, and then die. On the other hand, cancer cells do not follow this cycle. Rather than kicking the bucket, they increase and keep on recreating other strange cells. These cells have the ability to invade organs like the pancreas, liver, lungs, and breast.

Genes known as proto-oncogenes typically aid in cell growth and division for the production of new cells or for maintaining cell viability. A proto-oncogene can become turned on (activated) when it is not supposed to be, which is when it is referred to as an oncogene. This happens when a proto-oncogene mutates (changes) or has too many copies.

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which of the following describes secondary growth? group of answer choices a) growth in height b) development of leaves and flowers c) growth of herbaceous tissue d) development of wood and bark e) point in time when a plant begins to develop fruit

Answers

Secondary growth can be described as the development of wood and bark (choice D). This process results in an increase in the thickness of the plant, primarily in woody plants such as trees and shrubs.

The correct answer is d) development of wood and bark. Secondary growth refers to the increase in diameter of woody plants, which is accomplished through the development of new layers of wood and bark. This is different from primary growth, which is responsible for the plant's growth in height and the development of leaves and flowers. The growth of herbaceous tissue refers to non-woody, non-perennial plants. The point in time when a plant begins to develop fruit is related to reproductive growth, which is separate from secondary growth.

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Food Web Crossword puzzle
Across
3. Organisms that eat both
meat and plants
5, Plants make their food by
a process of
9 Gets hunted
10. A decomposer is an
insect, fungus, or bacteria
that breaks animals or plants
that are
12. /prey
13. Producer/
#rugivore
heterotroph
15. Organisms that eat only
seeds
16. Organisms that find and
éat dead meat
17. Start of the food web
19. Organisms that eat only
fruit
20. Organism who cant feed
themselves
Down
1. Organisms that eat only
wood
2. Organisms that can feed
themselves
4. Energy being transfered
to other organisms
6. Animals who only eat
plants
7 Top of the food webs
8. Organisms that only eat
nectar
11, To show the relationship
in an ecosystem
14. A type of decomposer
18. Animals that eat leaves

Answers

Food Web Crossword puzzle responses are:

Across:

OmnivoresPhotosynthesisPreyDeadPredatorAutotrophFungiGranivoresScavengersSunFrugivoresParasite

Down:

XylophagesAutotrophsTrophic transferHerbivoresApex predatorsNectarivoresEcosystem diagramSaprotrophsFolivores

What is the Food Web?

Omnivores - Living beings that eat both meat and plants. Photosynthesis - Plants make their nourishment by a handle of photosynthesis.

A decomposer is an creepy crawly, organism, or microscopic organisms that breaks down creatures or plants that are dead. Prey - Living beings that are chased by predators.

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a general function of vitamin c is its action as a(n) ____.

Answers

The antioxidant property of vitamin C is one of its general uses.

What is meant by Antioxidant activity?Vitamin C's antioxidant action is one of its key attributes. Vitamin C's antioxidant action aids in the prevention of several diseases, including cataracts, age-related muscle degeneration, cancer, and cardiovascular diseases. Due to the fact that antioxidant activity reduces the risk of heart disease, protects against degenerative diseases, and lengthens the shelf life of the products [45], it is crucial to the packaged food sector.  A diet rich in antioxidants may lower the risk of numerous illnesses, such as heart disease and several types of cancer. Antioxidants scavenge free radicals from the body's cells and stop or lessen the harm oxidation causes.

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In the blood most of the oxygen that will be used in cellular respiration is carried from the lungs to the body tissues _____.A as bicarbonate ions (HCO3 -)B combined with hemoglobinC by the tracheaD water (H2O)E dissolved in blood plasma

Answers

B combined with hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that binds to oxygen and transports it to the body tissues.

Hemoglobin is a protein found in the red blood cells of almost all vertebrates and in the tissues of some invertebrates. It is an iron-containing oxygen-transport metalloprotein that carries oxygen from the respiratory organs to the rest of the body, where it releases the oxygen to permit aerobic respiration to provide energy to power functions of an organism in the process called metabolism. In humans, hemoglobin is responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's organs and tissues and transporting carbon dioxide from the tissues back to the lungs. Hemoglobin is made up of four protein molecules that are connected together, and it is abbreviated as Hb or Hgb

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Cancer cells: are indistinguishable from normal body cells. have a slower mitotic rate than normal body cells. do not spread into other body tissues. may exhibit metastasis.

Answers

Cancer cells differ from normal body cells in several ways. They are not indistinguishable from normal body cells, as they often have abnormalities in their structure and function.

Cancer cells also have a faster mitotic rate than normal body cells, which leads to rapid and uncontrolled cell growth. Furthermore, cancer cells can spread into other body tissues, a process known as invasion, and may exhibit metastasis, which is when cancer cells break away from their primary location and establish new tumors in other parts of the body. Cancer cells differ from normal body cells in several ways. They are not indistinguishable from normal body cells, as they often have abnormalities in their structure and function. Cancer cells differ from normal body cells in several ways. They are not indistinguishable from normal body cells, as they often have abnormalities in their structure and function.

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Secretin is released from the duodenum in response to acidic chyme.
true/false

Answers

Secretin  is released from the duodenum in response to acidic chyme. True.

In reaction to acidic chyme entering the duodenum from the stomach, the S cells of the duodenal epithelium release a hormone called secretin. The secretin is released by the S cells in response to the acidic chyme, and secretin then travels through the blood to the pancreas where it stimulates the release of bicarbonate ions.

The acidic chyme is neutralised by bicarbonate ions, which keeps the duodenum's pH at a neutral level and permits digestion to proceed. The generation of pancreatic enzymes, which are necessary for healthy digestion, is likewise stimulated by secretin.

One of the numerous hormones and enzymes involved in digestion is secretin, and the release of this substance contributes to the maintenance of a healthy digestive tract.

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During translation, elongation factors EF-Tu and EF-G use hydrolysis of the energy ___ to successfully complete their tasks

Answers

Answer:

During translation, elongation factors EF-Tu and EF-G use hydrolysis of the energy GTP (guanosine triphosphate) to successfully complete their tasks.

Explanation:

EF-Tu (elongation factor Tu) is responsible for delivering the appropriate aminoacyl-tRNA (aa-tRNA) to the ribosome during elongation, while EF-G (elongation factor G) facilitates the translocation of the ribosome along the mRNA. Both of these elongation factors require energy in the form of GTP hydrolysis to carry out their functions.

When EF-Tu binds to an aa-tRNA, it undergoes a conformational change that allows it to deliver the aa-tRNA to the A site of the ribosome. After the correct codon-anticodon pairing is established, GTP is hydrolyzed, releasing EF-Tu from the ribosome and allowing peptide bond formation to occur.

Similarly, during translocation, EF-G binds to the ribosome and stimulates the movement of the ribosome along the mRNA. This movement requires the hydrolysis of GTP, which provides the energy needed to break the interactions between the tRNA in the P site and the mRNA, allowing the tRNA to move to the E site and the ribosome to move one codon down the mRNA.

In both cases, GTP hydrolysis provides the energy required for the elongation factors to successfully complete their tasks during translation.

When testing for lipids we will be looking for ______ of the reagents and tested solutions

Answers

When testing for lipids, we will be looking for a color change of the reagents and tested solutions.

The reagents used for testing lipids include Sudan III, Sudan IV, and the emulsion test. These reagents are used to detect the presence of lipids in various substances such as food, blood, and plant tissues. When a lipid is present, the reagents will cause a color change in the tested solution, indicating the presence of lipids.

This color change occurs due to the interaction between the lipid molecules and the reagent, which leads to a change in the optical properties of the solution. The intensity and type of color change depend on the type and amount of lipid present in the tested solution.

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a cross between two heterozygous short-tailed mice results in offspring in the ratio of 67 short-tailed and 34 long-tailed. the best explanation for this result is

Answers

The best explanation for this result is that the gene for tail length is likely controlled by a single gene with two different alleles, one for short tails and one for long tails.

The two mice used in the cross were both heterozygous for this gene, meaning they had one allele for short tails and one allele for long tails. The offspring inherited one allele from each parent, resulting in a ratio of 3:1 for short-tailed to long-tailed offspring.

This follows the expected pattern of Mendelian inheritance for a single gene trait with two alleles. In this case, the observed ratio of 67 short-tailed to 34 long-tailed offspring is approximately 2:1, which suggests that the short-tailed trait is dominant over the long-tailed trait.

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Question 1 Marks: 1 Biological safety equipment includesChoose one answer. a. biosafety cabinets b. non-retractable needles and syringes c. personal protective equipment d. a and c

Answers

Biological safety equipment includes both biosafety cabinets and personal protective equipment. So, the correct answer is d. a and c.

The correct answer is d. Biological safety equipment includes biosafety cabinets for handling hazardous biological materials and personal protective equipment for protecting individuals from exposure to biological hazards. Both of these pieces of equipment are important for ensuring biosafety in laboratories and other facilities where biological materials are handled.
A safety cabinet (BSC), also known as a biosafety cabinet or microbiological safety cabinet, is an enclosed, ventilated workspace used to secure equipment (or ) infection that must maintain biosafety levels. There are many different types of safety nets that vary in the level of biological products they provide. Chemical safety products were first commercialized in the 1950s.

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Question 13 Marks: 1 Bats are threat to humans because they carryChoose one answer. a. encephalitis b. rabies c. psittacosis d. pediculosis

Answers

Bats are a threat to humans because they can carry rabies. Therefore the correct option is option B.

 

Rabies is a viral disease that affects the central nervous system and is transmitted through the saliva of infected animals, including bats.

Bats are among the most common carriers of rabies, and because they are nocturnal and often roost in attics and other enclosed spaces, people may come into contact with them without even realizing it.

It is important to avoid contact with bats and to seek medical attention immediately if you have been bitten or scratched by a bat or have come into contact with bat saliva. Therefore the correct option is option B.

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Climatic conditions affecting tree rings include all but which of the following?
A. temperature
B. light
C. wind
D. precipitation
E. all of the above affect tree rings
AB. none of the above affects tree rings

Answers

The answer is b no doubt

Choose the evidence supporting Darwin’s theory of natural selection that demonstrates differential reproductive success in Magellanic penguins.

Researchers have studied Magellanic penguins in Punta Tombo, which is a stretch of coast in Argentina. They have determined that in years when resources are lacking
(A) larger males tended to beat out smaller males for food, (B) larger males were better suited to adjust to the change in environment, and (C) larger males survived over smaller males to continue mating.

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

it is more realistic

A couple has three offspring: one child with an autosomal dominant disease trait
and two who are normal. The father is affected by the autosomal dominant disease,
but the mother does not have the disease gene. What is the recurrence risk of this
autosomal dominant disease for their next child?
a. 50%
b. 33%
c. 25%
d. Impossible to determinei

Answers

The recurrence risk of this autosomal dominant disease for their next child will be a. 50%.

Since the father has the autosomal dominant disease trait and the mother does not have the disease gene, the recurrence risk for their next child is determined by the father's genotype. In an autosomal dominant disease, only one copy of the disease gene is needed for the child to inherit the disease. The father, who is affected, will pass either the dominant allele (dominant disease allele) or the normal allele to the child.

Therefore, for each pregnancy, there is a 50% chance that the child will inherit the dominant disease allele from the father (and be affected) and a 50% chance that the child will inherit the normal allele (and not be affected).

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