Offer symptomatic treatment, such as antiemetic drugs to treat nausea and vomiting. Give phenothiazine drugs as directed if you get severe, ongoing hiccups.
What is the role of a nurse?Nurses treat wounds, give medicine, do regular physicals, take thorough medical histories, monitor high blood pressure, run diagnostic tests, handle medical equipment, take blood samples, and admit and release patients in accordance with doctor's orders.
Is a nurse a doctor?While a DNP rn may use the title "doctor," several jurisdictions have laws prohibiting it. For instance, nurses, doctors, and other professionals are prohibited from using the term "doctor" in California and Connecticut until they immediately define their position.
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breastfeeding is better than formula because it leads to a lower incidence of responses ear inflammation. ear inflammation. respiratory illness. respiratory illness. allergies. allergies. all of the above.
Breastfeeding is better than formula because it leads to a lower incidence of ear inflammation, respiratory illness. ,allergies. Thus correct option all of the above (D)
Babies who are breastfed may be more resistant to several short- and long-term illnesses and disorders. Babies that are breastfed are less likely to develop asthma, obesity, type 1 diabetes, and SIDS (SIDS). Babies who are breastfed are also less likely to get stomach illnesses and ear infections.
Breastfeeding mothers typically have quicker postpartum recovery than mothers who decide not to breastfeed. Your risk of breast and ovarian cancer may be lower if you breastfeed. As you get older, it could also lower your risk of getting diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and rheumatoid arthritis.
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Answer: ALL OF THE ABOVE
Explanation: Children and Adults who have been breastfeed have a lower chance for almost all sicknesses, due to the fact, that they are getting protection from their mother's antibodies.
I hope this helped & Good Luck !!
This disease that is asymptomatic in 50% of cases and can have a fever with a sore throat has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage: O cytomegalovirus
O influenza
O measles (rubeola)
O mumps
The disease that is asymptomatic in 50% of cases and can have a fever with a sore throat has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage is cytomegalovirus. That is option A.
What is cytomegalovirus?The clinical manifestations of the disease caused by Cytomegalovirus include the following:
Premature birth.Low birth weight.Yellow skin and eyes (jaundice)Enlarged and poorly functioning liver.Purple skin splotches or a rash or both.Abnormally small head.Enlarged spleen.Recent studies has come concluded that this virus can cause an asymptomatic disease in up to 50% cases in pregnant women while affecting their placenta.
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rosa is 20 years old and beginning an exercise program. her goal is to exercise at moderate intensity. what target heart rate range (beats per minute) should she try to maintain during exercise? a. 80 to 90 bpm b. 100 to 140 bpm c. 160 to 180 bpm d. 185 to 200 bpm
Rosa should try to maintain (b) 100 to 140 bpm target heart rate range during exercise.
Adults' resting heart rates normally range from 60 to 100 beats per minute. An increased level of cardiovascular fitness and better cardiac function are often indicated by a lower resting heart rate. A well-trained athlete may have a typical resting heart rate closer to 40 beats per minute.
You can determine your maximal heart rate based on your age. Subtract your age from 220 to get a ballpark idea of your maximal age-related heart rate.
Example:
The predicted maximum age-related heart rate for a 50-year-old person would be computed as 220 - 50 years = 170 beats per minute (bpm).
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the nurse is monitoring a child who has been receiving long-term therapy with systemic corticosteroids. which would be most important for the nurse to assess?
Parameters to be monitored in primary care include weight, blood pressure, triglycerides, glucose and urea and electrolytes for Corticosteroids.
Corticosteroids are synthetic analogues of human hormones normally produced by the adrenal cortex. They have both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid properties. The glucocortoid components are anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, anti-proliferative and vasoconstrictive. They influence the metabolism of carbohydrate and protein, in addition to playing a key role in the body’s stress response. Mineralocorticoid’s main significance is in the balance of salt and water concentrations. Due to the combination of these effects, corticosteroids can cause many adverse effects. Oral corticosteroids are absorbed systemically and are therefore more likely to cause adverse effects than topical or inhaled corticosteroids.
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the home health nurse is gathering a client's medication prior to going to see the physician. the nurse cannot find the bottle for the methylphenidate, daytrana. what would be the reason for this?
This is a transdermal patch medication, so the nurse cannot find the bottle for the methylphenidate.
A specific dosage of medication is applied to the skin using transdermal patches, where it is absorbed into the blood. Numerous problems, including migraines, motion sickness, pain, and hypertension, are treated and managed with the use of transdermal drugs. methylphenidate-containing transdermal patches are used to treat the symptoms of ADHD (ADHD; Methylphenidate is a member of the group of drugs referred to as CNS stimulants. It modifies certain chemical components' concentrations in the brain.
Transdermal use of methylphenidate-containing skin patches is one option. It is typically applied once per day in the morning, two hours before an effect is needed, and left on for up to nine hours. Any prescription label instructions that you are unsure about following, ask your doctor or pharmacist to explain. Observe the methylphenidate patch directions exactly.
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the nurse received an order for a postoperative patient in an acute care facility. the order stated: morphine, 4.0 mg iv every 2 hours as needed for pain. what should the nurse question about this order?
The nurse should question the order to ensure it is safe and appropriate for the postoperative patient.
The nurse should check that the ordered dose of morphine is appropriate for the patient's age, weight, and medical condition and that it is in line with the patient's usual dose of opioids. The nurse should also verify whether the drug is contraindicated for the patient and that there are no other pharmacological treatments that could be used instead of morphine. The nurse should also ensure that the patient has been informed about the side effects and risks of opioid use and has agreed to receive the medication. Additionally, the nurse should assess whether the postoperative patient has any allergies or sensitivities to morphine, as well as any other drugs or dietary supplements the patient may be taking. Finally, the nurse should be aware of any local regulations regarding the prescribing and administration of opioids, including restrictions on the amount of morphine that can be administered at one time.
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diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of small cell lung cancer (sclc) in an older adult client. when exploring the etiology of the client's disease, what assessment question is most relevant?
Do you smoke often is the most relevant question for the assessment.
A lung cancer that is commonly caused by smoking and has fast growth.
This deadly type of lung cancer is more common in smokers than in non-smokers. It frequently starts in the bronchi, where it quickly grows and forms large tumors before spreading (metastasizing) throughout the body.
Symptoms include bloody phlegm, coughing, chest pain, and shortness of breath.
Chemotherapy and surgery (for small tumors) are other therapeutic options that are occasionally combined with radiation therapy.
The typical 5-year survival rate for people with SCLC is 7%. It is crucial to keep in mind that a lot of factors, most notably the stage of the illness, impact survival chances. For patients with locally advanced SCLC, the overall 5-year survival rate is 27%, indicating that the illness has not spread externally.
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mrs cinders is 63 years old and at risk for osteoporosis. which of the following dietary supplements would be the most helpful to minimize bone loss? a. magnesium and fluoride b. vitamin k and niacin c. thiamin and phosphorus d. calcium and vitamin d
Mrs cinders is 63 years old and at risk for osteoporosis. The dietary supplements would be the most helpful to minimize bone loss due to Vitamin D and calcium.
Even though the chemistry of calcium compounds wasn't fully understood until the seventeenth century, they were known to the ancients. Humphry Davy, who gave the element its name in 1808, electrolyzed calcium oxide to separate pure calcium. Many industries use calcium compounds extensively, including the food and pharmaceutical industries for calcium supplements, the paper industry for bleaching, the electrical insulator and cement industries, as well as the soap industry. On the other hand, because of its extreme reactivity, the metal has a relatively constrained range of uses. However, it is regularly employed in small amounts as an alloying agent in the production of steel and is infrequently utilized as a calcium-lead alloy in the creation of vehicle batteries.
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a client is prescribed testosterone gel. which would the nurse include in the teaching plan? select all that apply.
A client is prescribed testosterone gel. The nurse include in the teaching plan as:
Put on clean clothes once the treatment area has dried.
I apply the gel in the morning once a day.
Use soap and water to cleanse your hands after using the product.
The client would be shown how to apply the gel by the nurse, who explained that it should be applied once daily in the morning to clean, dry skin that is not injured on the shoulders, upper arms, or belly. After being compressed into the palm of the hand, the contents of the packet are quickly administered to the locations. The items are given time to dry before dressing the customer. There is no touch between the genitalia and the gel. The user must properly wash his hands with soap and water after using.
Hypogonadism, a disorder in which a man's body does not create enough natural testosterone, is treated using topical testosterone gel. The male hormone testosterone controls secondary sex characteristics as well as the development and growth of male sex organs.
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Your friend is concerned about developing cancer and wants to know how to lower his or her risk. Which of the following dietary recommendations would you make to your friend to help lower their risk for cancer? Check all that apply.
Decrease salt-cured, char-broiled, pickled, and smoked foods
Increase fiber intake
Eat more fruits and vegetables
Answer:
To help lower their risk for cancer, your friend should:
Decrease salt-cured, char-broiled, pickled, and smoked foods
Increase fiber intake
Eat more fruits and vegetables
Eating a diet that is high in fruits, vegetables, and fiber and low in salt-cured, char-broiled, pickled, and smoked foods can help lower a person's risk for cancer. This is because fruits, vegetables, and fiber-rich foods provide the body with essential vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants that can help protect against the development of cancer. Salt-cured, char-broiled, pickled, and smoked foods, on the other hand, can contain chemicals that may increase a person's risk for cancer.
the nurse is providing care for a client with a nasogastric tube. which observation is most appropriate in determining that the tube is correctly placed?
The most appropriate observation in determining that the Nasogastric tube is correctly placed is to listen for gurgling sounds and to check for equal breath sounds.
The nurse can also check for bilaterally symmetrical breath sounds, on both sides of the chest. You should also check for gastric aspirate or drainage in the tube. Additionally, you should check the client's vital signs for any changes or inconsistencies.
The nurse should assess the tube for patency, check the stomach contents for color, pH, and amount, check the abdominal dressing for signs of infection, and monitor the client for signs and symptoms of dehydration. The nurse should also monitor the client for signs and symptoms of electrolyte imbalance, monitor the rate of infusion, check the tube for dislodgement, and maintain the tube in place.
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the nurse is caring for the 5-year-old just diagnosed with von willebrand disease after a tooth extraction with increased bleeding. the family asks the nurse how the signs and symptoms of von willebrand disease are manifested. what will the nurse tell the family? select all that apply.
low amounts of hemoglobin After a tooth extraction that caused excessive bleeding, the 5-year-old was just diagnosed with von Willebrand disease and is being cared for by the nurse.
What sort of bleeding is critical?
The most deadly type of bleeding is arterial bleeding, often known as pulsatile bleeding. Major injuries are usually what trigger it. arterial blood is oxygenated and brilliant red because it originates from the heart.
Explain what bleeding is.
Blood is lost when someone bleeds. When you get a cut or wound, for instance, it can be external, or outside the body. Additionally, it can occur internally, or inside the body, such as when an internal organ is damaged.
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a client has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. which statement constitutes a long-term outcome for this client?
The patient will be able to perform daily living functions (ADLs) at home without getting out of breath.
Why is breathing so crucial?Oxygen is essential to every system within the body. Effective breathing can enhance everything from brain to digestion, including sleep, digestion, immunity, and stress levels. Secondly, it can help you feel less stressed and more cognitively clear.
What would this breathing power entail?The terms belly, deep, relaxed, and abdominal breathing are all used to describe diaphragmatic breathing. Slower, deeper breathing is the outcome, as it maximizes the use of the diaphragm, the primary muscle of breathing. It might be a crucial tool in the self-management toolkit of a patient.
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a nurse is providing care to a terminally ill client. which finding would alert the nurse to the fact that the client is dying?
These are some noticeable changes of a person is dying icy, pale skin,
Unusual heart rate, less urine produced.
what is dying?
Dying happens in stages. It entails the end of human bodily, psychological, social, and spiritual life. Usually, a series of activities referred collectively as the dying process occur prior to a person passing away. A person goes through a change known as the dying process, which ultimately results in death. Each individual's death and dying process are unique to that person.
circulatory and cardiovascular- Skin that is cold and clammy edges that have been rubbed, Unusual or rapid heartbeat
Musculoskeletal-not being able to walk, bed unable to turn or move
Neurological-growing sluggishness, A greater challenge to awaken
, Restlessness
Respiratory-higher rate of breathing, Apneic or Cheyne-Stokes breathing episodes, incapable of coughing or clearing secretions
Increased secretions (sometimes known as "death rattle") are present.
Urinary-lower and/or darker-colored urine production
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AIDS is caused by a ________ infection spread primarily through ________.
A.viral; the exchange of bodily fluids
B.bacterial; the exchange of bodily fluids
C.viral; airborne molecules
D.bacterial; airborne molecules
AIDS is caused by a viral infection spread primarily through the exchange of body fluids.
Acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome, AIDS,is "a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)". It primarily spreads through the exchange of body fluids.
It is a sexually transmitted disease. It can also be transmitted through infected blood, sharing needles, from mother to child during childbirth, pregnancy and lactation.
It affects the immune system and makes the patient susceptible to life threatening infections.
So AIDS is a viral disease, which is transmitted through body fluids.
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a female adolescent is reporting general malaise and lethargy. which clinical assessment should the nurse perform in an effort to confirm or rule out infectious mononucleosis?
A female adolescent is reporting general malaise and lethargy. Palpating the client's lymph nodes is the clinical assessment the nurse perform in an effort to confirm or rule out infectious mononucleosis.
A lymph node, also called a lymph gland, is a kidney-shaped lymphatic and immune system component. Lymphatic veins connect the body's numerous lymph nodes to one another. They are very important for the growth of lymphocytes like B and T cells. Despite not cleansing the body, lymph nodes are crucial for the immune system's efficient operation since they serve as filters for foreign substances like cancer cells. A lymph node is a secondary lymphoid organ of the lymphatic system. An outer cortex and an inner medulla make up a lymph node, which is protected by a fibrous capsule.
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a 12-year-old boy presents to the office with his mother with concerns about daily underwear soiling with loose stools as well as small, hard stools
Encopresis, a disorder that most frequently results from persistent constipation, is what a 12-year-old kid is experiencing. It causes the involuntary spilling of feces.
Encopresis is the frequent flow of feces into clothes, typically unintentionally. It is also known as fecal incontinence or soiling. The colon gets too full and liquid feces escapes around the delayed stool, staining underpants. This is what often happens when affected stool gathers in the rectum and colon.
When they are older, many individuals who do not receive treatment can fix the issue on their own, although it may take them several years to do so. Adulthood can bring about the issue.
When a youngster gets constipated to the point that a huge, hard piece of poop becomes lodged at the ends of their gut, this is known as soiling (rectum).
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match the antifungal agent with the correct description. diflucan newer class of antifungals used to treat aspergillus micafungin trade name for fluconazole one of the most widely prescribe antifungal agents nystatin used for severe systemic, potentially fatal candida infections amphotercin b used to treat oral candidiasis
We match the antifungal agent with the correct description:
Diflucan, goes with the description of a trade name of fluconazole, one of the most prescribed antifungal agents. Correct answer: 1-B.Micafungin, goes with the description of a new class of antifungals used to treat aspergillus. Correct answer: 2-A.Nystatin, goes with the description of a used to treat oral candidiasis. Correct answer: 3-D.Amphotercin B, goes with the description of a used for severe systemic, potentially fatal candida infections. Correct answer: 4-C.What are antifungal agents?Are a class of drugs used to treat fungal infections. These medications work by killing the fungus or preventing its growth and spread. Some examples of antifungal agents are:
AzolesAllylaminesPolyethersOthersThese agents are available in both topical and systemic forms. Topical medications are applied directly to the skin to treat infection of the skin's surface. Systemic drugs, on the other hand, are taken by mouth and work in the body to treat severe or deep-seated infections.
Antifungal agents are commonly used to treat infections such as:
CandidiasisCryptococcosisDeep mycosisAspergillosisIn addition, they are also used for the treatment of skin infections such as ringworm, tinea versicolor, and dermatophytosis.
Match the antifungal agent with the correct description:
1. Diflucan
2. Micafungin
3. Nystatin
4. Amphotercin B
A) Newer class of antifungals used to treat aspergillus.
B) Trade name for fluconazole, one of the most widely prescribe antifungal agents.
C) Used for severe systemic, potentially fatal candida infections.
D) Used to treat oral candidiasis.
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a nurse is caring for a cognitively impaired nonverbal patient on a medical-surgical unit. what should the nurse use to assess the patient's pain? (select all that apply.)
The correct selections that applies are:
The behavioral pain scale Nonverbal pain assessment toolA pain estimate made by a family memberWhat is pain assessment?
Pain assessment is described as a broad concept involving clinical judgment based on observation of the type, significance and context of the individual's pain experience.
If a nurse is caring for a cognitively impaired nonverbal patient on a medical-surgical unit. The nurse should use
The behavioral pain scale Nonverbal pain assessment toolA pain estimate made by a family member \to assess the patient's pain of the patient.
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Complete question:
A nurse is caring for a cognitively impaired nonverbal patient on a medical-surgical unit. In what ways should the nurse assess the patient's pain? (Select all that apply.)
● The behavioral pain scale
● Nonverbal pain assessment tool
● A pain estimate made by a family member
true or false? cpt is a listing of descriptive terms and identifyin codes for reporting medical seervices and procedures performed by physicians.
CPT is a listing of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physicians. Given Statement are true.
Medical professionals record medical, surgical, and diagnostic operations and services to organizations including doctors, health insurance providers, and accreditation bodies using the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code set.
During the computerized medical billing process, CPT codes are combined with ICD-9-CM or ICD-10-CM numerical diagnostic coding.
There are three different categories of CPT codes: 1, 2, and 3. CPT is a trademark that the American Medical Association has registered.
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a client is taking antiprotozoal medications to prevent a relapse of plasmodium vivax malaria. the nurse is assessing the client during a scheduled follow-up appointment. what assessment finding suggests an increased risk for hepatotoxicity during antimalarial therapy?
The assessment finding suggests an increased risk for hepatotoxicity during antimalarial therapy that despite the fact that the nurse should promote fluid consumption, decreased fluid intake does not raise the risk.
Acetaminophen 1000 mg PO is administered to the patient every four hours. The risk of liver damage from antiprotozoals can be increased by concurrent use of other medications that may be hepatotoxic. Despite the fact that the nurse should promote fluid consumption, decreased fluid intake does not raise the risk. Vitamin C does not harm the liver. Non-compliance reduces the medication's effectiveness but doesn't harm the liver.
Antimalarial medications are used to treat and ward off malarial illnesses. The majority of antimalarial medications focus on the erythrocytic stage of the disease, which is the stage of infection that results in symptoms of illness.
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an immunocompromised client with a diagnosis of candidiasis has failed to respond to conservative therapy and has consequently begun treatment with amphotericin b. the nurse is aware that this drug achieves a therapeutic effect by its influence on:
an immunocompromised client with a diagnosis of candidiasis begun treatment with amphotericin b. the nurse is aware that this drug achieves a effect by its influence on the permeability of fungal cell walls.
The majority of fungi's cell membranes contain ergosterol, which is how amphotericin B works. After forming ion channels with ergosterol, it causes the loss of monovalent cations and protons, which induces depolarization and concentration-dependent cell death. The production of free radicals and the accompanying increase in membrane permeability caused by amphotericin B also cause oxidative damage to the cells. Additionally, amphotericin B stimulates phagocytic cells, which aids in the removal of fungal infections. Amphotericin B has a half-life of between 24 and 15 days.
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What benefits can you expect from we are relaunch
The new development that known should make it possible to the relaunch the industrial-port zone has the funding of the industrial projects that focus on the logistics and the maritime economy.
What is the Industrial Port Zone?Industrial Port Zone has been the term that has been used to describe the industrial zone near the port services and also offers highly advantageous financial programs to companies.
The Industrial-Port Zone has been known for its proximity to the port which has been also has several benefits in terms of the access to imports and effective distribution of goods to the international markets.
Therefore, The new development that known should make it possible to the relaunch the industrial-port zone has the funding of the industrial projects that focus on the logistics and the maritime economy.
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a nurse assesses a 29-year-old client in the outpatient mental health clinic. the nurse notes the client is speaking very quickly and jumping from topic to topic very rapidly. there is some connection between ideas, but they are difficult to follow. which term most accurately describes this thought process
The term that most accurately describes this thought process is Flight of ideas.
What is Flight of ideas?
Flight of ideas often happens when a person talks quickly and erratically, jumping rapidly between thoughts and ideas.
Flight of ideas is not a medical condition/disorder in itself. It is merely a symptom that can occur as part of psychosis, mania, and some neurodevelopmental conditions. It can also be a symptom of mental health disorders/ conditions like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia.
When a person starts talking and they sound jittery, anxious, or very excited, is when flight of ideas can be noticed.
For example, a person experiencing flight of ideas, may deliver a 10-minute monologue in which they jump from talking about childhood, to a moment of distorted body image, to political ideology, to a favorite advertisement, concluding with a rant about their favorite flower.
Therefore, the term that most accurately describes the thought process of the aforementioned person is Flight of ideas.
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a sexually active 20-year-old client has been diagnosed with viral hepatitis. which statement made by the client would indicate a need for further teaching?
To lessen the chance of bleeding, patients must lay on their right side for up to two hours following the biopsy. After the biopsy, patients are observed for a further 2 to 4 hours before being discharged.
Transjugular liver biopsy yields smaller liver samples, making it less desirable than other methods. Blood will be collected to test its capacity to clot before a liver biopsy. Prior to a liver biopsy, patients should avoid taking certain drugs for three to five days, including oral warfarin sodium (Coumadin®), injectable ardeparin (Indeparin®), dalteparin (Fragmin®), enoxaparin (Lovenox®, Clexane®, Cutenox®), and fondaparinux (Arixtra®) (you will be instructed). Additionally, a week before the liver biopsy, patients should refrain from taking any drugs that impair platelet function.
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which common foods would the nurse expect to cause of an outbreak of salmonella? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Burgers and soft boiled eggs are typical meals that a nurse could anticipate contributing to a salmonella outbreak.
what is salmonella?Salmonella infection is the root cause of salmonellosis, a common bacterial illness that affects the gastrointestinal tract. Normally, both human and animal intestines harbour the salmonella bacteria, which are then expelled in faeces (feces). Humans typically catch an infection from contaminated food or drink. Salmonella is a genus of rod-shaped, Gram-negative bacteria in the Enterobacteriaceae family. There are two different strains of Salmonella: Salmonella enterica and Salmonella bongori. The type species is S. enterica, which has six additional subspecies and over 2,600 serotypes in total.
What is the main cause of salmonella?Salmonella is primarily spread to humans by the consumption of food items tainted with animal waste. In the US, there are about 40,000 cases of salmonellosis recorded annually. Due to the high rate of milder cases going unreported or untreated, the actual number of infections may be thirty or more times greater.
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when a nurse removes an i.v. from an client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids), blood splashes into the nurse's eyes. what should the nurse do next?
Schilling's test determines a patient's capacity to absorb vitamin B12, aiding in the diagnosis of pernicious anaemia. When radioactive vitamin B12 has been consumed, the amount of vitamin B12 in the urine is assessed.
Iron deficiency anaemia is one of the hypochromic, microcytic anemias. Eggs are an excellent source of iron, which is essential in the diet. Organ and muscle (dark) meats, shellfish, shrimp, and tuna, enhanced, whole-grain, and fortified cereals and breads, legumes, nuts, dried fruits, and beans, oats, and sweet potatoes are some more foods high in iron. Citrus fruits and dark green leafy vegetables are both excellent sources of vitamin C. A good source of calcium is cheese.
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a client with a recent history of benign prostatic hypertrophy (bph) will soon begin treatment with finasteride. before beginning this course of therapy, the nurse should caution the client to be aware of what potentially adverse effect?
In a case whereby by a client with a recent history of benign prostatic hypertrophy (bph) will soon begin treatment with finasteride. before beginning this course of therapy, the nurse should caution the client to be aware of sexual dysfunction which is an adverse effect.
What is an adverse effect?A dysfunction can be decribed as the unexpected medical problem which could take place during treatment with a drug or other therapy. however the Adverse effects may be mild, moderate, the system, and for the case above the adverse effect can be seen as Persistent, as well as recurrent problems that can be associated to the sexual response, desire.
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the nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. the nurse manager informs the nurse that the client was enrolled in a clinical trial to assess whether a 10-minute walk, 3 times per day, leads to expedited discharge. which type of evaluation best describes what the researchers are examining?
When researchers are doing their examination, the nurse is providing care for a patient who has congestive heart failure.
What causes congestive heart failure?The most prevalent type of disease and the leading cause of heart failure is coronary artery disease. Fatty deposits that accumulate in the arteries cause the condition, which restricts blood flow and increases the risk of a heart attack. The sudden occlusion of a coronary results in a heart attack.
What are congestive diseases?A structural or functional anomaly that develops during intrauterine life is known as a congenital anomaly. Such illnesses, which are also known as birth defects, congenital anomalies, or congenital abnormalities, arise during pregnancy and can be detected before or at birth as well as later in life.
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why would a patient need to be in the prone position? to keep airways clear to keep airways clear to limit the patient's movement to limit the patient's movement to treat cardiovascular problems to treat cardiovascular problems back treatment or examination
A patient would need to be in the prone position so as to keep the airways clear and is therefore denoted as option A.
What is Prone position?This is referred to as a type of body position in which the individual lies flat on the stomach with the chest down and the back up due to various types of conditions or distress.
It promotes drainage from the mouth and it is often used to improve breathing in patients experiencing respiratory distress due to it helping to keep the airways clear and is therefore the treason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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