The half-life of this radioactive substance is approximately 3.01 minutes. This means that if we start with a certain amount of this substance, it will take about 3.01 minutes for half of it to decay.
The half-life of a radioactive substance is defined as the time it takes for half of the initial amount of the substance to decay. To calculate the half-life of a substance, we can use the formula:
t1/2 = (ln 2) / λ
where t1/2 is the half-life, ln 2 is the natural logarithm of 2 (which is approximately 0.693), and λ is the decay constant.
In this problem, we are given that the activity of a sample drops by a factor of 5 in 8.7 minutes. This means that the remaining activity is 1/5th of the initial activity after 8.7 minutes. We can use this information to find the decay constant λ:
1/5 = e^(-λ * 8.7)
Taking the natural logarithm of both sides, we get:
ln (1/5) = -λ * 8.7
λ = ln (5) / 8.7
Substituting this value of λ into the formula for half-life, we get:
t1/2 = (ln 2) / (ln 5 / 8.7)
Simplifying this expression, we get:
t1/2 ≈ 3.01 minutes
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A light ray moving through CR39 at an angle of 49 degrees exits into another medium at an angle of 27.48 degrees. What is the index of the second medium? What is this medium?
The index of refraction of the second medium is therefore approximately 1.496. The medium is crown glass.
We can use Snell's law to solve for the index of refraction of the second medium:
n₁ * sin(theta₁) = n₂ * sin(theta₂)
where n1 is the index of refraction of the first medium (which is presumably air, with an index of refraction close to 1), theta1 is the angle of incidence (49 degrees), n₂ is the index of refraction of the second medium, and theta₂ is the angle of refraction (27.48 degrees).
Plugging in the given values, we get:
1 * sin(49) = n₂ * sin(27.48)
Solving for n₂, we get:
n₂ = sin(49) / sin(27.48) ≈ 1.496
To determine the identity of the second medium, we can consult a table of refractive indices. Based on the index of refraction we just calculated, the second medium is likely a type of glass, such as crown glass.
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Question 31
Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except
a. Hydrostatic loops
b. Vacuum breakers
c. Air gap separation
d. Backpressure units
Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except d. Backpressure units
Backsiphonage is the reverse flow of potentially contaminated water into the potable water supply due to a reduction in pressure. Various methods can be used to prevent backsiphonage, including:
a. Hydrostatic loops: These are vertical loops of piping that create a physical barrier to prevent the backflow of water.
b. Vacuum breakers: These devices break the vacuum in the water supply line, preventing water from flowing backwards.
c. Air gap separation: This is a physical separation between the water supply outlet and the receiving vessel, creating a barrier that prevents backsiphonage.
However, backpressure units are not designed to prevent backsiphonage. Instead, they are used to prevent backpressure backflow, which occurs when the pressure downstream of a connection becomes greater than the pressure upstream.
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can someone do my physics test please? 100P
your answer is c bro but if not then it's b
because you just choose c or b either one should work if you right it down right
35. A bicycle has tires of radius 0.35 meters. If the bicycle is traveling at a constant speed of 7.8 m/s, at approximately what angular speed are the tires rotating?
A) 85 rev/min
B) 197 rev/min
C) 214 rev/min
D) 327 rev/min
E) 423 rev/min
Approximately The angular speed are the tires rotating is 214 rev/min.
To find the angular speed, we need to use the formula:
Angular speed (ω) = linear speed (v) / radius (r)
Given the radius (r) is 0.35 meters and the linear speed (v) is 7.8 m/s, we can plug these values into the formula:
ω = 7.8 m/s / 0.35 m
ω = 22.29 radians/s
To convert radians per second to revolutions per minute, we can use the following conversion:
1 revolution = 2π radians
1 minute = 60 seconds
ω = (22.29 radians/s) * (1 revolution / 2π radians) * (60 seconds / 1 minute)
ω ≈ 213.4 rev/min
The closest answer is option C) 214 rev/min.
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An object moving in a straight line at a constant speed (a=0) is in
Answer:
uniform motion
Explanation:
Uniform motion is defined as the motion of an object in which the object travels in a straight line and its velocity remains constant along that line as it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time.
In an oscillating LC circuit, the total stored energy is U and the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. When the charge on the capacitor is Q/2, the energy stored in the inductor is closest to:
In an oscillating LC circuit, the total stored energy is divided between the capacitor and the inductor. When the charge on the capacitor is Q/2, the energy stored in the capacitor is also half of its maximum value.
Therefore, the energy stored in the inductor is also closest to half of its maximum value, which is U/2. This is because the energy oscillates back and forth between the capacitor and the inductor, with the charge on the capacitor and the current in the inductor both reaching their maximum values at opposite times during each cycle. So, when the charge on the capacitor is at its midpoint, the energy stored in the inductor is also at its midpoint.
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at steady state, a 1 m thick wall has a temperature difference (between the left and right surfaces) of capital delta t equals 5 k. if the wall's thermal conductivity is k equals 10 space fraction numerator w over denominator m k end fraction, what is the heat flux across this wall? (assume 1d conduction heat transfer.)
The magnitude of the heat flux across the wall is [tex]50 W/m^2[/tex] at steady state, a 1 m thick wall has a temperature difference.
To calculate the heat flux across the 1 m thick wall at steady state, we can use Fourier's Law of Heat Conduction. The formula is: q = -k * (dT/dx)
where q is the heat flux ([tex]W/m^2[/tex]), k is the thermal conductivity (10 W/m·K), dT is the temperature difference (5 K), and dx is the thickness of the wall (1 m).
Now, plug in the given values:
q = -10 * (5 K / 1 m)
q = [tex]-50 W/m^2[/tex]
Since we're considering 1D conduction heat transfer and the heat flux is negative, it means the heat is transferred from the higher temperature side to the lower temperature side.
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Question 11
Perhaps our single most significant source of radiation exposure is:
a. Radon
b. Cosmic radiation
c. Alpha particles
d. Gamma rays
Perhaps our single most significant source of radiation exposure is, (B). Cosmic radiation is correct option.
High-energy particles that come from the universe and have the ability to enter the atmosphere of the Earth are referred to as cosmic radiation. Protons, gamma rays, and other radiation types fall within this category. For people who frequently fly, such as airline crew members and frequent travelers, as well as astronauts who spend a lot of time in space, cosmic radiation is a substantial source of radiation exposure. People who work in environments with greater elevations, such as mountain climbers and pilots, may potentially be exposed to cosmic radiation.
However, based on variables like height, latitude, and solar activity, the exposure to cosmic radiation can differ. Cosmic radiation is regarded as one of the most major sources of radiation exposure, along with radon, alpha particles, and gamma rays.
Therefore, the correct option is (b).
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in which case does viscosity play a dominant role? case a: a typical bacterium (size ~ 1 mm and velocity ~ 20 mm/s ) in fresh water. case b: a swimmer (size ~ 1.5 m and velocity ~ 3 m/s ) in fresh water.
Viscosity plays a dominant role in case a, with the typical bacterium moving slowly through the water due to its small size and high viscosity of the water.
In case b, the swimmer's larger size and higher velocity mean that the effects of viscosity are much less significant, as the swimmer is able to move more easily through the water. Viscosity plays a dominant role in Case A, where a typical bacterium (size ~ 1 mm and velocity ~ 20 mm/s) is in fresh water.
Due to the bacterium's small size and relatively low velocity, the effects of viscosity become more significant, impacting its movement through the fluid. In contrast,
Case B involves a swimmer (size ~ 1.5 m and velocity ~ 3 m/s) in fresh water, where the larger size and higher velocity lessen the impact of viscosity on the swimmer's movement.
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Why are there some areas in cities where wind speed is zero?
There are a few reasons why certain areas in cities may have zero wind speed. One possible explanation is the presence of tall buildings or other structures that create a wind shadow.
This occurs when the buildings obstruct the flow of air, causing it to slow down or stop entirely in the space behind the structure. Another factor that can contribute to zero wind speed is topography. If an area is situated in a valley or other low-lying area, it may be shielded from the wind by the surrounding terrain. Additionally, weather conditions can affect wind speed, so it's possible that certain areas experience calm conditions due to a lack of wind at the time.
In cities, some areas may experience zero wind speed due to factors such as tall buildings, urban structures, and topography. These elements can obstruct and disrupt wind flow, creating areas of calm or stagnant air. This phenomenon is known as wind shadow or wind sheltering.
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A football is kicked off the ground a distance of 50 yards downfield. Neglecting air resistance, which of the following statements would be INCORRECT when the football reaches the highest point? (A) all of the balls original kinetic energy has been changed into potential energy (B) the balls horizontal velocity is the same as when it left the kickers foot (C) the ball will have been in the air one-half of its total flight time (D) the ball has an acceleration of g (E) the vertical component of the velocity is equal to zero
The incorrect statement when the football reaches the highest point would be (E) the vertical component of the velocity is equal to zero. At the highest point, the vertical velocity is momentarily zero but it still has a horizontal velocity that is the same as when it left the kicker's foot.
The ball will continue to move forward in a parabolic path and its total flight time will be determined by its initial speed and launch angle. The acceleration of the ball throughout its flight is always equal to the acceleration due to gravity (g) and the potential energy at the highest point is equal to the kinetic energy at the start. I'd be happy to help you with your question. The INCORRECT statement when the football reaches the highest point is all of the balls original kinetic energy has been changed into potential energyAt the highest point, the vertical component of the velocity is zero, but the horizontal component of the velocity remains unchanged. Therefore, the football still has some kinetic energy due to its horizontal motion. Not all of the original kinetic energy has been converted into potential energy.
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Equipment rated 100 ampere or less must have the conductor sized no smaller than the 60 degree column of Table 310-15(B)(16). Equipment rated at more than 100 ampere must have the conductors sized no smaller than for the 75 degree column of Table 310-15(B)(16)(True/False)
True. According to the National Electric Code (NEC), equipment rated at 100 amperes or less must have conductors sized no smaller than the 60-degree column of Table 310-15(B)(16).
This is because smaller conductors can overheat and cause damage to the equipment or even create a fire hazard. On the other hand, equipment rated at more than 100 amperes requires conductors sized no smaller than the 75-degree column of Table 310-15(B)(16). This is because larger equipment requires more power and larger conductors can handle the increased current without overheating.
It is important to note that these sizing requirements are minimum standards and it is always recommended to consult a licensed electrician to ensure the proper sizing and installation of conductors for your specific equipment. Failure to properly size conductors can result in equipment damage, personal injury, or even death.
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Air Conditioning: An air conditioner nameplate indicates the minimum circuit ampacity of 43 ampere and maximum fuse size of 60 ampere. What is the minimum size branch circuit conductor and the maximum size overcurrent protection device?(422.13)
The minimum size branch circuit conductor is 8 AWG, and the maximum size overcurrent protection device is 60 ampere.
To determine the minimum size branch circuit conductors and the maximum size overcurrent protection device for an air conditioner with a minimum circuit ampacity of 43 ampere and maximum fuse size of 60 ampere, follow these steps:
1. Minimum size branch circuit conductor:
- Refer to the National Electrical Code (NEC) Table 310.16 for allowable ampacities of insulated conductors.
- Find the conductor size that can handle at least 43 ampere. In this case, a conductor with a size of 8 AWG (American Wire Gauge) is suitable, as it has an allowable ampacity of 50 ampere.
2. Maximum size overcurrent protection device:
- The air conditioner nameplate states the maximum fuse size is 60 ampere.
- You can use a 60-ampere fuse or breaker as the maximum size overcurrent protection device.
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44. What is the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of a point on the rim of the grindstone?
A) zero m/s2
B) 0.5 m/s2
C) 1.0 m/s2
D) 2.0 m/s2
E) 4.0 m/s2
The centripetal acceleration of a point on the rim of a grindstone is determined by the formula a = v^2/r, where a is the acceleration, v is the velocity, and r is the radius of the circle. In this case, we assume that the grindstone is rotating at a constant speed, which means that the velocity of any point on the rim is constant.
Therefore, the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration depends only on the radius of the circle.Since the question does not provide any information about the radius of the grindstone, we cannot determine the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration. However, we can conclude that options A and B are incorrect because the centripetal acceleration cannot be zero if the grindstone is rotating, and it cannot be less than 0.5 m/s^2 because that is the minimum acceleration required to keep an object moving in a circle.
Therefore, the correct answer must be either C, D, or E, depending on the radius of the grindstone. If the radius is relatively small, the acceleration will be closer to 4.0 m/s^2 (option E), while if the radius is relatively large, the acceleration will be closer to 1.0 m/s^2 (option C). The centripetal acceleration of a point on the rim of a grindstone is determined by the formula a = v^2/r, where a is the acceleration, v is the velocity, and r is the radius of the circle. In this case, we assume that the grindstone is rotating at a constant speed, which means that the velocity of any point on the rim is constant.
In summary, the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of a point on the rim of a grindstone depends on the radius of the circle and is given by the formula a = v^2/r. We cannot determine the exact answer without knowing the radius of the grindstone, but we can eliminate options A and B as incorrect.
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misconceptions are very robust. thinking she was dispelling a common misconception that forces must continue to be applied if an object is to keep moving, ms. rambu put a disk on an air-hockey table (frictionless) and gave it a little push to get it going, then let go. the disk continue to move across the table until it hit another edge. which additional misconception might ms. rambu need to address after this demonstration?
Ms. Rambu's demonstration successfully addressed the misconception that continuous force is needed to keep an object moving.
However, an additional misconception she might need to address is the belief that objects always come to a stop due to a natural force, when in reality, objects stop due to external forces such as friction. In the case of the air-hockey table, the disk continued to move because the surface was frictionless. This demonstration can help students understand the concept of inertia and the role of external forces in an object's motion.
There must be four examples of an effect to prove a functional link.
Functional relationship refers to a complimentary and interactive relationship between land uses or improvements, such as at a minimum a great and high-quality interchange of human interaction, goods, sources, businesses, services, employment, or workers between land uses or advancements.
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What kind of expansion do ideal gases undergo?
Answer:
Isothermal Expansion
Explanation:
This shows the expansion of gas at constant temperature against weight of an object's mass (m) on the piston. Temperature is held constant, therefore the change in energy is zero (U=0). So, the heat absorbed by the gas equals the work done by the ideal gas on its surroundings
The Equilibrium Rule states that the vector sum of all forces acting on an object with zero acceleration is equal to zero, this is definition of?
The Equilibrium Rule is a fundamental principle in physics that states that the vector sum of all the forces acting on an object with zero acceleration is equal to zero.
In simpler terms, if an object is at rest or moving at a constant velocity, the net force acting on it must be zero. This principle can be applied to various situations, including stationary objects, objects in motion, and even systems with multiple objects.
For example, if a book is placed on a table and remains stationary, the forces acting on it must balance out to zero. This means that the force of gravity acting downward must be equal to the force of the table pushing upwards.
Understanding and applying the Equilibrium Rule is essential in many fields, including engineering and mechanics, and is a foundational concept for further study in physics.
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The Equilibrium Rule is a fundamental principle in physics which states that if an object has zero acceleration, then the vector sum of all forces acting upon it must also be equal to zero. This means that the forces acting in opposite directions must be equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, creating a state of balance or equilibrium.
The Equilibrium Rule can be expressed mathematically as:
ΣF = 0
where ΣF represents the vector sum of all forces acting on the object.
When an object is at rest or moving with constant velocity, its acceleration is zero. According to Newton's Second Law, the net force acting on an object is equal to the product of its mass and acceleration:
ΣF = ma
If the acceleration is zero, then the net force must also be zero. This means that the vector sum of all forces acting on the object must be zero, as stated by the Equilibrium Rule.
It is important to note that the Equilibrium Rule only applies to objects with zero acceleration, and that objects in motion may have a non-zero net force acting on them, which causes them to accelerate.
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What is ÎU equal to under adiabatic conditions?
Answer:
ΔU=Q+ΔW
Explanation:
In adiabatic process no exchange of heat occurs between system and surrounding so Q=0.
Thus, ΔU is equal to adiabatic work.
A plane speeds up to 320m/s from 300m/s in 5 seconds. Assuming the plane was traveling in a straight line, what was it's average acceleration during those 5 seconds.
The calculate the plane's average acceleration, we need to use the formula. average acceleration = final velocity - initial velocity / time the plane's final velocity is 320m/s, its initial velocity is 300m/s, and the time it took to speed up is 5 seconds.
The plane's average acceleration during those 5 seconds was 4m/s^2.To find the average acceleration of the plane during the 5 seconds, you can use the formula. Average acceleration = Final velocity - Initial velocity / Time In this case, the final velocity plane speed is 320 m/s, the initial velocity is 300 m/s, and the time is 5 seconds. Average acceleration = 320 m/s - 300 m/s / 5 Average acceleration = 20 m/s / 5 s Average acceleration = 4 m/s² So, the plane's average acceleration during those 5 seconds was 4 meters per second squared 4 m/s² while traveling in a straight line.
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a circular loop of wire lies flat on a level table top. a bar magnet is held stationary above the circular loop with its north pole point downward. as viewed from above, in what direction does the induced current flow in the loop of wire? a circular loop of wire lies flat on a level table top. a bar magnet is held stationary above the circular loop with its north pole point downward. as viewed from above, in what direction does the induced current flow in the loop of wire? an induced current flows clockwise in the loop of wire. an induced current flows counterclockwise in the loop of wire. no current is induced in the loop of wire. the direction of the induced current cannot be determined from the given information.
The induced current flows clockwise in the loop of wire. When a bar magnet is held stationary above a circular loop of wire with its north pole pointing downward, as viewed from above, the induced current in the loop of wire will flow counter clockwise.
This is due to Lenz's law, which states that the direction of the induced current flows clockwise in the loop of wire. current will be such that it opposes the change in magnetic flux that is producing it. In this case, the counterclockwise current creates a magnetic field opposing the downward magnetic field of the north pole of the bar magnet. the direction of the magnetic field will be down in the plane at the center. The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying wire loop will be in a single direction at the center. The direction of magnetic field at the center of a current-carrying circular loop is perpendicular to the plane of the loop.
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2) What do we call the bright, sphere-shaped region of stars that occupies the central few thousand light-years of the Milky Way Galaxy? A) the galaxy's disk B) the galaxy's bulge C) a globular cluster D) the galaxy's halo
The bright, sphere-shaped region of stars that occupies the central few thousand light-years of the Milky Way Galaxy is called B) the galaxy's bulge.
The Milky Way Galaxy is composed of a central bulge, which is a bright, sphere-shaped region of stars that occupies the central few thousand light-years of the galaxy. The bulge is composed of several hundred billion stars and is the most densely populated region of the Milky Way. It is made up of an old population of stars, each of which is orbiting the galaxy's center in a highly eccentric orbit. The bulge is surrounded by the galaxy's disk, which is made up of a younger population of stars and contains the spiral arms of the Milky Way. The halo is a large, diffuse region that surrounds the bulge and disk, and contains the oldest stars in the galaxy. Globular clusters are collections of hundreds of thousands of stars that orbit the Milky Way and are found in both the bulge and halo regions.
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Question 20
Which one of the following is the greatest genetic concern in terms of exposure to ionizing radiation?
a. Mutations that accumulate in the gonads
b. Blood-borne infections
c. Increased frequency of dominant gene mutations
d. Chromosomal damage in adolescents
The greatest genetic concern in terms of exposure to ionizing radiation is mutations that accumulate in the gonads. Option a is correct.
Ionizing radiation has the potential to cause mutations in DNA, which can lead to genetic changes in offspring. Mutations that accumulate in the gonads, which are the cells that produce sperm and eggs, have the potential to be passed down through generations. This can lead to an increased risk of genetic disorders, such as cancer or birth defects, in future offspring.
While other forms of genetic damage can also occur with exposure to ionizing radiation, such as chromosomal damage, mutations in the gonads have the greatest potential impact on future generations. Therefore, it is important to limit exposure to ionizing radiation, particularly during reproductive years. Option a is correct.
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An example of a pressure-differential type water is a?
a. Venturi meter
b. Propeller meter
c. Nutating disk meter
d. Magnetic flow meter
a. Venturi meter. A Venturi meter is a pressure-differential type of water meter that measures the flow rate of a fluid by creating a pressure difference through a constriction in the flow path.
It consists of a converging section followed by a throat and then a diverging section. The diameter of the throat is smaller than the diameter of the pipe, which causes the velocity of the fluid to increase as it passes through the throat.
As the fluid passes through the throat, its velocity increases while the pressure decreases due to Bernoulli's principle. This pressure difference can be measured using pressure taps located before and after the throat. By measuring the pressure difference, the flow rate of the fluid can be calculated using Bernoulli's equation.Venturi meters are widely used in various industries such as chemical, oil and gas, and
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(362-28) All cut ends of electrical nonmetallic tubing shall be trimmed inside and ____ to remove rough edges.
All cut ends of electrical nonmetallic tubing shall be trimmed inside and deburred to remove rough edges.
When working with electrical nonmetallic tubing, it is important to ensure that all cut ends are properly trimmed and deburred.
Deburring is the process of removing any rough edges or burrs that may be present on the cut end of the tubing. This is important because rough edges can damage wires or cables that are being pulled through the tubing, or can cause injury to the person handling the tubing. To deburr the tubing, a deburring tool or file can be used to smooth out the edges of the cut. Once the edges are smooth, the tubing can be safely used for electrical installations.
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If a penny has a mass of 2.507 g and is 2.5% copper, what is the mass of zinc in the coin?
The mass of zinc in the coin is 2.444325 g. It is obtained by subtracting the mass of the coin from the mass of the copper.
How to calculate the percentage?We have a penny with a mass of 2.507 g and 2.5% of it is copper. Find the mass of zinc.
We should know that a penny contains of copper and zinc. To find the mass of zinc in the penny, we first need to calculate the mass of copper in the penny. Then, we can subtract the mass of copper from the total mass of the penny.
Since the penny is 2.5% copper, we can multiply the total mass of the penny (2.507 g) by 2.5% to get the mass of copper.
The mass of copper is
= 2.507 g × 2.5%
= 2.507 g × 0.025
= 0.062675 g
So, the penny contains 0.062675 g of copper.
The mass of zinc is
= mass of penny - mass of copper
= 2.507 g - 0.062675 g
= 2.444325 g
Hence, the mass of zinc in the penny is 2.444325 g.
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Predict how the upward force exerted on the feet by the scale will compare to the weight if the elevator is accelerating downward.
When an elevator is accelerating downward, the upward force exerted by the scale on the feet, also known as the normal force (N), will be less than the person's weight (W).
If the elevator is accelerating downward, the force exerted on the feet by the scale will be less than the weight. This is because the force of gravity acting on the person remains constant, but the elevator is now providing an additional downward force due to its acceleration.
This means that the net force acting on the person is less, resulting in a lower reading on the scale. In other words, the scale measures the normal force acting on an object, which is equal to its weight when at rest or moving with a constant velocity, but can be less or more than the weight when accelerating up or down.
When an elevator is accelerating downward, the upward force exerted by the scale on the feet, also known as the normal force (N), will be less than the person's weight (W). This is because the downward acceleration (a) causes a net force in the downward direction, leading to a reduced normal force. To better understand this, you can refer to the following equation: N = W - ma
In this equation, W is the weight of the person, m is their mass, and a is the downward acceleration. As you can see, the normal force will be less than the weight due to the subtracted term (ma).
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a man pushes a 15 kg block to the west with an acceleration of 0.1 m/s/s. using newton's second law of motion, what is the total force used?
The total force used by the man to push the block to the west is 1.5 N (Newtons).
Hi! I'd be happy to help you with your question. To find the total force used by a man pushing a 15 kg block to the west with an acceleration of 0.1 m/s², we can use Newton's second law of motion.
Newton's second law states that Force (F) equals mass (m) multiplied by acceleration (a), or F = m × a.
Step 1: Identify the mass (m) and acceleration (a).
Mass (m) = 15 kg
Acceleration (a) = 0.1 m/s²
Step 2: Apply Newton's second law of motion formula.
F = m × a
Step 3: Substitute the values and calculate the force.
F = 15 kg × 0.1 m/s²
F = 1.5 N
So, the total force used by the man to push the block to the west is 1.5 N (Newtons).
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The man applied 1.5 N (Newtons) of force in total to move the block in the west.
Hi! I'd be delighted to answer your query. Newton's second equation of motion can be used to calculate the total force applied by a man pushing a 15 kg block with an acceleration of 0.1 m/s2 to the west.
According to Newton's second law, force (F) is equal to mass (m) times acceleration (a), or F = m a.
Determine the mass (m) and acceleration (a) in step 1.
Weight (m) = 15 kilogramme
0.1 m/s2 is the acceleration (a).
Step 2: Use the calculus for Newton's second law of motion.
F = m × a
Step 3: Calculate the force by substituting the values.
F = 15 kg × 0.1 m/s²
F = 1.5 N
The man utilised 1.5 N (Newtons) of force in total to push the block in a westward direction.
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a canon on rollers fires a canon ball and rolls backward. which of the following are true statements?multiple select question.the momentum of the canon is greater than the canon ball's momentum.the momentums of the canon and canon ball are equal.the speeds of the canon and canon ball are equalthe speed of the canon ball is greater than the canon's speed.the speed of the canon is greater than the canon ball's speed.the momentum of the canon ball is greater than the canon's momentum.
The momentums of the canon and canon ball are equal. The speed of the canon ball is greater than the canon's speed. The momentum of the canon ball is greater than the canon's momentum.
Based on the scenario provided, the following statements are true:
1. The momentums of the canon and canon ball are equal. (According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum before firing is equal to the total momentum after firing. Since the canon and canon ball move in opposite directions, their momentums are equal but opposite in direction.)
2. The speed of the canon ball is greater than the canon's speed. (Typically, the mass of the canon ball is much smaller than the mass of the canon. As their momentums are equal, the canon ball will have a higher speed compared to the canon.)
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A puck is sliding on the ice with 25 J of kinetic energy. After 3 seconds, the puck comes to a stop and has no more kinetic energy. Find the work done on the puck.
The work done on the puck is -25 J, after 3 seconds, the puck comes to a stop and has no more kinetic energy.
What is work done?Work done is described as the amount of force needed to move an object a certain distance.
The work-energy principle states that the work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy.
The change in kinetic energy is:
ΔK = Kf - Ki = 0 - 25 = -25 J
Note that the negative sign indicates that the kinetic energy of the puck decreased.
W = ΔK = -25 J
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In a Camber airfoil, the Center of Pressure (CP)a.) moves to the rear of the wing at low AOAb.) moves backward as AOA increases c.) moves forward as AOA increases d.) both a and c
In a cambered airfoil, the Center of Pressure (CP) c.) moves forward as Angle of Attack (AOA) increases.
In a Camber airfoil, the centre of pressure (CP) is the point on the airfoil where the total aerodynamic force can be considered to act. The position of the CP changes with the angle of attack (AOA) of the airfoil.
At low AOA, the CP is located towards the front of the airfoil. As the AOA increases, the CP moves towards the rear of the airfoil. However, as the AOA continues to increase, the CP eventually moves towards the front of the airfoil again.
This means that the CP moves forward as AOA increases in a Camber airfoil. Therefore, the correct answer is c) moves forward as AOA increases.
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