Answer: A and B are Correct
Explanation:
A - The coding strand of DNA is used to match with the correct mRNA codons.
B - There are DNA repair mechanisms that utilize the complimentary strand such as Base Excision Repair and Nucleotide Excision Repair
which of the following describes the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A. a voltage difference of 0 millivolts (mV) across the membrane
B. a voltage difference across the plasma membrane, with more positive membrane potential inside
C. a voltage difference across the plasma membrane when the neuron has been stimulated
D. a voltage difference that is chiefly a reflection of the electrochemical Na+ gradient across the plasma membrane
E. a state in which the flow of positive and negative ions across the plasma membrane is precisely balanced
A voltage difference across the plasma membrane when the neuron has been stimulated describes the resting membrane potential of a neuron.
A relatively static membrane potential that is commonly referred to as the trans-membrane voltage ground value. A cell's resting membrane potential is defined as the electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane when it is not excited. The electrical potential difference across a cell membrane has traditionally been expressed by its value inside the cell relative to the extracellular environment.
Once a cell has reached its resting potential, it can undergo depolarization. During depolarization, the membrane potential rapidly changes from negative to positive. For this rapid shift to occur within the cell, several actions must occur along the plasma membrane.
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What would be the sequence of nucleotides made from GCTATG
Which of the following structures or molecules is required in order for motor proteins to facilitate movement of chromosomes toward the poles in mitosis?
A. intact centromeres
B. ATP as an energy source
C. actin microfilaments
D. intact cohesin
Motor proteins are necessary for the movement of chromosomes toward the poles during mitosis and require ATP as an energy source in the form of structures or molecules.
What is required for mitosis to occur?However, a cell must go through a stage known as interphase before it can begin the active phases of mitosis. During this time, the cell develops and generates the different proteins required for division.
What entities are in charge of the chromosomes' motion?moving the chromosomes with energy (microtubules) The bipolar spindle, which is the most noticeable structure in a mitotic cell and is composed of microtubules and related motor proteins, exerts the force necessary to move the chromosomes and cause their segregation.
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The fallopian tube provides a connection between the _____ and the _____.
a. Uterus; Ovaries b. Cervix; Uterus c. Vagina; Cervix d. Ovaries; Vagina.
The fallopian tube provides a connection between the uterus and the ovaries.
One of long, narrow tubes that connect the ovaries to the uterus. Eggs by skip from the ovaries, thru the fallopian tubes, to the uterus. In the lady reproductive tract, there may be one ovary and one fallopian tube on every aspect of the uterus.
The fimbriae of the uterine tube, additionally called fimbriae tube, are small, fingerlike projections related to the quit of the fallopian tubes, thru which eggs flow from the ovaries to the uterus.
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Crick and brenner performed a set of experiments with viral dna designed to determine the nature of the genetic code. What were their conclusions?.
Answer:
- The genetic code has no punctuation.
- The genetic code is read in increments of three nucleotides.
Explanation: The genetic code does not have contain spaces nor reads 4 nucleotides
The genetic code has no punctuation, the genetic code is read in increments of three nucleotides.
what is genetic code ?The genetic code is the code the instructions contained in our DNA and the essential materials represented by using the “codons” found in mRNA, as mRNA carries information from the DNA to the site of protein synthesis.
Genetic code stores hereditary information passed from from parent to child and is stored in the form of DNA is used to build RNA, proteins, and ultimately cells, tissues, and organs.
DNA uses a chemical language which store information in a very efficient manner. DNA has four letters of nucleotides Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, and Thymine/Uracil.
Thymine and Uracil are very similar where Thymine is slightly more stable and is used in DNA. Uracil is used in RNA.
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you explain to the child's parents that the role of the mitochondria is multiple choice to transport proteins to the cytoplasmic membrane. to produce the energy currency, atp, for a cell. to break down toxins in the body. to initiate dna replication during cell division. to protect the body from bacterial invaders.
You explain to the child's parents that the role of the mitochondria would be to produce the energy currency, ATP, for a cell.
So, the correct option is B.
The traditional function of the mitochondria is called oxidative phosphorylation, which produces ATP by using the energy generated through the oxidation of the food we ingest. The majority of biochemical and physiological functions, including growth, mobility, and equilibrium, all require ATP as their main energy source. The mitochondria in the cell use the oxygen already present to transform the chemical energy from the meal into energy that can be used by the host cell.
Within the mitochondria, a procedure known as oxidative phosphorylation takes place. For the purpose of making ATP, mitochondria oxidize their substrates, which generates heat. The cytosol and mitochondria may be up to 10 °C hotter, according to new theories.
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Neisseria gonnorrhoeae is a gram-negative diplococcus that typically causes symptomatic infections in males. The presence of neisseria gonorrhoeae is urethral pus is diagnostic for gonorrhea in males. What would be observed in a positive gram stain?.
The observation in Positive Gram stain of Neisseria Gonorrhea would be pair of red spheres, that is option C is correct.
N. Gonorrhea is a kind of bacterial infection which is responsible for spreading sexually transmitted diseases in individuals and is a communicable disease. The disease can be treated by medical professionals and if not treated may cause infertility. The symptoms of Gonorrhea include pain during urethral discharge and even pain in testicles of men. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a kind of Gonorrhea that usually attacks the reproductive organs of both males and females. It usually causes the reproductive tract blockage and urethral pus is generated in the mucous membrane of the reproductive tract. In women, the fallopian tube, uterus and cervix become infected. It shows gram positive stain due to the oxidase reaction which causes it to change to red colored colonies and under microscope, it resembles as pair of red spheres. However, in general, N. Gonorrhea is gram negative bacteria.
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Complete Question:
Neisseria gonorrhea is a Gram-negative diplococcus that typically causes symptomatic infections in males. The presence of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is urethral pus is diagnostic for gonorrhea in males. What would be observed in a positive Gram stain?
a. paired red rods
b. paired purple rods
c. paired red spheres
d. paired purple spheres
When cells in the artery wall take up ______ in an uncontrolled fashion, they become_____ cells.
When cells in the artery take up LDL cholesterol (bad cholesterol) in an uncontrolled fashion, they become foam cells.
What is LDL cholesterol?It is often called as the bad cholesterol because it collects in the walls of our blood vessels, raising the chances of health problems like a heart attack or stroke. Low-density lipoprotein is a tiny blob made up of an outer rim of lipoprotein with a cholesterol center.
What are foam cells?These are formed through lipid accumulation that exceeds the homeostatic capacity of macrophages triggers lipid droplet formation, which results in the foamy appearance of these macrophages.
The formation of foam cells occurs when macrophages engulf an excess of many types of LDL, including oxidized LDL (OxLDL) and minimally modified LDL (mmLDL), which result in the death of the macrophages once they become oversaturated with LDLs.
Mostly smooth muscle cells (SMCs) are the abundant cells in human atherosclerotic lesions and are suggested to contribute at least 50% of atheroma foam cells.
Hence with the accumulation of LDL cholesterol the cells of the artery wall divide in an uncontrollable fashion, they become foam cells
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Chooe two different type of cell and explain how they are adapted for tbe job they do in your body
Red blood cells and epidermic cells are examples of specialised cells. Through cell differentiation, these mature cell types are created.
What is cell differentiation ?Cell differentiation is the difference in gene expression that results in the creation of various cell types that are specialised to carry out particular tasks.
For instance, hematopoietic stem cells express the haemoglobin gene to produce red blood cells with certain functions, including the ability to carry oxygen to all of the body's cells.Additionally, epidermic cells are tailored to offer protection and mechanical strength.Red blood cells and epidermic cells are two examples of specialised cells. Through cell differentiation, these mature cell types are created.Learn more about Cell differentiation here:
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what structure forms when the head of a rib connects to the body of two vertebrae? vertebral notch articular process demifacet facet
The structure formed when the head of a rib connects to the body of two vertebrae is option D: facet.
The head's two convex facets connect to two nearby vertebrae. The ligaments of the head and the intercapital ligament help to reinforce the synovial planar (gliding) joint that results from this. A bone's facet is any smooth or nearly flat surface. A demifacet, which is actually half of a facet, is where a portion of the costal cartilage or the head of the rib articulates and is where they are typically seen.
Facets are synovial joints having cartilage lining, synovial fluid lubrication, and a joint capsule covering. The back can move freely and without excessive twisting thanks to healthy facet joints.
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Answer:
demifacet
Explanation:
in the thoracic vertebrae if the head of a rib articulates with two adjacent the vertebral bodies, the area of articulation is called a demifacet
which of the following physical conditions and lifestyle choices increase(s) the risk of developing heart disease? (select all that apply.)
Saturated fat, trans fat, and cholesterol-rich diets have been related to heart disease and conditions like atherosclerosis.
What is a heart condition and types of diseases?Cardiac disease is a general term that refers to many heart conditions. Another term for it is cardiovascular disease, which includes both heart and blood vessel disease. Heart disease comes in a variety of forms. Congenital cardiac disease is one that you might be born with. Over time, several sorts emerge.
The most prevalent form of heart disease is coronary artery disease, often known as coronary heart disease. When a sticky substance called plaque accumulates in the arteries that supply your heart muscle with blood, it happens gradually over time. The plaque restricts or obstructs blood flow to the heart muscle, which might cause additional heart issues.
Heart attacks occur when the heart muscle loses some of its blood supply.When your heart cannot pump enough blood to meet your body's needs, you have heart failure.A problem with your heartbeat's rate or rhythm is called an arrhythmia.Your heart valves or heart muscle may be impacted by further cardiac conditions (cardiomyopathy).To know more about heart diseases, visit:
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Can a person survive a 200 foot fall into water if a hammer is thrown in first?
If a person fell from 200 feet and if a hammer is thrown in first, then…
Answer:
the human survives
Explanation:
what is the sec system and how are proteins targeted there? where is the signal sequence encoded? does it matter if its at the n-terminus or c-terminus of the gene? explain why. quilet
During inclusion of the expanding polypeptide chain into the ER, a signal sequence at the amino (N) terminus of secretory proteins—which targets them to the ER—is eliminated.
What is structure of gene ?The N-terminus of several proteins contains signal sequences that help those proteins discover their proper place outside the cell membrane. For passage through the cell membrane and out of the cell, the protein is marked with a signal sequence.
The "N-terminus" or "amino terminus" refers to the chain's free amine end, while the "C-terminus" or "carboxyl terminus" refers to the chain's free carboxylic acid end. These two protein termini are chemically distinct from one another, therefore it makes sense that they would have various chemical properties.Learn more about Gene here:
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The "safe keeping" of a eurkaryotes genetics is the job of the 1. A. DNA C. nucleolus B. ribosome D. nucleus
The structure that keeps guard safe in eukaryotes is the nucleus.
Eukaryotes are cells that have a cell nucleus. The nucleus is a structure that stores most of the cell's genetic material.
In addition, the cell nucleus has a membrane that strictly controls the entry and exit of substances. Therefore, this membrane which is called the karyotheca is of great importance to keep the DNA of the cells safe.
Therefore, the correct answer is "D) nucleus".
which accessory structure of the hair is likely to be malfunctioning in a patient with a dry scalp?
The hair is likely to be malfunctioning in a patient with a dry scalp hypodermis.
The hypodermis is the lowest layer of skin on your body. It has many critical functions, which include storing strength, connecting the epidermis layer of your pores and skin on your muscle tissues and bones, insulating your body, and protecting your body from harm. As you age, your hypodermis decreases in length, and your pores and skin starts to sag.
Adipose tissue present in the hypodermis consists of fat-storing cells called adipocytes. This stored fat can function as a strength reserve, insulate the frame to save you warmness loss, and act as a cushion to protect underlying systems from trauma.
The subcutaneous tissue, also known as the hypodermis or superficial fascia, is the layer of tissue that underlies the pores and skin. The terms originate from subcutaneous in Latin and hypoderm in Greek, each of which implies “beneath the pores and skin,” as it is the deepest layer that rests just above the deep fascia.
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Not all parts of a gene code for a protein. A non-coding section is called an intron. You know that base sequences are transcribed into mRNA and
then translated into protein. How might a cell prevent an intron from being expressed as a protein? (1 point)
O remove the intron before translation occurs
O copy the intron before transcription occurs
O remove the intron before transcription occurs
O copy the intron during translation
The cell prevents the intron from being expressed in the protein by removing it before translation begins. So the correct option is A. remove the intron before translation occurs.
What is an intron?The intron is a region of DNA that will be part of the RNA transcript but will be removed from the mature transcript before translation to protein takes place. Introns are not regions of DNA that will form a protein but will be part of the regulation of gene expression. Also by using alternative splicing different regions of a single gene could be used to produce different proteins.
The introns will help to have an efficient splice since at the beginning of these there will be acceptor sites to receive and generate the splice.
Therefore, we can confirm that the correct option is A. remove the intron before translation occurs.
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The right temperature, ph, and precursor molecules could have allowed ______ molecules to form membrane-like structures.
The formation of membrane-like structures from phospholipid molecules may have been possible given the proper ph, temperature, and precursor molecules.
What does a membrane look like?The body holes that open to outside are lined with some of these membranes, also known as mucosae. Mucus line the inside of the digestive tract. The sexual, excretory, and respiratory tracts are more examples.
What functions do membranes serve?More and more often, aquifers, surface water, etc effluent are converted into process water using membranes. Membranes are currently competitive with traditional methods. Tractor trailer membranes are a prerequisite for the membrane technology procedure.
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your friend emails you for help with the identification of an elongated invertebrate that she has found in a moist forest in africa. in her initial email, she describes the animal as having a complete digestive tract, a head, segmentation and appendages on each segment. you tell her that based on this information...
It may be an annelid or an arthropod. To be sure, we want to recognize whether or not the animal has a cuticle. It may be an annelid or an arthropod. To make certain, we need to recognize whether or not the animal has a cuticle.
The notochord is changed with a spinal wire within the case of humans who're vertebrate chordates. This difference is the main feature that separates invertebrate chordates from vertebrate chordates or animals with a backbone.
Chondrichthyans (sharks, skates, rays, and chimeras) and osteichthyans (bony fishes and tetrapods) are the best vertebrate corporations with extant (dwelling) representatives that have a mineralized skeleton.
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In the ________ phase of the sdlc, developers identify the features and functions needed in the new system.
The features and features required for the new system are determined by developers during the Analysis of the SDLC.
Describe the SDLC with an example:A technique for producing software and is of the best standard and cheapest in the shortest period of time is known as software development, commonly referred to as SDLC. An organization may quickly create high-quality software that has been thoroughly tested and is ready for use in production thanks to the SDLC's well-organized phases.
The SDLC principle is what?The software life cycle is a method for developing software that includes designing, coding, testing, and deployment. The phases of the SDLC are designed to assist organizations by providing predictable deliverables, visibility into budgets and timeframes, and control in software development.
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if an action potential could not be received by the atrioventricular node, despite the propagation through sinoatrial node, what do you predict would occur? check all that apply.
You would predict this to occur as an opening of atrioventricular valves, atria contraction, and filling of ventricles with blood if an action potential could not be received by the atrioventricular node, despite the propagation through the sinoatrial node.
So, the correct options are B, C &E.
It enables a left atrium action potential, causing both atria to contract simultaneously before the ventricles do. The AV delay delays the contraction of the ventricles by slowing the rate at which the impulse reaches them. This is significant because it gives the atria enough time to finish contracting so that the greatest amount of blood may be discharged into the ventricles.
The right and left atria to have time to contract first (eject blood to the ventricles) before the ventricles contract, which is why the AV node delay is so crucial. The AV node is a modified myocardium.
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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
If an action potential could not be received by the atrioventricular node, despite the propagation through the sinoatrial node, what do you predict would occur? select all that apply.
A. ventricles contract
B. atrioventricular valves open
C. atria contract
D. blood is pumped out of the ventricles
E. ventricles fill with blood
F. semilunar valves open
Meerkats are small desert mammals that live in groups of 20–50 individuals. Which behavior would you categorize as examples of reciprocal altruism if you saw them while observing a group of meerkats?.
They are illustrations of reciprocal altruism because in order for a favor to be exchanged, both parties must act in the other's best interests.
What is reciprocal altruism ?According to Trivers, reciprocal altruism is when two unrelated people act altruistically when there will be money (or at least a promise of reward) in the future for the altruistic act (Trivers, 1971). Reciprocal altruism is just a behavior in evolutionary biology when an organism temporarily lowers its fitness while raising the fitness of another organism, with the hope that other organism would act similarly in the future.
What is an example of reciprocal altruism ?Mutual grooming between various birds and mammals is one instance. Mutualism or symbiosis is the term for cooperative behavior among members of different species (e.g., cleaner fish clean the mouths of larger fish, which in turn refrain from eating them). Another illustration of humans reciprocal altruism would have included sharing food, tools, and information, as well as aiding sick people, the injured, and others when they are in need.
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which of the following chordates are not vertebrates? answer lancelets and tunicates lancelets and lampreys tunicates and lampreys echnioderms and lancelets
The chordates that are not vertebrates are: (1) lancelets and tunicates.
Chordates are the organisms that belong to the phylum Chordata of Kingdom Animalia. The characteristics that separate them from rest of the organism are: a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal slits, etc. These characters sometime definitely appear at some stage of the development of an animal.
Vertebrates are the animals that definitely possess a vertebral column or backbone for their whole life. The backbone is composed of several small bones joined together to provide a perfect posture to the body. The example of vertebrates are: amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.
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Genetic information is bundled into packages of
Genetic information is bundled into packages of DNA known as chromosomes. These chromosomes are thin thread-like structures that appeared during the process of cell division.
what is the maximum recombination frequency between any two genes? % enter only a number/numeral in the provided box.
Recombination frequency between two genes cannot be greater than 50% Due to random assortment of genes that produces 50% recombination.
When recombination frequency is 50% the maximum recombination frequency that can be observed, they have suggestive loci that are either on separate chromosomes, or are located very far apart on the same chromosome.
Hence, For two genes in any organism, specific nominal value is given that is recombination frequency the two will be between 0% and 50%. While Genes on separate or non-homologous pair in chromosomes will have a recombination frequency of 50% and they will be unlinked.
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A small, flowering plant has white flowers with bright red spots on them. When this flowering plant is self-pollinated, it produces new plants with either red flowers, white flowers, or white flowers with red spots. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon?.
The red and white flower alleles are codominant.
Mendel explain that any trait, for the organism that contains its alleles that should be dominant and recessive. Offspring from the cross of a homozygous red-flowered plant with a homozygous white-flowered plant will have red flowers.
In general, Pattern of inheritance is also termed as incomplete dominance, that means neither of the alleles is completely dominant on each other and both the alleles can appear at the same time. If allele for red flowers is incomplete dominance over the allele for white flowers. Then the combination will be Red + white = pink.
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Nearly all stimuli destined for the cerebral cortex must first pass through the ________.
Nearly all stimuli destined for the cerebral cortex must first pass through the Thalamus.
Thalamus is located in the central part of the brain, it receives sensory messages, such as touch and sends the messages to the appropriate part of the brain to be interpreted. Only sensory information that is not relayed by the thalamus into the cerebral cortex is information related to smell.
Sensory information generally travels from the body to the spinal cord before reaching the brain. This information travels up by using first, second, and third-order neurons. First-order neurons receive impulses from skin and send them to the spinal cord.
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Which of the following statements about plant stems is not true?
The xylem and phloem in a monocot plant are bundled together in pairs.
The xylem and phloem in a dicot plant are bundled together in pairs.
The xylem and phloem in a dicot plant are separated into rings.
The arrangement of the vascular system depends on whether the plant is a monocot or dicot.
In plant stems, monocots have scattered xylem and phloem, hence option a is correct.
What are the xylem and phloem?The monocot stem is made up of the phloem, xylem, and epidermis (vascular bundles). In a monocot stem, the vascular bundles are dispersed throughout the stem's origin under the epidermis.
One of the fundamental characteristics that distinguish herbaceous dicots from monocots is the dispersed organization of the vascular bundles.
Therefore xylem and phloem bundled together in monocot is an incorrect statement, hence option a is correct.
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first drag labels to the appropriate targets at the left to identify the parts of the chloroplast in this diagram. then drag labels to the appropriate targets to identify the structures involved in the light reactions.
a. stroma, b. thylakoid membrane, c. thylakoid space, d. photosystem II, e. electron transport chain, f. photosystem I, g. ATP synthase these labels will go to identify the structures involved in the light reactions.
The photosystem, a multi-protein complex, is where the conversion of light energy into chemical energy occurs. The thylakoid membrane contains photosystem II (PSII) and photosystem I, two different types of photosystems (PSI). In order to excite electrons and absorb solar energy, each photosystem is essential. "Energy carrier" molecules carry these energized electrons, which fuel the light-independent reactions.
A light-harvesting complex and a reaction center make up photosystems. Two unique chlorophyll molecules are located in the reaction center and receive light energy from pigments in the light-harvesting complex.
An electron from the chlorophyll pair is excited by the light and moves to the main electron acceptor. Afterward, the excited electron needs to be changed. In photosystem II, oxygen is produced as a waste product when water splits, providing the electron. The chloroplast electron transport chain is where the electron enters photosystem I.
The two photosystems react to distinct light wavelengths, deliver their powered electrons to various locations, and oxidize various low-energy electron sources.
In the light-independent reactions, also referred to as the Calvin cycle, the energetic electrons from the light-dependent reactions provide the energy to transform carbon dioxide molecules into carbohydrates. The light-independent reactions are occasionally referred to as the Calvin cycle due to the cycle-like aspect of the process.
Even though they don't use light as a reactant and can thus happen day or night, the products of the light-dependent reactions are required for the light-independent processes to function. The energy-carrying molecules ATP and NADPH, which are not dependent on light, fuel the synthesis of new carbohydrate molecules. Once the energy has been transferred, the energy carrier molecules return to the light-dependent processes to obtain further energized electrons.
In addition, a number of the enzymes involved in the light-dependent processes are activated by light.
The complete question is:
First, drag labels to the appropriate targets at the left to identify the parts of the chloroplast in this diagram. then drag labels to the appropriate targets to identify the structures involved in the light reactions.
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Detective Smith tells his officers to investigate livor mortis in the victim's body. How would the officers MOST accurately do this?
By checking dark purple discoloration of the skin on the victim’s body detective smith talks about liver mortis in victim’s body most accurately.
Liver mortisThe term "livor mortis," which is also used to describe post-mortem lividity or post-mortem hypostasis, describes the accumulation of blood in the lower or dependent regions of the body after death. The skin becomes darkly discoloured purple as a result. One of the four post-mortem indicators of death, livor mortis results from the heart no longer pumping blood through the body. Red blood cells consequently sink and collect in the body's dependent areas due to gravity.
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the ____ duct receives lymph from the indicated area of the body
The thoracic duct receives lymph from the indicated area of the body.
The thoracic duct passes thru the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm into the posterior mediastinum continuing cephalad among the aorta and azygos vein till about the extent of the fifth thoracic vertebra wherein it passes at the back of the esophagus.
The thoracic duct extends from the twelfth thoracic vertebra to the foundation of the neck. The thoracic duct is formed from the abdominal confluence of the left and right lumbar lymph trunks, as well as the left and right intestinal lymph trunks among T12 and L2.
It enters the thorax thru the aortic starting of the diaphragm between the aorta and the azygos vein. within the posterior mediastinum, the thoracic duct lies anterior to the vertebral column, the proper intercostal arteries, and the hemiazygos veins as they pass to open into the azygos vein.
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