Select all that apply
Indicate which of the following are functions of saliva. (select all that apply)
Multiple select question.
helps cleanse the mouth and teeth
moistens food particles
initiates chemical digestion of carbohydrates
initiates chemical digestion of proteins
dissolves molecules so they can be tasted
aids in mechanical digestion

Answers

Answer 1

Functions of saliva include helping cleanse the mouth and teeth, moistening food particles, initiating chemical digestion of carbohydrates, and dissolving molecules so they can be tasted (options 1, 2, 3 and 5).

What is the saliva?

Saliva is a secretion of the body which contains many enzymes required to digest foods but also can be helpful to eliminate pathogenic agents such as bacteria and viruses before entry to the organism.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the saliva is a very useful secretion of the saliva glands which served to digest foods.

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Related Questions

Idiosyncratic beliefs that are held despite their preposterousness are _______. A. Negative symptoms
B. Hallucinations
C. Delucsions
D. Disorganized symtoms

Answers

Idiosyncratic beliefs that are held despite their preposterousness are Option A. Negative symptoms

An idiosyncrasy is a peculiar quality in a person (though there are also other uses, see below). A peculiar behaviour is another possible meaning. The adjective is frequently used to describe eccentricity or strangeness. Quirk is a possible alternative.

An individual characteristic and a systematic regularity are in contrast in phonology. While phonological principles can be discovered by analysing the shapes morphemes can take using systematic regularities in a language's sound system, idiosyncratic features are those whose occurrence is not governed by those rules. The fact that the English word "cab" begins with a "k" is an idiosyncratic feature, whereas the vowel in "cab" is longer than in "cap" is a systematic regularity because the final consonant is voiced rather than voiceless.

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all of the following statements are correct relative to solar cheilosis except for one qhich one is the exception

Answers

This is incorrect because SC is not a clinical dose meter for chronic UVR exposure. SC is a clinical sign of chronic UVR exposure.

What is solar cheilosis(SC)?

Solar cheilosis (SC), a form of precancer of the lower lip, is brought on by exposure to ultraviolet light, particularly UV-B from sunlight. There are other factors that can contribute to the development of SC besides UV-B exposure, such as skin phenotype, age, male sex, outdoor employment, rural living, and host immune state. Immunologically compromised individuals find it more difficult to fight SC than healthy individuals.

Therefore, all of the above is the correct answer which fulfills all the conditions of solar cheilosis.

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Complete Question:

All of the following statements are correct relative to solar cheilosis except for one qhich one is the exception
A. The major etiologic factor associated with SC is ultraviolet radiation, principally UV-B.

B. Factors predisposing to SC include skin phenotype, age, male sex, outdoor occupation, rural living, and host immune status.

C. AK and SC serve as clinical dose meters for chronic UVR exposure.

D. All of the above.

This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis.*c. perfringens*c. difficile*c. tetani*c. botulinum

Answers

Clostridium perfringens is the organism that can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis (Option A).

What is Clostridium perfringens?

Clostridium perfringens or C. perfringens is a microorganism that represents the most common reason for food contamination poisoning, which is a harmful gram-positive bacteria belonging to the clostridium genus.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that Clostridium perfringens or C. perfringens is a pahtogenic bacteria associated with the contamination of foods, which belongs to the clostridium genus and may be identified because it is gram-positive.

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I need help with these bio​

Answers

1. The independent variable is the light intensity

2. The dependent variable is the rate of photosynthesis

3. The controlled variables are all other variables involved in the experiment

4. Low amount of gas will be produced

5. Light intensity has a direct correlation with the rate of photosynthesis

Light and photosynthesis

Photosynthesis is a process whereby green plants use solar radiation and inorganic materials such as carbon dioxide and water to synthesize organic carbohydrates. During this process, oxygen gas is produced as a by-product.

Thus, in the experiment investigating the correlation between light intensity and the rate of photosynthesis, the input variable is the independent variable. Thus, the independent variable would be light intensity.

The variable that shows the effect of the input variable is known as the dependent variable. Thus, the dependent variable would be the rate of photosynthesis.

The remaining variables apart from dependent and independent variables are controlled variables. The higher the amount of gas produced, the higher the rate of photosynthesis. Thus, low gas production will be observed with a low rate of photosynthesis.

From the experiment, all other things being constant, the more the light intensity, the more the rate of photosynthesis.

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Which of the following would be an example of a biological influence into the development of a pathological fear of the sight of blood?
a. The immediate assistance offered by friends and family when one appears distressed.
b. The tendency to escape and avoid situations involving blood.
c. An increase in one's experience of anxiety.
d. An increase in heart rate and blood pressure.

Answers

An increase in heart rate and blood pressure would be an example of a biological influence into the development of a pathological fear of the sight of blood.

Blood pressure is the force of blood pressing against the artery walls while the heart beats. High blood pressure, often known as hypertension, occurs when that force becomes excessive and begins to injure the body. If left untreated, it will eventually cause heart and blood vessel damage.

When the heart contracts, the highest systolic blood pressure measures the force pressing against the artery walls. Bottom diastolic blood pressure measures the pressure in the arteries between heartbeats.

Normal blood pressure is 120 mmHg/80 mmHg or less. The dangerous readings are 120-139 mmHg/80-89 mmHg. High blood pressure is defined as readings of 140 mmHg/90 mmHg or greater.

The correct answer is option D.

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TRUE/FALSE. the mignonette, or reseda odorata is a part of one of the 40 genus of fragrant flowered herbs in the family of resedaceae. they originate in europe,

Answers

True, A member of the 40 genera of fragrant blooming plants in the Rosaceae family, which have their origins in Europe, is the mignonette, and reseda data.

In the family Resedaceae, the genus Mignonette contains roughly 40 species of herbs and shrubs with aromatic flowers. They were widely imported abroad despite being native to portions of Asia, North Africa, and Europe. Many of the species are now common garden flowers.

Mignonette is a 'floppy', spreading biennial with no hair. It typically measures 12 inches tall, although it may also be much larger or higher. There might be a leaf rosette at the base. The leaves have a pinnate look, are deeply cut, and have wavy margins.

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dna methyltransferases (dnmts) play a major role in gene regulation. sort the items to their respective bins.

Answers

DNA methyl transferases called DNMTs add methyl groups to DNA's cytosine residues.

Transferring the methyl group from S-adenosyl methionine to the 5' position on cytosine bases is the fundamental job of all DNMTs.

They are divided into the DNMT1, DNMT3a, DNMT3b, and DNMT3L groups. Enzymatically, DNMT3L is not active. While DNMT1 is a maintenance methyl transferase that imitates the methylation pattern from one strand of DNA to another, DNMT3a and DNMT3b are denovo methyl transferases that establish the methylation patterns starting at the embryonic stage.

DNMT1 - keep consistent DNA methylation patterns

DNMT3a and DNMT3b - Create unique DNA methylation patterns and act on CpG dinucleotides found in heterochromatin's repetitive DNA sequences

Every DNMT - Add a methyl group to produce 5-methylcytidine, then act on the cytosine bases next to the guanine bases.

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according to kelso (2019), there is a stereotype of masculine attractiveness for gay men that is depicted repeatedly in advertisements. this stereotype includes all of the following, except:
O White (caucasian) O Muscular O Lack of body hair
O Youthfulness O Dark hair

Answers

According to the given statement This stereotype includes all of the following, except  Lack of body hair.

Why is muscular fitness so important?

Your muscles will get stronger and more attractive as you do, and so will your bones. This encourages good posture and relieves back pain. The likelihood of falls that result in injuries will decrease as a result of your versatility, balance, and stability. The capacity to do an activity repeatedly is known as muscular endurance, which may be improved by sports like marathon, cycling, and swimming as well as strength training and weightlifting.

How can muscle strength be measured?

Strength training and leg press are the two exercises that are most frequently used to measure the physical strength of the upper and lower bodies, respectively. The arm curling, latissimus dorsi making available, knee extension, and knee curl are further dynamic strength assessments.

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Antibodies are characterized as ______ and possess oligosaccharides bonded to which amino acid?
A. O-linked; serine
B. O-linked; asparagine
C. O-linked; threonine
D. N-linked; glutamine
E. N-linked; asparagine
74 in the cAMP-dependent activation of pyruvate kinase which of the following amino acids is phosphorylated?
a. His
b. Thr
C. Tyr
D. Ser
E. Lys

Answers

Antibodies are characterized as O-linked; serine and possess oligosaccharides bonded to which amino acid. Option A.

Immunoglobulins are found in blood and other tissues and fluids. They are made by plasma cells that are derived from the B cells of the immune system. Her B cells of the immune system become plasma cells when activated by the binding of specific antigens to its antibody surface.

Chronic infection. Autoimmune diseases in which the immune system overreacts, such as rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, and celiac disease. Bad antibodies are known to react against the body's own tissues and cause autoimmune diseases. For this reason, it was previously thought to be excreted by the immune system or rendered inactive in the long term.

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which of the following statements about secondary messengers is true? they carry out the effects of steroid hormones within the cell. they carry out the effects of non-steroid hormones within the cell. they work with both steroid and non-steroid hormones to carry out their effects in the cell. they are a third type of hormone, although they differ significantly from the other two.

Answers

The secondary messengers carry out the effects of non-steroid hormones within the cell. Thus the correct answer is option (B).

The Secondary messenger refers to the tiny molecules and ions that transmit signals from cell-surface receptors to effector proteins. Cyclic AMP, cyclic GMP inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (), diacylglycerol (DAG), and calcium are examples of secondary messengers. increases intracellular free temporarily, whereas DAG activates protein kinase C directly.

Phosphatidylinositol is used in two different types of signaling pathways. Phospholipase C converts phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate into IP3, an essential component of the Ca-signaling pathway that was previously discussed.

The complete question is:

Which of the following statements about secondary messengers is true? (A). they carry out the effects of steroid hormones within the cell.

(B). they carry out the effects of non-steroid hormones within the cell. (C). they work with both steroid and non-steroid hormones to carry out their effects in the cell.

(D). they are the third type of hormone, although they differ significantly from the other two.

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show that the variance of for random samples of size from a normal population decreases as becomes large. [hint: first find the variance of

Answers

As the sample size is increased, the bias will become smaller because it is inversely related to the population variance.

The population variance divided by N, the sample size, yields the variance of the sampling distribution of the mean (the number of scores used to compute a mean). Therefore, the variance of the sampling distribution of the mean is lower the higher the sample size. The sampling distribution tends to become normal as sample size rises. As a result, the sample distribution takes on a leptokurtic appearance. It only occurs because the variability diminishes as sample size increases since the distribution of the samples closely mimics the population. A chi-squared distribution with a degree of freedom equal to n1, where n is the sample size, represents the sampling distribution of the sample variance (given that the random variable of interest is normally distributed).

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Individuals with severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID) have a genetic defect that prevents proper formation and expression of immunoglobins and T cells and therefore do not have adaptive immunity.
True

Answers

The assertion is true. Because of a genetic abnormality that inhibits immunoglobins and T cells from properly forming and expressing, people with severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID) lack adaptive immunity.

SCID (combined immunodeficiency) patients have a genetic abnormality that affects T cells and at least one other kind of immune cell. Which immune cells—T, B, and/or NK cells—are damaged determines the different types of SCID. SCID comes in a variety of forms, each of which is brought on by a unique genetic (hereditary) flaw.

This means that the stated statement is accurate. In persons with severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID), adaptive immunity is absent due to a genetic anomaly that prevents immunoglobins and T cells from properly developing and expressing.

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The auditory ossicles connect the
tympanic membrane to the oval window.
stapedius to the tympanic membrane.
tympanic membrane to the round window.
oval window to the round window.
otitis to the media.

Answers

The auditory ossicles connect the tympanic membrane to the oval window option - a is correct answer.

The auditory ossicles are what connect what?

The tympanic membrane and the malleus, incus, and stapes, three bony ossicles, make up the middle ear. These three ossicles connect the inner ear to the tympanic membrane, allowing sound waves to travel there.

A crucial part of this function is played by the auditory ossicles (malleus, incus, and stapes). In order for the incus and stapes to receive auditory oscillations, the malleus must be connected to the tympanic membrane. Mechanical energy can be transmitted to the fluid-filled inner ear through the stapes' connection to the oval window.

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For pathogen below, choose the type of cell that would be used in the adaptive immune response
Fungi
Extracellular bacteria
Th17 cells
Hint: The cell type is a helper cell that produces large quantities of a specific cytokine, IL-17, which recruits the neutrophils to induce phagocytic activity and clear extracellular pathogens.

Answers

For the pathogen below select the kind of mobile that could be used inside the adaptive immune reaction Th1 cells

hint: The cell type may be a helper mobile that produces cytokines (particularly IFN-y) that stimulate the macrophages and lets in for phagocytosis.

Adaptive immune responses are performed via white blood cells known as lymphocytes. There are two extensive lessons of such responses antibody responses and mobile-mediated immune responses, and they are accomplished via distinct training of lymphocytes, referred to as B cells and T cells, respectively.

The adaptive immune system includes the T cells and B cells not like the cells of the innate immune device, T cells and B cells can identify specific features of pathogens or most cancers. DNA gives the instructions for a cell's increase, survival, and reproduction.

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Which of the following depicts the correct order of how molecules move through cellular respiration?

Answers

The following illustration shows the correct flow of molecules during cellular respiration: Acetic acid, pyruvic acid, glucose, and acetyl CoA

A metabolic process called cellular respiration converts glucose to ATP. Glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, the citric acid or Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation are steps in cellular respiration. Respiration is the process by which complex molecules' C–C bonds are broken by oxidation within cells, resulting in the release of a significant amount of energy. This procedure is known as cellular respiration because it takes place within the cell. It is a multi-step process that begins with the breakdown of glucose to produce a pyruvate molecule with three carbons. The process here is called glycolysis. The cytoplasm is the location of glycolysis. The pyruvate is further transformed into a two-carbon acetyl CoA. This process is called as "oxidative decarboxylation".

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because biological systems are generally held at constant temperature and pressure, it is possible to predict the direction of a chemical reaction by measuring which of the following?

Answers

Because biological systems are generally held at constant temperature and pressure, it is possible to predict the direction of a chemical reaction by measuring (4) free energy.

Chemical reaction is defined as the process where one substance is changed into another due to the effect of any external agent. The substance that gets converted is called reactant. The substance formed after reaction is called the product. And an external agent can be varying like an enzyme, some other chemical, temperature change, pressure change, etc.

Free energy is a thermodynamic quantity that defines the ability of a system to perform work. It is easily available at any condition for the system to perform work and hence is called free energy.

The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

Because biological systems are generally held at constant temperature and pressure, it is possible to predict the direction of a chemical reaction by measuring which of the following?

ATP concentrationEnthalpyEntropyFree energy

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Most neurons are permanent cells, however _____ are neurons that are constantly being replaced.

Answers

Most neurons are permanent cells, however olfactory neurons are neurons that are constantly being replaced.

What are neurons?

Neurons are cells of the nervous system, which conducts nerve impulses. Neurons consist of an axon and several dendrites and are connected by synapses.

Permanent cells are defined as cells that are unable to replicate in postnatal life. Nervous cells, also termed neurons, together with skeletal muscle and cardiac cells, are included in this group, which traditionally identifies the human tissues that are incapable of spontaneous regeneration.

The olfactory mucosa consists of a layer of columnar epithelium, surrounding millions of olfactory neurons, which are the only neurons to communicate with the external environment and undergo constant replacement.

Therefore, it can be said that olfactory neurons undergo constant replacement unlike every other neuron that are permanent cells.

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Indicate which of the following statements about Homo erectus are correct and which are incorrect by dragging them to the appropriate boxes.
-Homo erectus overlapped in time with Australopithecus.
-Homo erectus had large browridges.

Answers

Homo erectus overlapped in time with Australopithecus. Homo erectus had large browridges.

Early hominins belonging to the genus Australopithecus lived in Africa in the Late Pliocene and Early Pleistocene. The name comes from the Latin australis, which means "southern," and Ancient Greek. Modern humans are members of the genus Homo, which developed from Australopithecus as a sister group to species like Australopithecus sediba. Within Australopithecus, the taxa Paranthropus and Kenyanthropus also appeared. Although the name "australopithecine" is occasionally used to refer exclusively to individuals of Australopithecus, Australopithecus is a member of the subtribe Australopithecina. Afarensis, Anamensis, A. bahrelghazali, A. sediba, A. garhi, A. africanus, B. bahrelghazali, and A. deyiremeda are among the species. Because of the taxonomic discrepancy, there is debate about whether some Australopithecus species should be placed in new genera or whether Paranthropus and Kenyanthropus are the same species as Australopithecus.

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Using the fluid mosaic model, a cell is actively capable of protecting itself against injurious agentsby:
a.closing down the membrane transport channels to hormones and chemicals.
b.altering the number and patterns of receptors to bacteria, antibodies, andchemicals.
c.increasing the number and sensitivity of lysosomes to destroy bacteria.
d.shifting the bilayer from hydrophobic to hydrophilic in response to antibodies.

Answers

Using the fluid mosaic model, a cell is actively capable of protecting itself against injurious agents by b. altering the number & patterns of receptors to bacteria, antibodies & chemicals.

In the field of biology, the fluid mosaic model can be described as a model that described the formation of the cell membranes in such a way that it facilitates the entry and exit of molecules across a cell.

The fluid mosaic model describes how there are different receptors present in the cell membrane that allows the entry and exit of bacteria, antibodies & chemicals. The injurious agents are not allowed to enter the cell as the cell receptor makes changes in itself which causes the injurious agents do not to enter the cell.

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in what abnormal medical condition will an ECG lack?​

Answers

ECG abnormal is a normal variation of a heart's rhythm which does not affect health.

What is abnormal condition?

Abnormal Condition means any condition established at conception or acquired in utero which results in a morphologic structural, metabolic and biochemical functional. Diseases are generally understood to be medical conditions that involve a pathological process associated with a specific set of symptoms.

Therefore ECG abnormal is a normal variation of a heart's rhythm which does not affect health.

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18. in fruit flies, brown bodies (b) are dominant to black bodies (b). cross a black fruit fly with a heterozygous fruit fly. determine the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of their potential offspring.

Answers

Both brown flies (genotype Bb) and black flies (phenotype bb) are potential phenotypes of heterozygous fruit flies with brown bodies (Bb) that are crossed with black bodies (bb) (genotype bb).

The Punnett square is a genetics diagram that is used to determine the potential phenotypes and genotypes in offspring based on the cross, in this example Bb x bb to produce Bb and bb children.

The Punnett square may therefore be used to determine the phenotypes in the following generation by their genotypes, as shown by the data in the question above.

It has the name of Reginald C. Punnett, who developed the strategy in 1905. The likelihood that a child will have a specific genotype is calculated by biologists using the square figure.

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giving examples from organism studied, explain how the amount of yolk affects cleavage and gastrulation

Answers

Yolk is a nutrient-rich substance that is found in the egg cells of many organisms, including some invertebrates and some fish. The amount of yolk found in an egg can have a large effect on how the organisms develop.

In many organisms, the amount of yolk in the egg affects the development of the embryo. In Xenopus laevis, a species of frog, more yolk in the egg leads to more unequal cleavage and an uneven distribution of cell types during gastrulation.

When the egg contains more yolk, some cells get more yolk than others, and this causes them to divide more slowly than cells that don’t have as much yolk. This leads to an unequal distribution of cells during cleavage, which can result in an uneven distribution of cells during gastrulation. This uneven distribution of cells means that some cells will migrate further than others during gastrulation, leading to an uneven distribution of cell types in the embryo. This can affect the development of the embryo, as the distribution of cells during gastrulation can determine which tissues and organs will form.

In organisms that undergo gastrulation, the amount of yolk in an egg can also affect the way in which the embryo forms. For example, in the frog, those eggs with more yolk tend to form a larger blastopore, which is the opening from which the gastrula forms. This is because the cells in the egg with more yolk will divide faster and spread to a larger area, which allows for a larger blastopore to form.

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the process by which norms and ideals surrounding women's sexuality are becoming increasingly similar to norms and ideals of men's sexuality is known as ______ .

Answers

the process by which norms and ideals surrounding women's sexuality are becoming increasingly similar to norms and ideals of men's sexuality is known as sexual convergence.

How do gender norms affect sexuality?There is clear evidence that boys and girls who adhere to harmful and inequitable gender norms are at higher risk for engaging in behaviors that can lead to unintended pregnancy, sexually transmitted infections, and violence.The nor for women's sexuality is generally expected to dress in typically feminine ways and be polite, accommodating, and nurturing. Men norms are generally expected to be strong, aggressive, and bold. Every society, ethnic group, and culture has gender role expectations, but they can be very different from group to group.

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HELP PLS!

Answer all questions for both mitosis and meiosis in a few words THANK YOU:)

Answers

The complete chart of mitosis and meiosis is shown below:

What is mitosis and meiosis?

The cell division process known as meiosis is what produces egg and sperm cells. A vital process for life is mitosis. A cell divides into two identical daughter cells after duplicating all of its components, including its chromosomes.

a)

In mitosis: eukaryotic cells undergoes this process

In meiosis: Gametes or germ cells undergoes this process.

b)

In mitosis: 2 daughter cells are produced.

In meiosis: 4 daughter cells are produced

c)

In mitosis: two cell divisions.

In meiosis: two cell divisions.

d)

In mitosis: The result of mitosis is for cell growth and to replace damaged cells.

In meiosis: The result of mitosis is two identical daughter cells, genetically identical to the original cell, all having 2N chromosome.

e)

In mitosis: 15 chromosome in parent cell

In meiosis: 23 chromosome in parent cell

f)

In mitosis: 30 chromosomes in daughter cells

In meiosis: 46 chromosomes in daughter cells.

g)

In mitosis: 46 monovalent chromosomes of DNA replication.

In meiosis: meiosis consists of one round of DNA replication.

h)

In mitosis: 15 no. of chromosomes in daughter cells in comparison to the no. of parent cells.

In meiosis: 23 no. of chromosomes in daughter cells in comparison to the no. of parent cells.

i)

In mitosis: do not appear in mitosis.

In meiosis: tetrads formed

j)

In mitosis:  here crossing over occurred.

In meiosis: here crossing over occurred.

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A process by which specific proteins help substances that otherwise could not cross the membrane diffuse down their concentration gradient is known as?

Answers

The process by which specific proteins help substances that otherwise could not cross the membrane diffuse down their concentration gradient is known as facilitated diffusion.

Facilitated diffusion is a type of passive transport, which means that it does not require the cell to use energy to transport molecules across the membrane. Instead, the molecules are able to move down their concentration gradient, from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, with the help of special proteins called transport proteins. These proteins act as channels or carriers, allowing the molecules to pass through the membrane and into the cell. Because the molecules are moving down their concentration gradient, facilitated diffusion does not require energy and is therefore considered a passive process.

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variegated limpets are a different species from olive limpets. they live on the same rocky benches along the same sea shore, and eat the same kinds of foods. they are both active only at night. the variegated limpet lives only in tide pools that are typically 5 - 15 meters from the tide lines, the olives in pools 1 - 3 meters from the tide line. hence they rarely encounter each other, especially in the breeding season, and never have offspring. this is an example of isolation. (mark all that apply)

Answers

The correct statements about variegated limpets are:

a)They are a group of aquatic animals

c)They exist a conical shell shape

So,correct options are a and c.

The Variegated Limpet is oval molded, somewhat more extensive at the back. Its pinnacle isn't exactly focal. The figure is of 36 in number, spiral ribs with some fine, surrounding development lines, which are near one another. The edge is finely scalloped. A few limpet from low on the shore might be very huge, thick and exceptionally tall. High on the shore, people might be very level and slim shelled. There is an extraordinary reach in structure.

The Variegated Limpet can endure a large number of environments and is tracked down under many states of openness and moistness. The Variegated Limpet can exhume a downturn for itself in the stone and shows "homing" conduct in the wake of taking care of outings. It leaves a synthetic path on the outward excursion which permits the limpet to find its direction home.

Hence, option a and c are correct.

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(Complete question) is:

variegated limpets are a different species from olive limpets. they live on the same rocky benches along the same sea shore, and eat the same kinds of foods. they are both active only at night. the variegated limpet lives only in tide pools that are typically 5 - 15 meters from the tide lines, the olives in pools 1 - 3 meters from the tide line. hence they rarely encounter each other, especially in the breeding season, and never have offspring. this is an example of isolation. Select statements which are true about variegated limpets.(mark all that apply)

a)They are a group of aquatic animals

b)They exist a circular shell shape

c)They exist a conical shell shape

d)They are a group of amphibians

In the figure, which areas represent antigen-binding sites?
A. A and B
B. A and C
C. B and C
D. C and D
E. B and D
A. A and B

Answers

In figure, A. A and B represent antigen-binding sites. (image attached)

Antibodies are required for presenting the antigen to other lymphocytes for processing or elimination because they have antigen-binding sites that allow them to recognize a particular portion of the antigen. In order to identify the antigen, antibodies require specific regions in their "Y"-shaped chain.

The epitope or antigenic determinant binds to the antibody at the location known as the antigen-binding site or paratope. Each of the heavy and light chains has one constant and one variable domain in it. Fragment antigen-binding (Fab) involves the site. Between two heavy chains and two light chains, each arm of the Y structure can bind to an antigen epitope.

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match the nerve with the correct function: branch of the facial nerve (vii) called the chorda tympani

Answers

The anterior two-thirds of the tongue send taste signals to the chorda tympani facial nerve.

The front of the tongue's taste buds give rise to the chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve, which travels via the middle ear before entering the brain. At the point where the facial nerve leaves the skull by the stylomastoid foramen, it connects to the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) inside the facial canal. The facial nerve, however, leaves the skull through the petrotympanic fissure and descends in the infratemporal fossa.

The muscles that let you frown, grin, wrinkle your nose, and raise your eyebrows and forehead are all controlled by the facial nerve.

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An _____ gland is a ductless gland that empties its hormone into the extracellular fluid.
a) endocrine
b) exocrine
c) neuronal

Answers

Endocrine glands are hormone-secreting ductless glands that release their hormones into in the extracellular fluid.The glands without ducts that secrete hormones into the body are known as endocrine glands.

Is the pituitary gland ductless?

The two adrenal glands, the spleen, the thyroid, the pituitary, the thymus, and the pineal gland are all ductless glands.

What kind of epithelial gland was considered ductless?

Endocrine glands originally have ducts linking them to the epithelial sheet's free surface because they develop by invaginating from the epithelial sheet.They become ductless glands throughout embryonic development because they will lack their ducts.

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the destruction of this intrinsic factor producing organ would mean that you would no longer be able to absorb vitamin b12 through the digestive system.

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Colonic disruption of this endogenous factor-producing organ means that vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed through the digestive system.

Intrinsic Factor Binds Vitamin B12. Upon binding, intrinsic factor and B12 travel to the intestine and are absorbed into the bloodstream. Vitamin B12 is required for the formation and growth of red blood cells. The digestive system breaks down food into nutrients such as carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. They are then absorbed into the bloodstream and can be used by the body for energy, growth, and repair. Anything that is no longer used is discarded as feces.

The human digestive system consists of the gastrointestinal tract and the accessory digestive organs. Digestion breaks down food into smaller and smaller components until they are absorbed and absorbed by the body.

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