Advance directives are written or spoken instructions established by a patient that detail particular intentions for medical treatment if he or she becomes disabled or incapable.
Written or spoken directives made by the patient outlining particular preferences for medical care in the case of incapacitation or incompetence. A durable power of attorney and a living will are a couple of examples.
Care plans are legal papers that increase a person's ability to make decisions about their health care if they become incapacitated. Advance directives are so named because they express desires before becoming incapacitated.
A long-term power of attorney regarding health care and a living will are the two major components of an advance directive. Your advance directive may be supplemented by other papers.
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when a client develops internal bleeding after abdominal surgery, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct
The clinical manifestations which a nurse should expect to occur in a patient with internal bleeding after abdominal surgery from the task above are:
The client feels dizzy always when standingThe client experiences nausea and vomitingThe client do have pains at the injured site.The correct answer choices are options a, b and d.
What is meant by internal bleeding?Internal bleeding simply refers to the bleeding which occurs inside the body system. In order words, it is the bleeding which occurs as a result of damaged blood vessels within the body. That said, some of the symptoms of internal bleeding in patients experiencing them include pains at the organ which is injured internally or at the site of injury.
In conclusion, it can therefore be deduced from the explanation given above that internal bleeding is a very serious health condition which needs urgent medical attention.
Complete question:
when a client develops internal bleeding after abdominal surgery, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct
a. The client feels dizzy always when standing
b. The client experiences nausea and vomiting
c. Increased body temperature
d. The client do have pains at the injured site.
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your friend alexander is being treated with medicine for his depression. which type of medicine is he most likely to be receiving?
If Alexander is being treated with medicine for his depression, then the type of medicine that most likely he receives is Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
What are Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are medical drugs that act by increasing the concentration of serotonin neurotransmitters in the brain, which has an anti-depressive effect and therefore they can be used to treat this disease.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) can be used as antidepressants due to the generation of serotonin.
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which nursing action would be beneficial for a patient with a terminal illness who is experiencing diarrhea
The nursing action that would be beneficial for a patient with a terminal illness who is experiencing diarrhea is to provide a bedside commode.
Loose, watery, and sometimes more frequent bowel motions, also known as diarrhea, are typical issues. It could exist by itself or come along with other symptoms including vomiting, nausea, back pain, or weight loss.
Numerous factors might cause diarrhea, which often clears up on its own in one to three days. You could feel the want to urgently run to the bathroom when you have diarrhea, and this might happen more frequently than usual. Additionally, you could have nausea sometimes, lower stomach cramps, and bloating.
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TRUE/FALSE. the resting heart rates of adult american men are described by normal distribution with a mean of 65 bpm
The statement 'the resting heart rates of adult American men are described by a normal distribution with a mean of 65 bpm' is true.
Based on the American living style, people do not work or engage in heavy activities. Hence, their normal distribution of the heart rate has a mean of about 60-65 beats per minute. Hence, the above statement is true.
In the field of biology, the heart rate can be described as the number of times the heart of a particular person beats in a minute. For athletes, the bpm is lower as compared to standard American people who have a sedentary lifestyle. Hence, the normal distribution mean for American men is 65 bpm and for those athletic persons is 40 bpm.
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you are called to the home of an elderly female who is having difficulty breathing. she has a history of chronic congestive heart failure. which vital
Her persistent congestive heart failure has a history. which crucial When the heart muscle is unable to pump blood as effectively as it should, the result is chronic congestive heart failure, also referred to as heart failure. This frequently causes blood to pool and fluid to build up in the lungs, which can lead to shortness of breath.
Some cardiac conditions, such as coronary artery disease (coronary artery disease) or high blood pressure, cause the heart to eventually become too weak or stiff to fill and pump blood adequately.
Heart failure symptoms and indicators can be lessened with the correct therapy, and some patients may even live longer. Making lifestyle adjustments, such as reducing your weight, increasing your physical activity, eating less salt (sodium), and controlling your stress, can enhance your quality of life. However, heart failure puts your life at danger. People with heart failure may have significant symptoms, and some may need a chronic congestive heart transplant or a ventricular assist device.
preventing and treating issues like obesity, diabetes, high blood pressure, and coronary artery disease
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which of the following is associated with a dth response? question 9 options: a) response to poison ivy b) response to nickel c) tuberculin skin test d) hay fever
Answer:
The correct answer is C. Tuberculin skin test.
Explanation:
A DTH response, or delayed-type hypersensitivity response, is a type of immune response that is characterized by a slow onset of symptoms. This type of response is typically associated with a type of skin test called the tuberculin skin test, which is used to diagnose tuberculosis. The test involves injecting a small amount of a protein called PPD (purified protein derivative) into the skin, and then observing the skin for any signs of a reaction. If the person being tested has been exposed to tuberculosis, their immune system will recognize the PPD as an invader and mount a DTH response, which can be seen as a small bump or redness at the injection site. This response is an indication that the person has been exposed to tuberculosis.
a 14-year-old male was taken to the emergency room in a coma by his school nurse. he had lost 15 pounds in 3 months. his teacher said he was always thirsty and that was he spent a lot of time running between the water fountain and the bathroom. considering the patient's results and symptoms, what could be the cause for the osmolality result and increased thirst?
Answer:
The extracellular solution becomes more concentrated as a result of the elevated glucose level, increasing the hypothalamus' thirst center.
FILL IN THE BLANK. synthesis of thromboxane a2 is inhibited by___, which is often recommended in low doses for people at risk for coronary heart disease and/or stroke.
Synthesis of thromboxane a2 is inhibited by Aspirin , which is often recommended in low doses for people at risk for coronary heart disease and/or stroke.
Aspirin inhibits both the potent platelet thromboxane A2 and the potent anti-aggregator prostacyclin. Another method to prevent platelet aggregation may be to selectively reduce thromboxane synthesis.
Aspirin reduces the production of thromboxane A2, which is responsible for platelet aggregation, via inhibiting cyclooxygenase. Ticlopidine blocks the platelet membrane's ability to perform its function by preventing ADP-induced platelet-fibrinogen binding and subsequent platelet-platelet interaction. While thromboxane A2 promotes platelet aggregation, prostacyclin inhibits it.
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Which of the conditions listed below may be characterized by a white pupillary reflex in a pediatric patient?
A. Choroidal nevus
B. Congenital glaucoma
C. Iris coloboma
D. Retinoblastoma
The condition that causes a white pupillary reaction in a paediatric kid is known as retinoblastoma.
While, a number of other ailments are also seen rather frequently these days.
A white pupillary reflex is frequently caused by a cataract, retinoblastoma, retinal detachment, retinopathy of prematurity, pupillary membrane persistence, persistent hyperplastic vitreous (PHPV), endophthalmitis, optic nerve coloboma, iris heterochromia, and ametropia.
Surprisingly, both young people and infants are affected by these disorders.
The older generation was impacted by eye disorders in the past.
Above all, though, we must take these illnesses seriously and work to raise awareness by trying to gather more and more data on them.
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can you differentiate the short-term complications of diabetes mellitus? for each complication, drag and drop the statements that apply to the complication to the box.primary signs of diabetes mellitus
Short-term complications incorporate successive peeing, expanded thirst, obscured vision, weakness, and cerebral pain. Keeping tight control of your glucose is perhaps the main thing diabetic patients require to do to stay away from additional serious inconveniences from creating.
Short-term complications of type 2 diabetes are hypoglycemia (extremely low blood glucose) and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic disorder (HHNS), which is exceptionally high blood glucose. Long haul complexities of type 2 are diabetic retinopathy, kidney infection (nephropathy), diabetic neuropathy, and macrovascular issues. Normal diabetes unexpected issues incorporate coronary illness, ongoing kidney infection, nerve harm, and different issues with feet, oral wellbeing, vision, hearing, and emotional well-being.
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Pump the blood in the heart to the rest of the body, delivered at a rate of at least 100/min, but not more than 120/min.
Chest compressions results into pumping the blood in the heart to the rest of the body, delivered at a rate of at least 100/min, but not more than 120/min.
What are Chest compressions?Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is the procedure which includes both chest compressions and rescue breathing. It is an emergency procedure which consist of chest compressions that are often combined with artificial ventilation in an effort to manually preserve the intact brain functions until further measures are taken to restore the spontaneous blood circulation back in the body and breathing in a person who is in cardiac arrest.
The initial stage of cardiopulmonary resuscitation includes 30 chest compressions before giving two rescue breaths. The chest compressions results into pumping the blood in the heart to the rest of the body, delivered at a rate of at least 100/min, but not more than 120/min.
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the nurse is assigned to care for a child admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of suspected bacterial endocarditis. the nurse prepares the child for which diagnostic test that will confirm the diagnosis?
A nurse is tasked with caring for a kid brought to the hospital with such a diagnosis of probable bacterial endocarditis, the nurse prepares him or her for the diagnostic test that will confirm the findings of blood cultures.
A blood culture is a test that searches for microorganisms in the blood, such as bacteria or fungi.
As the nurse gets the youngster ready for the diagnostic procedure that will confirm the diagnosis, there is no contact between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
When bacteria or other pathogens get into circulation and go to the heart, endocarditis occurs. The bacteria then adhere to cardiac tissue or damaged heart valves. A potentially fatal inflammation of the inner layer of the heart's chambers & valves is known as endocarditis.
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In LASIK surgery, a laser is used to reshape the cornea of the eye to improve vision. The laser produces extremely short pulses of light, each containing of energy. a. In each pulse there are photons. What is the wavelength of the laser? b. Each pulse lasts only 20 ns. What is the average power delivered to the eye during a pulse?
LASIK or Lasik, commonly referred to as laser eye surgery or laser vision correction,.
What is Lasik surgery?
Lasik (Laser-Assisted in Situ Keratomileusis) surgery is a type of laser eye surgery that is used to correct vision problems such as near-sightedness (myopia), far-sightedness (hyperopia), and astigmatism. During the procedure, a thin flap is cut in the cornea and the eye surgeon uses a laser to reshape the cornea and improve vision. After the surgery is complete, the flap is put back in place and the eye will naturally heal. Lasik surgery is generally considered a safe and effective way to improve vision, and many people experience a dramatic improvement in vision following the procedure. The typical recovery time for Lasik surgery is a few days, and the majority of patients can return to their normal activities within a few weeks.
a. The laser's current wavelength is
We understand that,
E=nhv
E=nhc/lamda.
lamda =nhc/E
lamda=9.7*1014 *6.625*10-34*3*108/1.0*10-3
lamda =192.78*10-9m
lamda =193nm.
Only (t) = 20 ns separates each pulse.
b. In a pulse(p), the average power delivered to the eye is equal to
Pluse (p) = E/t
Pluse (p)=1.0*10-3/20*10-9
Pluse (p)=0.05*106
Pluse (p)=50kW.
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what is the difference between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia and what are the consequences of each? g
High insulin in body is known as hyperglycemia, whereas low blood sugar is known as hypoglycemia. It's Because both can cause health problems for people with diabetes,keep blood sugar in a healthy range.
What are the effects of diabetes-related hypoglycemia and what causes it?When insulin levels are excessively high, the hormone insulin reduces blood sugar (glucose) levels. If you have type 1 or type 2 diabetes and depends upon insulin to manage your blood sugar, taking more insulin than you require may be result in hypoglycemia, which is when your blood sugar level falls dangerously low.
What side effects can hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia cause?Serious problems from diabetes can result from both low and high blood sugar levels. Hypoglycemia left untreated can result in seizures, dizziness, and even death.
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a client who has been prescribed bethanechol asks a nurse to explain how the drug works. what would be a correct response?
A correct response would be expected as a direct-acting cholinergic medication called bethanechol promotes bladder smooth muscle contraction and urine flow.
A direct-acting cholinergic medication called bethanechol promotes the contraction of the smooth bladder muscles and urine flow. Bethanechol is neither a diuretic nor a medication with indirect cholinergic action. Since the kidneys don't create water, it has no effect on how much water is produced there. Patients should have routine drug evaluations for lower urinary tract symptoms, urine incontinence, and therapy tolerance. Bethanechol side effects include hypotension, increased sweating, and salivation, headache, cramps, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, as well as an escalation of asthma.
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which prescribe medication should the nurse give first to a patient who has just been admitted to a hospital with an acute angle closure
Acute angle-closure glaucoma manifests as a sudden, intense headache or pain in one eye, along with nausea, vomiting, rainbow-colored halos surrounding bright lights, and blurred vision. A fixed midway pupil and a foggy or hazy cornea with obvious conjunctival injection are visible on physical examination.
Which patient situation would the nurse refuse to administer the timolol as directed?
Patients with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), bronchial asthma, or other lung conditions that place them at risk for acute bronchospasm should not use timolol.
What should be evaluated before administering timolol?
Regularly check for dyspnea, rales or crackles, weight increase, peripheral edema, and jugular venous distention—signs of CHF and pulmonary edema.
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cory has a compulsion to do everything in sequence. for instance, he has to follow a seven-step procedure when he takes a shower. if he misses a step, he has to start from the beginning. this behavior affects his everyday life as he takes a long time to complete his daily routines. in this case, cory is most likely to be diagnosed with
Cory has a compulsion to do everything in sequence. Cory is most likely to be diagnosed with OCD (obsessive-compulsive disorder).
A pattern of unpleasant thoughts and worries (obsessions) that make you perform repetitive acts is what OCD is known for (compulsions). These compulsions severely disturb sufferers and obstruct normal life.
Experts are uncertain of OCD's precise cause. Environmental influences, genetics, and brain anomalies are thought to be important causes. In early adulthood or youth, it frequently starts. It might also start throughout infancy.
The four main ways that OCD can manifest are through contamination/washing, doubt/checking, ordering/arranging, and unacceptable/taboo thoughts.The most prevalent kind of OCD involves obsessions and compulsions related to contamination and germs, however OCD can involve a variety of issues.
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knowing the early signs of amyloidosis could save lives. shortness of breath and foot pain are some of the common symptoms. t or f
The given statement is true ; Amyloid proteins can also accumulate in other organs such as the liver, spleen, nerves, and digestive tract. Feeling lightheaded or fainting, especially after standing or sitting up, might be symptoms. tingling or numbness in the hands and feet (peripheral neuropathy)
If amyloid proteins build up in the nerves leading to your feet, you may have numbness, loss of feeling, or a burning sensation in your toes and soles. Constipation or diarrhea.
You may get diarrhea or constipation if amyloidosis affects the nerves that regulate your intestines.
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a patient is diagnosed with tinea pedis. a microscopic examination of the sample taken from the infected area would likely demonstrate:
A microscopic examination of a sample taken from a patient with tinea pedis, also known as athlete's foot, would likely demonstrate the presence of fungal hyphae and spores. Tinea pedis is a fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet, typically between the toes. It is caused by a variety of fungi, including dermatophytes, yeasts, and molds.
The appearance of the fungi under the microscope may vary depending on the specific type of fungus causing the infection. Dermatophytes, which are a common cause of tinea pedis, have long, branching hyphae that are visible under the microscope. The hyphae can be septate (divided into compartments by cross-walls) or aseptate (lacking cross-walls). Dermatophyte spores may also be present in the sample.
Other fungi that can cause tinea pedis, such as yeasts and molds, may also be visible under the microscope. Yeasts are single-celled fungi that may appear as oval or round cells with a single nucleus. Molds are multicellular fungi that may appear as branching hyphae with spores scattered throughout.
It is important to accurately identify the type of fungus causing the infection in order to choose the most appropriate treatment. A microscopic examination of a sample taken from the infected area is an important step in diagnosing and managing tinea pedis.
the decision is made to involuntarily admit a client to a psychiatric hospital on an emergency detention. the nurse explains the involuntary hospitalization process to the client. which of the following statements made by the nurse would not be accurate about the involuntary admission process?
While you are uninvited here, you are made by the nurse would not be accurate about the involuntary admission process not permitted to have any guests.
Customers have a right to view guests, regardless of their level of admittance. An emergency psychiatrist is required for involuntary hospitalization. Any involuntarily admitted client has the right to legal representation. Medical clearance is required for the client's discharge.
The involuntary admittance threshold for dangerousness to self is met by a person with a mental disorder who exhibits an inability to satisfy fundamental requirements. The person is doing in a way that makes it probable that they or others may suffer substantial damage as a result of what they are doing.
A person who requires hospitalization must be considered for involuntary admission if they refuse voluntary admission. A patient's admission to a hospital or psychiatric unit by a guardian or health care proxy shall be taken into consideration when the patient is incompetent or incapable and relevant legislation authorizes it.
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a 13-month-old child is undergoing lumbar puncture for confirmation of a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. during the procedure the nurse notes that the spinal fluid is cloudy. which would this finding indicate?
Asking the parents what they were told about the test and Giving small amounts of clear spinal fluid frequently to prevent bacterial meningitis for a 13-month-old child is undergoing lumbar puncture for confirmation of a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
The meninges, which cover and protect the brain and spinal cord, get infected and become meningitis. When the membranes get infected, they enlarge and press against the spinal cord or brain. There could be fatal problems. Meningitis symptoms occur suddenly and worsen quickly. Germs that get into the bloodstream and travel to the brain and spinal cord cause bacterial meningitis. But when bacteria get into the meninges directly, bacterial meningitis can also happen.
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a team of doctors is trying to determine if acupuncture is a viable treatment option. two groups of patients are blindfolded. one group is administered acupuncture by the doctors; the other group is simply poked with toothpicks to simulate acupuncture. what is the control group in this experiment?
Answer:
The patients receiving the toothpick treatment.
a client is applying to nursing school and has come to the clinic with a request to be tested for immunity to hepatitis b. which type of testing would be best to determine immunity?
The most effective method of testing to ascertain immunity is antibody titer . A blood test known as an antibody to hepatitis b. titer measures the quantity and concentration (titer) of antibodies in the body.
Immunity levels can be assessed by the measurement of antibody titers. During various stages of an infectious process, the host produces certain antibody types, such as IgM and IgG. While the synthesis of the IgG class of antibodies increases during the acute phase of the disease and stays elevated until or beyond resolution, IgM-specific antibodies often rise and decline throughout the acute phase of the disease.
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the so called baby aspirin an 80 mg dose is usually prescribed for people at risk of suffering a heart attack or stroke what is the physiological basis for this prescription
The physiological basis of this prescription is that aspirin helps in the dilution of blood. Once diluted flow of blood increases and provides relief to the person suffering from a heart attack.
Along with reducing body temperature, aspirin is used to relieve mild to moderate discomfort brought on by conditions like headaches, the common cold, and toothaches. By reducing pain and swelling, it can also be applied to the treatment of conditions like arthritis. Aspirin with a salicylate basis is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Preventing a specific bodily chemical from functioning naturally, lessens pain and swelling. Consult your doctor before giving this drug to a child under the age of 12. Never administer any medication, not even this one, to a child. Aspirin poisoning usually causes illness in children.
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the first phase of adolescent physical growth is: a. weight and length grow proportionally and in the same phases b. getting taller c. weight gain d. all adolescents experience physical growth differently and therefore it is difficult to determine which phase is first
Growing taller is the first stage of teenage physical development. It is a period of quick physical growth and significant emotional upheavals.
Teenagers range in age:
Between the ages of 10 and 19, adolescence is the period of life between childhood and adulthood. This crucial period of human development builds the groundwork for long-term health. Teenagers go through a period of fast physiological, mental, and emotional growth.
Why is adolescence such a challenging time?
It's difficult for many of us since we're going through a period of rapid physical development and significant emotional transformation. While thrilling, these can often be perplexing and uncomfortable for both children and parents.
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after an airplane flight, a 60-year old woman, with a history of chronic anxiety, developed deep vein thrombophlebitis (blood clots ) and a subsequent pulmonary embolism (blockage in the lung). over the next year, she focuses relentlessly on every sensation and pain she experiences and repeatedly seeks medical attention for these symptoms, which she worries is due to recurrent blood clots, despite all negative test results. review of symptoms reveals that she also has chronic back pain and that she has consulted many physicians for multiple symptoms, for which all test results have come back negative. what diagnosis best fits this picture?
Based on the information provided, it is possible that the 60-year old woman may be suffering from somatic symptom disorder (previously known as somatoform disorder or somatization disorder).
Somatic symptom disorder is a mental health disorder characterized by physical symptoms that are not fully explained by a medical condition or by the effects of a medication. People with somatic symptom disorder often experience a high level of anxiety or distress related to their physical symptoms, and may be preoccupied with the belief that they have a serious medical condition. They may seek repeated medical attention and undergo numerous tests and procedures, despite negative test results.
It is important to note that somatic symptom disorder is not a diagnosis of exclusion, meaning that it should not be considered only after all other potential medical explanations have been ruled out. Instead, somatic symptom disorder should be considered as a potential diagnosis if the person's physical symptoms are severe, persistent, and cause significant distress or impairment in their daily life.
It is also possible that the woman may have other diagnoses in addition to somatic symptom disorder, such as chronic back pain or chronic anxiety. It would be important for her to receive a thorough evaluation from a mental health professional and possibly a medical specialist in order to determine the most appropriate treatment plan.
29-year-old g2 p1001 in her third trimester presents to the clinic for a routine check up. you take her vitals and note that her blood pressure is elevated to 150/95. on interview, she complains about some mild ruq pain that she has had for the last few days. you confirm this on physical exam and also take note of facial puffiness. a urine dipstick in the office shows 3 proteinuria. what are the laboratory features of the particular syndrome this patient has likely developed?
It sounds like the patient may have developed gestational hypertension, also known as pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). This is a condition in which a woman develops high blood pressure during pregnancy. It is often accompanied by proteinuria, or the presence of protein in the urine, and edema, or swelling, which can cause facial puffiness. Other laboratory features that may be present in a patient with gestational hypertension include an elevated white blood cell count, which can indicate inflammation or infection, and an elevated creatinine level, which can indicate kidney dysfunction. It is important for the healthcare provider to closely monitor the patient's blood pressure and other laboratory values to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby.
dr. gaviria chooses to have someone enter findings and results into the ehr as she is examining the patient. are assistants who may enter the information.
Dr. Gaviria chooses to have someone enter findings and results into the EHR as she is examining the patient scribes are assistants who may enter the information.
This information includes patient demographics historical notes problems medications vital signs medical history immunizations laboratory data, and radiology reports. EHRs automate and streamline physician workflows.
Orders are recorded by last name first name and first middle letter. Only licensed medical assistants may enter medication radiology and lab orders into their EHR to count toward meeting meaningful use criteria under her EHR incentive programs for Medicare and Medicaid. EHRs automate and streamline physician workflows.
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a) Discuss the form of viral hepatitis the man is most likely to have, and state why. You should demonstrate your knowledge of hepatitis by giving reasons why other viral forms could be discounted
Viral hepatitis C is the man is most likely to have.
What are the symptoms of viral hepatitis C infection?Hepatitis C is an inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis C virus.
The virus can cause both acute and chronic hepatitis, ranging in severity from a mild illness to a serious, lifelong illness including liver cirrhosis and cancer.
The hepatitis C virus is a bloodborne virus and most infection occur through exposure to blood from unsafe injection practices, unsafe health care, unscreened blood transfusions.
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a vitamin d deficiency in childhood may result in which disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of the skeleton? a. rickets b. osteomalacia c. osteoporosis d. kyphosis
a vitamin d deficiency in childhood may result in a. rickets disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of the skeleton
Children who with rickets experience delayed bone growth. It results in painful bones, poor bone development, and soft, frail bones that can distort the bones. The disorder known as osteomalacia, or soft bones, may also affect adults. Learn more about rickets and osteomalacia symptoms and indicators. skeletal malformations, such as thickened ankles, wrists, and knees, bent legs, soft skull bones, and, in rare cases, bending of the spine. dental issues, such as poor tooth enamel, a delayed eruption of the teeth, and a greater risk of cavities
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