Practice 1: Asexual Reproduction
Which of the following describes asexual reproduction?
Passing an identical set of genes to the offspring
Sorting only the best genes to pass on to the offspring
Passing unique sets of genes to the offspring
Engineering new sets of genes for the offspring
SUBMIT

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Passing And Identical Set Of Genes To The Offspring

Explanation:


Related Questions

Question 20
Mosquitoes are responsible for all except
a. Q fever
b. malaria
c. encephalitis
d. Yellow fever

Answers

Mosquitoes are responsible for all except Q fever, the correct option is (a).

Q fever is caused by the bacterium Coxiella burnetii, which is primarily transmitted to humans from infected animals, such as cattle, sheep, and goats. Mosquitoes do not play a role in the transmission of Q fever. On the other hand, mosquitoes are well-known vectors of many diseases, including malaria, encephalitis, and yellow fever.

Malaria, a life-threatening disease caused by Plasmodium parasites, is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected Anopheles mosquitoes. Encephalitis, an inflammation of the brain, can be caused by several different viruses that are spread by mosquitoes, including West Nile virus, St. Louis encephalitis virus, and Japanese encephalitis virus, the correct option is (a).

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Restriction fragments of DNA ware typically separated from one another by which process?

Answers

Gel electrophoresis is a powerful tool for separating and analyzing DNA fragments, and it has numerous applications in fields such as genetics, forensics, and biotechnology.

Restriction fragments of DNA can be separated from one another through a process called gel electrophoresis. This technique is commonly used in molecular biology to separate and visualize DNA fragments of different sizes.

Gel electrophoresis involves placing the DNA fragments into a gel matrix, which is then subjected to an electric field. The gel acts as a sieve, allowing smaller fragments to migrate faster through the matrix than larger fragments. The DNA fragments are negatively charged due to the phosphate groups in their backbone, and therefore they are attracted toward the positively charged electrode at the opposite end of the gel.

As the DNA fragments migrate through the gel, they form distinct bands based on their size, which can be visualized by staining the gel with a dye such as ethidium bromide. These bands can then be compared to a DNA ladder or size marker, which consists of fragments of known sizes, in order to determine the size of the unknown DNA fragments.

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 "Curfews for Children" discusses opinions and reasons both for and against curfews. "Children
Don't Need Curfews" argues against curfews. Think about the claims, reasons, facts, and details
presented in both passages. Why might a child be in favor of curfews? Write an argument from
the perspective of a child who supports a curfew. Include evidence from both passages to support
your claim.

This is for the other one

Answers

A child who supports curfew argues that it is important for their safety and well-being, as parents are responsible for protecting them from nighttime dangers and ensuring they get enough sleep. They believe a compromise between parents and children is the best solution to the curfew problem, as it can lead to less conflict and more acceptance of the curfew.

As a child, I believe that having a curfew is important for my safety and well-being. Parents are responsible for ensuring that their children are protected from night time dangers, such as car accidents and careless drivers.

According to the National Sleep Foundation, children my age need ten to eleven hours of sleep each night to stay alert during school and other activities. By having a curfew, my parents can help me get enough sleep and stay safe at the same time.

While some children may argue that their parents are not respecting their ability to make good decisions, I think that having a curfew is a way for parents to show they care about their children's safety and well-being. It's important for parents to listen to their children's opinions and involve them in making decisions about curfews.

Ultimately, I believe that a compromise between parents and children is the best solution to the curfew problem. If parents insist on a curfew, then involving their children in the decision-making process can lead to less conflict and more acceptance of the curfew.

By working together, parents and children can find a curfew that works for everyone.

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Question 20 Marks: 1 The peak seasons for rats to breed in temperate zones areChoose one answer. a. spring and fall b. summer and winter c. winter and spring d. fall and summer

Answers

The peak seasons for rats to breed in temperate zones are spring and fall. Therefore the correct option is option A.

Rats are known for their ability to reproduce rapidly and adapt to changing environmental conditions. Rat breeding seasons in temperate zones are spring and autumn.

In temperate zones, where the climate is characterized by distinct seasons, rats tend to breed most frequently in the spring and fall, when food and shelter are plentiful and temperatures are moderate.

During these seasons, rats can produce multiple litters of offspring, which can quickly lead to population explosions if left unchecked.  Therefore the correct option is option A.

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Which isolation technique is most effective for the majority of applications and is most commonly used for colony isolation in the laboratory

Answers

The most effective and commonly used isolation technique for the majority of applications and colony isolation in the laboratory is the "streak plate method."

The streak plate method involves spreading a bacterial sample across the surface of a solid agar medium using an inoculating loop.

This technique allows for the separation of individual bacterial cells, enabling them to grow into distinct colonies.

The process typically involves streaking the loop through the sample, then spreading it over a section of the agar plate in a pattern.

The loop is sterilized and then streaked through the initial section, dragging bacteria into a second section of the plate. This process is repeated a few times, ultimately diluting the bacterial concentration and promoting the formation of isolated colonies.

For most laboratory applications, the streak plate method is the preferred isolation technique due to its simplicity, effectiveness, and ability to produce isolated colonies from a mixed bacterial population.

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If the genes for earlobe shape and dimples were located close to one another on the same chromosome, how would their location influence how these two genes are passed to the next generation?

Answers

If the genes for earlobe shape and dimples are located close to one another on the same chromosome, they are more likely to be inherited together as a unit, a phenomenon known as linkage.

This is because during meiosis, the process by which sex cells are formed, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material through a process called crossing over. However, if two genes are located close together on a chromosome, they are less likely to undergo crossing over events, which would separate them onto different chromosomes. This means that the alleles for earlobe shape and dimples would tend to be inherited together more frequently than if they were located on different chromosomes.

However, the degree of linkage depends on the distance between the two genes on the chromosome. If the genes are very close together, they will be inherited together more often, while if they are far apart, they may behave more like unlinked genes and be inherited independently.

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If a 75 base-pair fragment of DNA has 25 cytosines in it, how many adenines would you expect it to have?

Answers

The number of adenines are 25 in a 75 base-pair fragment of DNA can be calculated using Chargaff's rule.

Because the  scrap includes 25 cytosines, we know it also has 25 guanines( because DNA has a 11 cytosine to guanine  rate). As a result, the total  quantum of cytosine and guanine bases in the  scrap is as follows   50 =  25 cytosines 25 guanines  

The  volume of adenine in the  scrap is equal to the  quantum of thymine, according to Chargaff's rule. As a result, the  scrap has 50 adenine and thymine bases in aggregate.   We can  cipher the  quantum of adenine bases by abating the entire number of cytosine and guanine bases from the whole length of the  scrap, which is 75 base  dyads long  

75- 50 =  25

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Blood returns from the lungs to the heart through ____________, and it returns to the heart from the rest of the body through the ______________.A) venae cavae; aortaB) venae cavae; pulmonary arteryC) paracardial artery; aortaD) pulmonary veins; aortaE) pulmonary veins; venae cavae

Answers

Blood returns from the lungs to the heart through pulmonary veins and it returns to the heart from the rest of the body through the aorta. The correct answer is D) pulmonary veins; aorta.

These veins are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. Once the blood has been oxygenated in the lungs, it is returned to the left atrium of the heart through the pulmonary veins. From there, it flows into the left ventricle and is then pumped out of the heart through the aorta.

On the other hand, blood returns to the heart from the rest of the body through the venae cavae. These veins are responsible for carrying deoxygenated blood from the body back to the heart. The superior vena cava brings blood from the upper half of the body, while the inferior vena cava brings blood from the lower half of the body.

Once the deoxygenated blood is in the right atrium, it flows into the right ventricle and is then pumped out of the heart through the pulmonary artery to be oxygenated in the lungs.

It is important to understand the pathways of blood flow in the body as they play a crucial role in maintaining proper circulation and oxygenation of the tissues. Any disruptions in this flow can lead to serious health problems such as heart disease, stroke, and pulmonary embolism.

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A cell that has neither a net gain of water nor net loss of water when it is immersed in a solution must be
A. metabolically inactive.
B. isotonic to its environment.
C. hypotonic to its environment.
D. hypertonic to its environment.

Answers

B. isotonic to its environment.

When a cell is in an isotonic solution, it has an equal concentration of solutes inside and outside of the cell, which means there is no net movement of water. This is the ideal state for a cell, as it maintains its shape and function without gaining or losing too much water. A cell that is metabolically inactive would not be able to maintain this state, and cells that are hypotonic or hypertonic to their environment will experience a net gain or loss of water, respectively.

An isotonic solution refers to a type of solution that has the same concentration of dissolved solutes (e.g., salt, sugar, ions) as the fluid inside cells or blood plasma. In an isotonic solution, there is no net movement of water into or out of the cells, as the concentration of solutes inside and outside the cells is the same, creating a balance. This makes isotonic solutions particularly useful in medical settings, such as for intravenous fluids or eye drops, as they are less likely to cause damage to cells than solutions that are hypotonic (lower concentration of solutes) or hypertonic (higher concentration of solutes). Examples of isotonic solutions include normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) and lactated Ringer's solution.

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Xavier observes a group of similar cells that
are working together to produce a substance.
What kind of structure is he observing?
(A) molecule
(B) organ
(C) organ system
(D) tissue

Answers

Answer:

it is tissue

Explanation:

the level of organization is

organel, cell, tissue, organ, organ system and organism so the collection of simillar cell is tissue

A group of similar cells that function together are known as tissues so Xavier is observing the structure of a tissue. Option D is correct.

How would you define a tissue?

A group of cells that perform similar functions are referred to as the tissues. All tissues are formed from a group of similar cells. The tissues are classified into four major categories. These categories are- epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissues.

The tissues that are present on the external body surfaces are known as epithelial tissues. The tissues that connect the different cells and organs of the body are known as the connective tissues. The tissues that help in the movement are muscle tissues. The nerve tissues help in the generation of electrical signals and their propagation in the form of nerve impulses.

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Question 79
If a septic tank is pumped in a wet period
a. the tank may be crushed by the wet earth
b. the water will flow into the tank
c. the tank may float out of the ground
d. in field may flood the tank

Answers

If a septic tank is pumped in a wet period the tank may float out of the ground, option C.

A drainfield (also known as a soil absorption field) plus a septic tank make up a conventional septic system.

In the septic tank, sediments and floatable debris (such oils and grease) are separated from the wastewater while organic matter is broken down. In traditional or soil-based systems, the fluid, sometimes referred to as effluent, is released from the septic tank into a network of perforated pipes buried in a leach field, chambers or other specialised units intended to gradually release the effluent into the soil. The drainfield is the name of this region.

Alternative methods remove or neutralise pollutants including microorganisms that cause illness, nitrogen, phosphorus, and other contaminants by allowing septic tank effluent to flow through sand, organic matter (like peat and sawdust), created wetlands, or other media with the use of pumps or gravity.

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what might be a more reliable
way to classify organisms.

Answers

Answer: Taxonomical classification

Explanation: This is the most reliable because, all living organisms needed to be classified in groups to find out their similarities and  differences.

The work of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all contributed to controlling infectious disease by:
determining the taxonomic relationships among microbes
developing techniques for isolating pathogens
identifying the sources of infectious agents
developing vaccines
developing methods for reducing nosocomial infections

Answers

The research of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all helped to reduce nosocomial infections, which helped to control infectious disease.

Which are the top 5 nosocomial infections?Nosocomial infections, also known as healthcare-associated infections (HAI), are an infection or illnesses that are acquired during the course of receiving medical care but were not present at the time of admission. Some of the most typical nosocomial infections include urinary tract infections, lung pneumonia, surgical site infections, bacteremia, gastrointestinal, and skin infections. Nosocomial infections are most frequently caused by bacteria. E. coli and staph are frequent microorganisms. Nosocomial infections, which arise as a result of a hospital stay or are caused by microbes and viruses acquired during hospitalization, can spread through a number of different channels, including contact, droplet, air, water, food, or disease vectors that carry and transmit infectious pathogens, such as blood.

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The work of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all contributed to controlling infectious diseases by developing methods for reducing nosocomial infections.

Controlling infectious diseases:

The work of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all contributed to controlling infectious diseases by developing techniques for isolating pathogens, identifying the sources of infectious agents, and developing methods for reducing nosocomial infections. They recognized that infectious diseases were caused by pathogens and that proper sanitation and hygiene were crucial in preventing the spread of these diseases.

Lister introduced antiseptic techniques to prevent infections during surgery, Nightingale emphasized the importance of cleanliness in hospitals, and Semmelweis demonstrated the significance of handwashing in preventing the transmission of infectious agents.

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DNA repair:can involve excision of bases flanking a distortion in the helix.always prevents errors.can fix chromosomal inversions and translocations.involves a set of proteins that are always active.is only active during DNA replication.

Answers

DNA repair is a complex process that involves a set of proteins that are always active and can involve the excision of bases flanking a distortion in the helix.

This process can prevent errors in DNA replication and fix chromosomal inversions and translocations. However, it is important to note that DNA repair is not always active during DNA replication, and there are times when the DNA may be more susceptible to damage. During the process of DNA repair, the damaged DNA is recognized by proteins that can then recruit other proteins to the site of the damage. These proteins then work together to excise the damaged portion of the DNA and replace it with a new, undamaged segment. This process is essential for maintaining the integrity of the genome and preventing mutations that can lead to diseases like cancer.

In conclusion, DNA repair is a crucial process that is always active and can involve the excision of bases flanking a distortion in the helix. It can prevent errors, fix chromosomal inversions and translocations, and involves a set of proteins that work together to maintain the integrity of the genome. While it may not always be active during DNA replication, it is essential for preventing mutations and ensuring the proper functioning of cells.

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In order to have complete proteins from plants we need to eat complementary proteins (two plant sources eaten together) at the same time. List two (w) examples of complete proteins from complementary proteins combinations.

Answers

In order to have a complete protein from plants, it is recommended to consume complementary proteins at the same time. This means pairing two plant sources together that provide all essential amino acids, which are the building blocks of protein.

One example of complementary proteins that provide a complete protein is rice and beans. Rice is low in the amino acid lysine but high in methionine, while beans are low in methionine but high in lysine. By consuming rice and beans together, we get a complete protein that provides all essential amino acids.

Another example of complementary proteins is hummus and whole wheat pita. Hummus is made from chickpeas, which are high in lysine but low in methionine, while whole wheat pita is low in lysine but high in methionine. By consuming hummus and whole wheat pita together, we get a complete protein that provides all essential amino acids.

It is important to note that while complementary proteins can provide a complete protein, it is not always necessary to consume them at the same time. As long as we consume a variety of plant-based protein sources throughout the day, we can still get all the essential amino acids our body needs.

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The main component of the cytosol is: sugars. water. the nucleus. organelles.

Answers

The main component of the cytosol is water.

It makes up about 70% of the cytosol, which is the fluid-like substance that fills the cell and surrounds the organelles.

Water is essential for many cellular processes, such as the transport of molecules and the maintenance of the cell's shape.

Other important components of the cytosol include ions, small molecules like sugars and amino acids, and proteins.

While the nucleus is a vital organelle that contains the cell's genetic material, it is not a component of the cytosol.

The organelles, such as mitochondria and ribosomes, are suspended in the cytosol and perform specific functions within the cell.

Overall, the cytosol is a dynamic and complex environment that is critical for the proper functioning of cells.

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Some students measured the pH of water containing elodea, a common water plant. The
students wanted to learn how much carbon dioxide elodea removes from the water. The
students knew that decreasing levels of carbon dioxide correspond to increasing pH. Which
cellular structure in elodea carries out the process that is most likely to result in
increasing pH?
Group of answer choices

A. cytoplasm

B. chloroplast

C. mitochondrion

D. nucleus

Answers

The chloroplast is the cellular component of elodea that executes the procedure most likely to lead to an increase in pH.

The organelles in plant cells called chloroplasts are where photosynthesis takes place. Plants produce sugars during photosynthesis by using carbon dioxide from the surrounding water or air and releasing oxygen as a byproduct.

The water's pH would rise as a result of this process of removal of carbon dioxide. This means that if the students noticed a rise in pH in the elodea-containing water, it was probably the result of photosynthesis taking place in the plant's chloroplasts.

The result indicates that the pH increase in the water containing the plant is most likely caused by the photosynthesis process taking place in the chloroplasts of elodea.

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the thirteen vitamins essential to humans fall into two groups based on: group of answer choices whether they are anabolic or catabolic. whether they are organic or inorganic molecules. whether they are carbohydrates or lipids. whether they can be synthesized from other dietary components or must be consumed directly. whether they are soluble in fat or water.

Answers

The thirteen vitamins essential to humans fall into two groups based on whether they are soluble in fat or water.

What are the vitamins?

Vitamins are organic compounds that are essential for normal growth and functioning of the body. There are 13 vitamins that are considered essential for humans, which are:

Vitamin A (retinol)

Vitamin B1 (thiamine)

Vitamin B2 (riboflavin)

Vitamin B3 (niacin)

Vitamin B5 (pantothenic acid)

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

Vitamin B7 (biotin)

Vitamin B9 (folic acid)

Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

Vitamin D (calciferol)

Vitamin E (tocopherol)

Vitamin K (phylloquinone)

The four fat-soluble vitamins are vitamins A, D, E, and K, while the nine water-soluble vitamins are the eight B vitamins (B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9, B12) and vitamin C.

What is folic acid?

Folic acid is a synthetic form of folate, which is a B vitamin. It plays an important role in DNA synthesis and repair, cell division, and the production of red blood cells. Folic acid is commonly found in fortified foods such as cereals, bread, and pasta, as well as in dietary supplements. It is especially important for pregnant women to get enough folic acid to prevent birth defects in the baby's brain and spine.

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Complete question is: The thirteen vitamins essential to humans fall into two groups based on whether they are soluble in fat or water.

Natural selection is a process in which individuals that have certain heritable characteristics survive and reproduce at a higher rate than other individuals. true or false

Answers

It is true that Natural selection is a process in which individuals that have certain heritable characteristics survive and reproduce at a higher rate than other individuals.

Natural selection is a fundamental mechanism of evolution that occurs when individuals with certain advantageous traits are better able to survive and reproduce in their environment than those without those traits. Over time, this results in the accumulation of beneficial traits within a population and the removal of disadvantageous traits.

The key factors involved in natural selection are variation, heritability, differential survival, and differential reproduction. First, there must be genetic variation within a population, meaning that individuals must differ in their traits. Second, those traits must be heritable, meaning that they can be passed down from one generation to the next. Third, some individuals must be better adapted to their environment and have a higher chance of survival than others. Finally, those individuals with advantageous traits must also have a higher chance of reproducing and passing on those traits to their offspring.

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A student wishes to clone a sequence of DNA of ~200 kb. Which vector would be appropriate?

Answers

For a sequence of DNA of ~200 kb, a BAC vector would be appropriate, as it can accommodate such a size and is easier to manipulate than YACs. However, the choice of vector ultimately depends on the specific needs of the project.

Cloning large sequences of DNA can be challenging, but there are a few vectors that can be used for this purpose. One option is bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs), which are large plasmids that can accommodate inserts up to 300 kb in size. BACs are particularly useful for cloning large genomic regions, as they can be propagated in bacteria and can also be used for functional studies in transgenic animals.

Another option is yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs), which are larger than BACs and can accommodate inserts up to 2 Mb in size. YACs are particularly useful for studying large chromosomal regions and can also be used for gene therapy and other applications.

Both BACs and YACs require specialized techniques and protocols for their preparation and manipulation, as well as for the screening and analysis of their clones. Therefore, the choice of vector will depend on the specific requirements of the project, including the size and complexity of the DNA sequence to be cloned, the downstream applications of the clones, and the resources available for their preparation and analysis.

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MBCD is composed of which type of molecule?
A.Amino acids
B.Fatty acids
C.Nucleotides
D.Carbohydrates
Passage: Methyl-β-cyclodextrin (MBCD) is a cyclic oligosaccharide

Answers

MBCD is made up of molecules of the kind of carbohydrates. A cyclic oligosaccharide, methyl-cyclodextrin (MBCD), is one of them. Option D is Correct.

MBCD, or methyl-cyclodextrin, is made up of carbohydrates. Given that it is a cyclic oligosaccharide, the glucose molecules that make up the compound are arranged in a ring configuration. The word "cyclodextrin" in the name alludes to the ring structure, while the word "oligosaccharide" indicates that it is composed of a few sugar molecules.

Fatty acids and carbohydrates don't contain nitrogen; amino acids do. Proteins are made up of amino acids, which provide the body energy; fatty acids and carbohydrates do not. A glycerol molecule is joined to three fatty acids in a dehydration synthesis step to form triglycerides. Option D is Correct.

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Factors Affecting Death Rate (cont'd)
•The_____ of microbes
-Higher load of contaminants takes longer to destroy
•The_____ of the microorganisms in the population
-Target population is usually a mixture of bacteria, fungi, spores, and viruses
•_____ and____ of the environment

Answers

The temperature and humidity of the environment can also affect the death rate of microbes. Higher temperatures and lower humidity can lead to quicker destruction of microorganisms, while lower temperatures and higher humidity can slow down the process.

Additionally, the presence of organic matter or other substances in the environment can also impact the effectiveness of disinfection or sterilization methods.

1. The concentration of microbes
- A higher concentration of contaminants takes longer to destroy, as it requires more time and effort to reduce the population to a safe level.

2. The diversity of the microorganisms in the population
- The target population is usually a mixture of bacteria, fungi, spores, and viruses. The more diverse the population, the more complex it becomes to eliminate or control all the different types of microorganisms.

3. The temperature and humidity of the environment
- These factors can affect the death rate of microorganisms, as some may thrive in specific conditions while others may struggle to survive. Adjusting temperature and humidity can be used to control the growth and survival of certain microorganisms.

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What are solutions to reduce the amount of toxic chemical entering water systems?

Answers

The chemicals that are used to reduce the amount of toxic chemical entering water systems are called coagulators. The chemical coagulators bind with the toxic matter and remove them from water.

The chemical coagulators preferably used for water treatment are of two types. They are chelating salts, and organic polymer coagulants. The chelating salts usually has an iron, or aluminum group to it, whereas the organic polymers can be polyamines, melamine formaldehydes, and ash based organic compounds.

Hence, based on the above-mentioned statement, it can be concluded that coagulators are the chemical solutions that help to reduce toxic matter from entering the water systems.

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which of the following would be considered a source of single-celled protein?choose one or more:a.button mushrooms (agaricus bisporus)b.kelp (macrocystis pyrifera)c.baker's yeast (saccharomyces cerevisiae)d.cricketse.cyanobacteria (spirulina)

Answers

The sources of single-celled protein among the given options are baker's yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) and cyanobacteria (Spirulina).

A source of single-celled protein refers to a single-celled organism that can be used as a source of protein for human consumption or other purposes. Based on the given options
a. Button mushrooms (Agaricus bisporus) - Not a source, as mushrooms are multicellular fungi.
b. Kelp (Macrocystis pyrifera) - Not a source, as kelp is a multicellular alga.
c. Baker's yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) - A source of single-celled protein, as yeast is a single-celled fungi.
d. Crickets - Not a source, as crickets are multicellular animals.
e. Cyanobacteria (Spirulina) - A source of single-celled protein, as cyanobacteria like Spirulina are single-celled organisms.

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what do we call an individual that inherits 2 diffrent allens for the same trait
a homozygous
b heterozygous
c bizygous

Answers

An individual that inherits two different alleles for the same trait is said to be heterozygous for that trait. The correct answer is option b.

A trait has two alleles, one is the dominant allele (denoted by capital letter) and the other is recessive allele (denoted by small letter).

When an individual inherits two same copies of the allele, whether both dominant or both recessive, such an individual is referred to as homozygous dominant or homozygous recessive for that trait.

An individual who is heterozygous for that trait has one dominant allele and the other recessive allele. In such a case, the dominant allele masks the phenotypic expression of the recessive allele.

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An infant weighing 2300g would be considered a ___-birthweight infant.

Answers

An infant weighing 2300g would be considered a low-birthweight infant.

The Low birthweight (LBW) is defined as a birthweight of less than 2500 grams (5 pounds, 8 ounces). LBW infants are at increased risk for a number of health problems, including the respiratory distress syndrome, infections, and the developmental delays.

The causes of LBW can include premature birth or intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), which is when a fetus does not grow at a normal rate during pregnancy. In this case, an infant weighing 2300g would fall below the LBW threshold and would be considered a low-birthweight infant.

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The total air pressure at the peak of Mount Everest is about one-third of that at sea-level. What is the partial pressure of oxygen at the peak of Mount Everest?A) 0.21 atmB) 21 atmC) 0.07 atmD) 3 atmE) 0.7 atm

Answers

The partial pressure of oxygen at the peak of Mount Everest can be calculated using the fact that the concentration of oxygen in the air remains constant, but the total air pressure decreases with altitude. The partial pressure of oxygen at the peak of Mount Everest will be option C, 0.07 atm.

Since the total air pressure at the peak of Mount Everest is about one-third of that at sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen can be calculated as follows:

The partial pressure of oxygen = Concentration of oxygen x Total air pressure

The concentration of oxygen in the air is 0.21, which means that it makes up 21% of the total air volume. Therefore, the partial pressure of oxygen at the peak of Mount Everest can be calculated as:

Partial pressure of oxygen = 0.21 x (1/3 atm) = 0.07 atm

Therefore, the correct answer is option C) 0.07 atm. This low partial pressure of oxygen at high altitudes can cause altitude sickness and make it difficult for humans to breathe without supplemental oxygen.

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8a. what type of tissue is this? (include subtype) 8b. what type of cell secretes the matrix for this tissue?

Answers

I can give you a general explanation of the terms you've mentioned. A "tissue" is a group of similar cells that work together to perform a specific function in the body.

There are four main types of tissues: epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous. Each type has various subtypes based on their unique functions and locations.

A "cell" is the smallest structural and functional unit of an organism, and it is the building block of tissues. Different types of cells have different functions, and their specific roles determine the type of tissue they form.


A "subtype" refers to a more specific classification within a general category, such as a specific kind of tissue within one of the main tissue types.

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Describe two ways (immediate and long term) in which burning a forest leads to an increase in atmospheric greenhouse gases.

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In order to heat the Earth's surface and atmosphere and contribute to long-term climate change, greenhouse gases are described as gases that absorb and then release radiant energy.

In the Earth's atmosphere, water vapour, methane, ozone, carbon dioxide, and nitrous oxide are the most common greenhouse gases.

When deforestation is done, it causes green house gases to increase

The primary component of greenhouse gases is CO2.

1. Animals on earth use oxygen and release CO2, and plant life takes CO2 as a substate for photosynthesis, reducing, CO2 levels.

2. Green house gas increases and tree carbon converts to CO2 when tree are burnt.

The main harmful effects of increasing green house gases are climate change.

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What is the result when a diploid cell undergoes meiosis? ( Concept 10.3)two diploid cellstwo haploid cellsfour diploid cellsfour haploid cellstwo haploid cells and two diploid cells

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When a diploid cell undergoes meiosis, the result is four haploid cells. During meiosis, the diploid cell undergoes two rounds of cell division, resulting in four daughter cells.

Each daughter cell contains only half the number of chromosomes as the original diploid cell. The first round of meiosis separates the homologous chromosomes, and the second round separates the sister chromatids, resulting in the formation of four genetically unique haploid cells. These haploid cells can then go on to fuse with another haploid cell during fertilization, restoring the diploid number of chromosomes in the resulting zygote. Meiosis is essential for sexual reproduction and genetic diversity.

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