Oxygen can be given to COPD patients, but only in controlled amounts and only if a SaO2 (oxygen saturation) of 88-92% is aimed for, rather than the usual 94-98% SaO2 that is usually desired for most other acutely ill patients who do NOT have COPD.
If a SaO2 (oxygen saturation) of 88-92% is desired, as opposed to the typical 94-98% SaO2 that is typically desired for the majority of other acutely ill patients who DO NOT have COPD or who are NOT at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, oxygen can be administered to COPD patients, but only in controlled doses. When your blood has near-normal or insufficient oxygen levels and too much carbon dioxide, it can result in hypercapnia respiratory failure, which can be fatal. When too much or unregulated oxygen is supplied to persons with COPD, it frequently happens.
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according to frances, clarkin and perry, some clients have a history of treatment failure or often get worse in treatment. these kinds of clients might include which of the following?
According to Frances, Clarkin and Perry, some clients have a history of treatment failure or often get worse in treatment and these might include patients with malingering or factitious illness.
Treatment failure is outlined as persistent symptoms or signs or a sustained four-fold increase or failure to attain a four-fold decrease in those with high-titer initial results (equivalent to a two-dilution change) in nontreponemal take a look at concentration.
Factitious illness is a serious disturbance during which somebody deceives others by showing sick, by advisedly obtaining sick or by self-injury. Factitious illness can also happen once members of the family or caregivers incorrectly present others, like youngsters, as being unwell, cut or impaired.
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the nurse performs a vaginal assessment on a pregnant client in labor. on assessment, the nurse notes the presence of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. which is the initial nursing action?
The first nursing action taken by a nurse doing a vaginal evaluation on a pregnant client in labor is to place the patient in Trendelenburg's position. During the evaluation, the nurse notices the umbilical cord extending from the vagina.
To assist avoid additional cord compression, women may be positioned in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position. The majority of situations have favorable outcomes when properly managed. Umbilical cord prolapse affects roughly one in every 500 pregnancies. The infant has a 10% chance of dying.
The Trendelenburg position on the operating table is a posture for a patient that is most typically utilized for lower abdominal procedures and central venous implantation. The patient is recumbent on the table in the Trendelenburg position, with their head lowered below their feet at a 16° angle.
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a nurse is preparing to teach patients. which patient finding will cause the nurse to postpone a teaching session? (select all that apply.)
Being unable to concentrate and participate can be caused by pain, exhaustion, or anxiety. The nursing diagnostic of movement intolerance linked to pain suggests that postponing instruction is necessary.
What obstacles might prevent this quiz from effectively educating patients?
Learning preparedness is impacted by stress, fear, and rage as well as denial of sickness. Teaching and learning can be made more difficult by cultural and ethnic values. For patient education to be effective, cultural awareness is essential. lack of nurse willingness to adapt instruction and knowledge of cultural variations
Which safety measure would the nurse use to improve the efficacy of the lesson with a patient who struggles with concentration?
Which safety measure would the nurse take to improve the success of the lesson with a patient who has trouble paying attention. Give feedback enough time. minimize distractions. Use the instructional resources
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mr. reynolds, a 75-year-old man, recently suffered from a wrong-site surgery. an rca2 team is exploring what happened. they consider characteristics of the patient and staff members. according to charles vincent, what other areas should they consider?
Seven types of wrong-site surgery aspects by Charles Vincent: patient characteristics, task factors, personnel characteristics of specific staff members, team factors, workplace environment, organizational and managerial factors, and institutional context.
Few medical mistakes are as vivid and horrifying as tales involving patients who had surgery on the wrong portion of their body, underwent the erroneous operation, or had a procedure intended for another patient. These "wrong-site, wrong-procedure, wrong-patient errors" (WSPEs) are correctly described as "never events"—errors that should never happen and reveal major underlying safety issues. Wrong-site surgery can involve operating on the incorrect body site or the wrong side of the body, as in the example of a lady who had her right vulva removed when the malignant lesion was on the left.
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the nurse is caring for a community-dwelling older adult who is suffering from confusion. which are the correct nursing interventions in this situation?
The nurse is providing care for an elderly person living in the neighborhood who is confused. In addition to assisting with personal cleanliness, the nurse should encourage activities that reinforce reality.
What does it mean for dwelling people to live in communities?People 65 and older who reside outside of nursing facilities are referred to as elderly individuals who live in community settings.
What distinguishes a dwelling from a living situation?A area where you frequently inhabit is typically referred to as being "live." My home is in London. An anthropological, sociological, or literary term for residing is dweller. It would only ever be seen as a verb substitution for live in literary or lyrical contexts.
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the nurse is preparing a client for spinal anesthesia. after teaching the nurse determines the client is prepared to expect a loss of sensation in which areas of the body? select all that apply.
After the use of spinal anesthesia in the body, the client is expected to get loss of sensation in legs and lower abdomen, which means option B and D is the right answer.
Spinal anesthesia is used to provide loss of sensations in the lower parts of the body especially those below waist. It is specifically used for treating diseases which are linked with lower body parts such as pelvic region, abdomen, or perineal region. It is hence important for the nurse to inform the client receiving spinal anesthesia that they may expect a loss of feeling and movement in the lower extremities, lower abdomen, and perineum. Before application of anesthesia, it is important to maintain hygiene, check all the vital signs of the body and then use a prescribed dosage only to avoid any harm to the body.
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To refer complete question, see below:
The nurse should inform a client receiving spinal anesthesia to expect a loss of feeling and movement in which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Arms
B) Legs
C) Face
D) Lower abdomen
E) Hands
which fine motor skills would the nurse assess for in a toddler? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
As your child develops their capacity for body control and coordination, fine motor abilities automatically follow. Remember that some kids may have superior coordination and fine motor skill development than others.
What are the toddler client's fine motor abilities?The toddler-aged customer keeps improving their fine motor abilities by throwing a ball, picking up tiny things, and fitting a round object into a hole that is the right form.
Which exercises will the nurse recommend to parents to improve their children's motor skills?What exercises will the nurse advise parents of a preschooler do to improve their fine motor skills? Please check all that apply. The nurse should advise that as appropriate activities for a patient, cutting with scissors, tying shoelaces, and playing with clay.
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improved food quality has been shown to increase patient satisfaction. increased patient satisfaction often equates to:
Patient satisfaction is taken into account in the quality assessment that determines clinician pay.
One example of a value-based care compensation scheme that considers patient satisfaction is the Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS). Patient satisfaction is taken into account in the quality assessment that determines clinician pay. Healthcare providers struggle to understand patient happiness because a hospital stay rarely results in the same amount of enjoyment as a vacation or a wonderful dinner. Patient happiness is crucial, even if the medical sector aims to compensate experts for the caliber of their work rather than the quantity of services they deliver.
Patient satisfaction, according to the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, "is about whether a patient's expectations surrounding a health visit were achieved."
However, the patient experience is distinctive and, in accordance with the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality's website (AHRQ),
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f the medical office manager wanted to compare the amount of time it takes for a patient to be seen by a physician versus a nurse practitioner, which information system would be helpful in this analysis?
If the medical office manager wanted to compare the amount of time it takes for a patient to be seen by a physician versus a nurse practitioner then Practice management would help him.
The person in charge of managing the finances and business operations of a medical professional's office, such as a doctor's office, in one of the many medical specialties is referred to as the "practice manager" in general practice.
A type of healthcare software called a medical practice management system manages all aspects of everyday clinic operations, such as appointment scheduling, billing, and other administrative tasks. The foundational elements of a private practitioner medical practice management system are as follows.
The bulk of practice management systems are made up of four elements: billing, storage, reporting, and scheduling. A good practice manager should be at ease talking to patients, physicians, and other team members.
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the nursing instructor is discussing psychosis with the nursing students. what behavior would the instructor explain people with psychosis exhibit?
This instructor would describe the disordered and frequently odd thought behavior patients with psychosis exhibit.
What triggers a psychosis?Numerous factors, including the following, may cause psychosis: physical ailment or harm. When you have a high fever, a head trauma, and lead or mercury poisoning, you can see or hear things. You might also have hallucinations or delusions if you have Parkinson's disease or Alzheimer's disease.
What a person with psychosis sees?People who suffer from psychosis start to lose touch with reality. This may entail having hallucinations, which involve seeing hearing things that others cannot see or hear, and holding beliefs that are not true (delusions).
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what is the one difference between a long-term acute-care hospital (lcth) and a short-term acute-care hospital?
The one difference between a long-term acute-care hospital (lcth) and a short-term acute-care hospital Most patients who need hospital inpatient care are admitted for a short while to a "acute care" facility. But some people might need a protracted hospital stay.
Although long-term care hospitals (LTCHs) are accredited as acute care facilities, their primary focus is on patients who stay longer than 25 days on average.
Even when there is some health care provided, long-term care typically refers to care that is mostly custodial, such as assistance with dressing or feeding. This type of care, which can be provided in your home or in institutions like assisted living homes, is not covered by Medicare. LTCHs are hospitals that provide inpatient care to patients who require a protracted hospital stay in order to recover.
Long-Term Acute Care Hospitals (LTCH) are hospitals with a focus on caring for critically sick patients who need prolonged hospital care, including those who are ventilator-dependent, have severe wounds, or have multiple organ system failure.
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which finding would the nurse recognize as common among infantswith symptomatic cardiac malformations
The most prevalent finding in most children with symptomatic cardiac malformations that the nurse can identify is "delayed physical growth". The correct answer is C.
Children that suffer cardiac malformations frequently need more energy to do everyday tasks; in the developing child, lower oxygen consumption and higher energy output lead to a slow growth rate. Children with congenital cardiac disease seldom exhibit mental impairment. Prenatal causes are more frequently to blame for cardiac abnormalities than hereditary ones. The majority of children with cardiac abnormalities do not club, only those who have more severe hypoxia do. Hypoxia is defined as low oxygen levels in human bodily tissues.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. Mental ret4rdationB. Inherited genetic disordersC. Delayed physical growthD. Clubbing of the fingertipsThe correct answer is C.
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what are some possible positive outcomes of being exposed to medical information and scenarios in entertainment?
Medical information and scenarios in entertainment can provide viewers with a powerful insight into medical issues and conditions.
Exploring the Positive Outcomes of Medical Information and Scenarios in EntertainmentIncreased awareness of medical issues and potential treatments: By being exposed to medical information and scenarios in entertainment, viewers can gain a better understanding of medical conditions and potential treatments. Improved empathy and understanding: By being exposed to medical information and scenarios in entertainment, viewers can gain a better understanding of the challenges and struggles faced by those living with medical conditions. Increased accessibility: By being exposed to medical information and scenarios in entertainment, viewers can gain a better understanding of medical issues and conditions. Improved medical research: By being exposed to medical information and scenarios in entertainment, viewers can gain a better understanding of medical issues and conditions.Learn more about Medical information: https://brainly.com/question/5496881
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a client with a right below-the-knee amputation is being transferred from the postanesthesia care unit to a medical-surgical unit. what is the highest priority nursing intervention by the receiving nurse?
The highest priority nursing intervention by the receiving nurse would be to check if the patient is mentally stable.
At times, it might happen that a client with a right below-the-knee amputation is being transferred from the postanesthesia care unit to a medical-surgical unit. So at that moment, it is the utmost duty of the nurse to see if the patient is mentally stable to receive the amputation. If not, then the nurse should provide mental support to the patient so that the patient becomes ready for the amputation.
Because until and unless the patient is entirely ready, amputation won't be possible to carry out.
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ambulances are required to carry certain medications and supplies in order to provide a minimum standard of care. this equipment is referred to as:
Ambulances are required to carry certain medications and supplies in order to provide a minimum standard of care. this equipment is referred to as: C. Essential equipment.
A Type 3 ambulance is what?On a cutaway van chassis is installed a Type III/Type 3 ambulance. The ambulance unit wouldn't be complete without the cab. The appearance of the link between the cab and patient module might vary, but typically it resembles a doorway rather than a window.
A Type 2 ambulance is what?The only significant difference between a Type II ambulance and a regular van is a raised roof. Type II ambulances are constructed on van-type chassis. Hospitals and other healthcare facilities primarily use type II ambulances to transfer patients who need just minimal life support.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. normal faulting is most often associated with mountain building along___boundaries, whereas reverse faulting is typically observed at___boundaries.
Convergent, Divergent. A fault is a crack or cluster of cracks that connects two rock blocks. Due to defects, the blocks may move in respect to one another.
Faults can be as short as a few millimetres or as long as thousands of kilometers. The majority of faults cause recurring displacements over geologic time. This movement might occur quickly, as in an earthquake, or gradually, as in creep. During an earthquake, the rock on one side of the fault quickly shifts in proportion to the other. The fault surface could be vertical, horizontal, or any other angle. This type of faulting is common in compressional areas, such as Japan, where one plate is subducting beneath another. When the dip angle is shallow, a reversal fault is commonly referred to as a thrust fault.
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the nurse is planning to teach a 9-year-old child with type 1 diabetes to perform blood glucose monitoring. which information would the nurse use as a basis for the teaching?
The nurse is planning to teach a 9-year-old child with type 1 diabetes to perform blood glucose monitoring, the nurse should teach about the clinical sanitation and procedures with initial steps.
Both type 1 and juvenile diabetes are autoimmune conditions that develop when the immune system kills cells that make insulin (beta cells). A hormone called insulin is necessary for cells to utilise blood sugar as fuel and assists in controlling blood glucose levels. This raises the body's blood sugar levels before therapy. Frequent urination, increased thirst, increased hunger, weight loss, and other significant problems are common signs of this raised blood sugar. There may also be additional signs and symptoms, including as fatigue, vision problems, and poor wound healing. Generally speaking, symptoms begin to show up quickly, usually within a few weeks.
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3. how do the carbohydrates ingested by this patient supply the nadph needed for fatty acid biosynthesis?
The carbohydrates that are ingested by the patient may supply the NADPH needed for fatty acid biosynthesis using the oxidative branch of the hexose monophosphate shunt or pentose phosphate pathway.
The patient in question is an obese woman who often consume candy, cookies, cake, and soft drinks; all of which contain a lot of sugar and carbohydrate. When the carbohydrate is ingested, the glucose got broken down by glycolysis into glucose 6-phosphate.
After that, the glucose 6-phosphate is used as an initiator for the pentose phosphate pathway. It reacts with NADP+. It then got oxidized into phosphategluconelactone while the NADP+ got reduced into NADPH as a byproduct of the process. The formed NADPH can be used to synthesize fatty acids in the liver.
Your question seems incomplete. Most likely, the completed version is as follows:
A 19-year-old woman sought medical help because she was 30 kg overweight. Most of her excess weight was in the form of adipose tissue. Her medical history revealed that her diet was extremely poor. Much of her caloric intake was carbohydrate candy. Cookies. Cake. Soft drinks and beer; her dietary fat intake was actually quite moderate.
How might the carbohydrate ingested by this patient supply the NADPH needed for fatty acid biosynthesis?
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3) which of the following is an impairment of speech production caused by defects of the neuromuscular system, the motor control system, or both?
Dysarthria is an impairment of speech production caused by defects of the neuromuscular system, the motor control system, or both.
Dysarthria is a speech disorder which occurs in a person due its muscle weakness. A motor speech disorder such as dysarthria causes damage to the nervous system. Many neuromuscular conditions (that is diseases that affect the nerves that are controlling certain muscles) can cause dysarthria. In dysarthria, the muscles used to speak are damaged, damaged or weakened.
The type of dysarthria depends on the part of the nervous system that is affected:
Central dysarthria: damage to the brain.
Lateral dysarthria: It causes damage to the organs needed for speech.
Dysarthria can be developmental or acquired:
The development of dysarthria occurs as a result of brain damage, either before the baby is born or during birth. For example, a brain tumor can cause dysarthria. Children often have progressive dysarthria.
Acquired dysarthria occurs as a result of brain damage later in life. For example, a stroke, stroke or Parkinson's disease can cause dysarthria. Adults often have dysarthria.
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A 30-year-old man presents with asymmetric myalgias and arthralgias. He also complains of difficulty climbing stairs. You note fever, hip, and shoulder muscle weakness but no atrophy, scattered extremity numbness, and tender palpable purpura. However, there is no facial or truncal rash. Laboratory testing reveals a low hematocrit, a high creatinine kinase, a negative antinuclear antibody titer, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 30-year-old man presents with asymmetric myalgias and arthralgias is most likely to diagnose with Polyarteritis nodosa.
Polyarteritis nodosa is a rare multi-system condition that causes significant inflammation, weakening, and damage to the small and medium-sized arteries. Any organ might be impacted, including those that supply the kidneys, heart, stomach, neurological system, and/or skeletal muscles.
PAN is a multisystemic disease that can result in fever, perspiration, weight loss, and excruciating joint and muscle pain. Over the course of weeks or months, PAN may gradually get worse. Unspecific symptoms including fever, sluggishness, weight loss, anorexia, and stomach discomfort may be present in patients.
Less than 15% of those with polyarteritis nodosa will survive for five years without receiving therapy. A person with polyarteritis nodosa has a better than 80% probability of living for five years with therapy.
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a client with a recent history of benign prostatic hypertrophy (bph) will soon begin treatment with finasteride. before beginning this course of therapy, the nurse should caution the client to be aware of what potentially adverse effect?
In a case whereby by a client with a recent history of benign prostatic hypertrophy (bph) will soon begin treatment with finasteride. before beginning this course of therapy, the nurse should caution the client to be aware of sexual dysfunction which is an adverse effect.
What is an adverse effect?A dysfunction can be decribed as the unexpected medical problem which could take place during treatment with a drug or other therapy. however the Adverse effects may be mild, moderate, the system, and for the case above the adverse effect can be seen as Persistent, as well as recurrent problems that can be associated to the sexual response, desire.
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the student nurse is learning about the social milestones reached by children at different stages of development. which statement made by the student nurse demonstrates adequate knowledge on the topic?
As an 8-year-old youngster becomes interested in boy-girl interactions, the student nurse's comment exhibits an acceptable understanding of the issue.
The capacity of a kid to successfully communicate their feelings, obey norms and directions, make healthy connections with others, and grow confidence is referred to as social-emotional development. Many factors influence a child's social-emotional development, including biology, family environment, educational environment, and life events.
Children who learn how to accomplish these tasks are more likely to succeed in life.
Make friends with other youngsters their age.Improve your communication and problem-solving abilities. Follow the regulations at home and school. Concentrate and persevere in the face of adversity.Have the courage to attempt new things.Learn more about the stages of development at
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the nurse uses the five ps to assess ischemia in a child with a fracture. what finding is considered a late and ominous sign?
When Paresthesia occurs, the fracture is considered a late and ominous sign, option C.
What is Paresthesia in ischemia?Following an arterial arrest above the elbow, ischemic paresthesia or tingling in the fingers and hand occur first, followed by gradual sensory loss or numbness that begins in the fingers and spreads centripetally.
Paresthesia in the mental nerve distribution is common with angle and body region fractures when the inferior alveolar canal is disrupted. When a patient complains of pain, weakness, or paresthesia, nerve injury should be considered. Paresthesia in ischemia means that the fracture is dangerously serious or late for treatment.
The complete question is:
The nurse uses the five Ps to assess ischemia in a child with a fracture. Which of the following findings is considered a late and ominous sign?
a. Petaling
b. Posturing
c. Paresthesia
d. Positioning
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a client undergoing antineoplastic therapy is prescribed subcutaneous epoetin. what indicates to the nurse that the drug has been effective?
The nurse evaluates that the drug is effective when hemoglobin levels rise.
Epoetin promotes erythropoiesis and RBC production. This is critical for clients receiving antineoplastics because bone marrow depression is a common side effect of antineoplastic therapy. Epoetin has no effect on tumor size or tissue malignancy. Antineoplastics frequently cause nausea and vomiting, but these are treated with antiemetics.
Antineoplastic drugs are cancer-fighting medications. Antineoplastic drugs are also known as anticancer, chemotherapy, chemo, cytotoxic, or hazardous drugs. These drugs are available in a variety of forms, including liquids and pills. These medications frequently improve cancer patients' overall survival, but they also frequently cause side effects such as hair loss, fatigue, nausea, and vomiting.
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which assay is recommended by the american heart association (aha) and the centers for disease control and prevention (cdc) as the inflammatory marker of choice in the evaluation of cardiac heart disease risk?
CRP measured by a highly sensitive assay (hs-CRP) is the inflammatory marker of choice to assess cardiovascular risk. An hs-CRP level of less than 1.0 mg/L is considered to denote low risk, 1.0 to 3.0 mg/L intermediate risk, and more than 3.0 mg/L high.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) collaborates to create the expertise, information, and tools that people and communities need to protect their health through health promotion, prevention of disease, injury and disability, and preparedness for new health threats.
CDC is responsible for controlling the introduction and spread of infectious diseases, and provides consultation and assistance to other nations and international agencies to assist in improving their disease prevention and control, environmental health, and health promotion activities.
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which action would be most important postoperatively for a client who has had a knee or hip replacement?
The most important postoperative action for a client who has undergone a knee or hip replacement is to move the foot and heel during the recovery period so that blood flow in the leg is maintained.
What is knee replacement surgery?Knee replacement surgery is a medical procedure that replaces a damaged knee joint with an artificial (prosthetic) joint. The goal is to relieve pain and restore function to the knee joint. That way, patients can return to their normal activities.
The types of arthritis that make the surgical procedure must be done:
Rheumatoid arthritisOsteoarthritisPost-traumatic arthritisAfter knee replacement surgery, patients can also be advised to move their feet and heels during the recovery period so that blood flow in the legs is maintained. In addition to breathing exercises and activities using the knee. It is also recommended for postoperative patients.
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antifungal drugs are available that do not fit into either the azole or echinocandin groups. which fall into the other group? select all that apply.
There are antifungal medications that do not fall within the azole or echinocandin families, hence Terbinafine belongs in the other group.
What are antifungal antibiotics?Antifungal medications treat fungal infections by eradicating or inhibiting the development of harmful fungi inside the body. Similar to how bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics, fungi can also acquire resistance to antifungal medications. A pharmaceutical fungicide or fungistatic called an antifungal medicine, also referred to as an antimycotic medication, is used to treat and prevent mycosis, including athlete's foot, ringworm, candidiasis, and dangerous systemic infections such cryptococcal meningitis.
what is the purpose of antifungal medicines and what is the main cause of fungal infection?Antifungal drugs are used to treat fungus infections, which most usually affect your skin, hair, and nails. Some antifungal medications are available from pharmacies without a doctor's prescription.
compromised immune system Visit a place where the amount of fungi is excessive. outbreak of fungi brought on by environmental disturbances like construction. introducing new fungus into a habitat.
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the elderly patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with a fever and productive cough. the diagnosis of pneumonia is made. you notice tenting skin, deep tongue furrows, and vital signs of 110/80 mm hg, 120 beats/minute, and 24 breaths/minute. what assessment is important for you to obtain?
Blood glucose assessment is important to obtain.
What is Diabetes mellitus?
Diabetes is the result of too much sugar in the blood (i.e., high glucose in blood).
When the body cannot take up enough sugar (i.e., glucose) into the cells to use for fuel is when diabetes occurs.
Glucose is a very important source for obtaining energy for cells. Glucose is the main source of fuel for the brain as well.
The main cause of diabetes usually is when cells in liver, fat, and muscle gain a resistance to insulin. Since there is no normal interaction, they don’t take up the required amount of sugar. The pancreas as well is unable to produce enough insulin to manage blood sugar levels .
Therefore, a blood glucose assessment is important to obtain.
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the nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving chemotherapy. the nurse prepares to initiate neutropenic precautions when the nurse notes which laboratory result?
A client having chemotherapy has a white blood cell level of 2000 cells/mm3, precautions the nurse is analyzing.
white blood cell counts typically range from 5000 to 10,000 cells/mm3. Neutropenia measures need to be taken when the white blood cell count falls. chemotherapy prevent the customer from contracting an infection, preventative isolation measures are also included. When chemotherapy is done the platelet count lowers, bleeding precautions must be taken. Avoiding any trauma, such as rectal temperatures or injections, is chemotherapy way to prevent bleeding. It ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 cells/mm3 for normal platelet counts.
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the nurse is caring for a 120 kg male brought in after a warehouse fire and is calculating the patient's fluid resuscitation needs. he has painful red blistering to the entire surface of both upper extremities and superficial burns to the anterior chest. using the modified lund and browder chart to calculate the total body surface area burned, how much intravenous fluid would be administered in the first 8 hours?
Using the modified Lund and Browser chart, the quantity of fluid that would be administered in the first 8 hours would be = 3840 mL. That is option B.
What is resuscitation?The process of repairing physiological problems in a critically sick patient is known as resuscitation. It is essential in critical care medicine, anesthesiology, trauma surgery, and emergency medicine. Well known examples are cardiopulmonary resuscitation and mouth-to-mouth resuscitation.
Using the modified Lund and Browder chart,
4 ml/kg/hour is used for fluid resuscitation in adults.
The weight of the patient = 120kg
If 4ml = 1 kg
X ml = 120kg
make X ml the subject of formula= 120×4 = 480 ml
Then, 1 hour = 480ml
8 hour = 8× 480ml = 3840ml
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Full Question:The nurse is caring for a 120 kg male brought in after a warehouse fire and is calculating the patients fluid resuscitation needs. He has painful red blistering to the entire surface of both upper extremities and superficial burns to the anterior chest. Using the modified Lund and Browder chart to calculate the total body surface area burned, how much IV fluid would be administered in the first 8 hours?
A. 2280 mL
B. 3840 mL
C. 4560mL
D. 7680 mL