Of the Gram-negative bacilli listed below, which is motile with polar tufts of flagella and can produce yellow pigment?
A. Alcaligenes faecalis
B. Bordetella bronchiseptica
C. Burkholderia cepacia
D. Acinetobacter baumannii

Answers

Answer 1

The Gram-negative bacilli, Burkholderia cepacia is motile with polar tufts of flagella and can produce yellow.

Pigments are insoluble and are carried out no longer as solutions but as finely floor solid debris blended with a liquid. In trendy, the equal pigments are hired in oil- and water-based total paints, printing inks, and plastics. Pigments can be natural (i.e., incorporate carbon) or inorganic.

There are exclusive forms of pigments that are labeled based on their resources. organic pigments. The natural pigments are crafted from a number of herbal sources. Inorganic pigments. The inorganic pigments, also called synthetic pigments are derived from coal tars and a number of other forms of petrochemicals.

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Related Questions

Which of the following technologies do scientists use to collect data from clouds?

Choose all that apply:

Satellites

Computers

Microwaves.

Airplanes

Answers

Answer:Doppler radar detects all types of precipitation, the rotation of thunderstorm clouds, airborne tornado debris, and wind strength and direction.

Explanation: copy right

T/F: Polypeptides inside the ER are usually smaller than polypeptides synthesized from the same mRNA that have not entered the ER.
true

Answers

It is accurate to say that peptides inside the ER are typically smaller than polypeptides made from the same mRNA outside of the ER.

What are the uses of polypeptides?

Since polypeptides (macromolecules made of amino acids) are essential components of molecules created for use in gene therapy or medication administration, they have been the focus of extensive research.

A polypeptide: is it a protein?

Each one of these acids is joined to its neighbors through a covalently peptide bond to form a lengthy chain that makes up a protein. Consequently, polypeptides is another name for proteins. A distinct amino acid sequence that is identical from one monomer to the next makes up each form of protein.

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PLEASE HELP ASAP!!! I WILL HIVE YOU BRAINLIST

Which statement best describes the physical features of mountain regions?

A.
Mountain regions are geographic areas that receive little rain and can be very dry.

B.
Mountain regions are geographic areas that have high elevations.

C.
Mountain regions are geographic areas like oceans and lakes.

D.
Mountain regions are geographic areas that are not much higher than sea level.
SUBMIT

Answers

it’s most likely answer b

which of the following correctly explains a long-distance signaling method animals use to perform cell communication? a) chemical signals travel down a nerve cell and are converted to electrical signals at synapsesb) endocrine cells release hormones that travel through the bloodstream to target cellsc) local regulator molecules pass through gap junctions to transmit signals to target cellsd) proteins on a cell's surface recognize and interact with molecules on another cell's surface

Answers

A signaling molecule acting on a target cell that is far away from the signaling cell is known as long-distance signaling.

Endocrine signaling is another name for long-distance communication. A hormone is a substance that an endocrine gland secretes that is intended to cause a reaction in a specific cell. The bloodstream is responsible for hormone distribution.Hormones are the chemical messengers that target other cells while travelling through the circulation.The endocrine system uses chemical signals called hormones to transmit information from one area of the body to another. The extracellular environment is where hormones are released from the endocrine cell, but they ultimately reach their target tissues via the bloodstream.

The body's chemical messengers are called hormones. They move information and commands from one set of cells to another.

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Darwin's finches are an example of adaptive radiation, the evolution of an animal or plant group into different types adapted to specialized ways of life. Their common ancestor arrived on the Galapagos about two million years ago. Over time, Darwin's finches have evolved into 15 recognized species differing in body size, beak shape, song and feeding behavior. The picture here shows finches with four different types of beaks.

What statement best represents how one species of finches became many?

A. In order to survive, the finches with different beaks flew to the island with the best food source for each beak type. Over time they evolved into different species.

B. The finches became isolated from one another on different islands. Because each island was different and presented different food sources, those finches with the beak type best fit for each island ecosystem survived to reproduce, over time evolving into different species

C. The finches became isolated from one another on different islands. Because each island was different and presented different food sources, those finches with the beak type best fit for each island ecosystem survived to reproduce, over time evolving into different species

D. The finches became isolated from one another on different islands. Finches developed the beaks that would best help them survive, over time evolving into different species.

Answers

Answer:d

Explanation:

Select the correct image or images.
Select all of the creatures that are ectothermic.

Answers

Only the sturgeon fish is ectothermic

What did the industrial revolution NOT cause?

Answers

The Industrial Revolution led to economic expansion and new opportunities, but it also had substantial drawbacks, including threats to the environment, risks to employees' health and safety, and poor living conditions for workers and their families.

What is industrial revolution?

The Industrial Revolution was the shift to new industrial techniques that took place in Great Britain, continental Europe, and the United States between roughly 1760 and 1820–1840.

Although the Industrial Revolution brought about economic growth and new opportunities, it also had significant negative effects, such as risks to the environment, dangers to the health and safety of workers, and subpar living conditions for both workers and their families.

Thus, all these were not caused by industrial revolution.

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3. Define: A phase change is a change from one state to another, such as from a liquid to a gas. Based on what you have read in the Gizmo, fill in the blanks with the words 'liquid," "gas," or 'solid' to define each change.
4. Practice: Fill in the process that causes each transition. Your choices are evaporation, condensation. precipitation, melting, and freezing.
5. Practice: Fill in the two processes that cause each of the following transitions
6. Think and discuss: Water covers over two-thirds of Earth's surface. Yet water shortages are a major problem for many people around the world. Why do you think this is the case?

Answers

Evaporation is the process by which a material transforms from its liquid state into its gaseous state.

explain about the phase change processes ?

Evaporation is the process by which a material transforms from its liquid state into its gaseous state. Condensation is the process by which a material transitions from its gaseous state into its liquid state. Sublimation is the process of a solid converting directly to a gas without first going through a liquid phase.

Evaporation : change from liquid state to gases state.Condensation : change from gases state to liquid state.Melting : change from solid state to liquid state.Freezing : change from liquid state to solid state.

4. Ocean → atmosphere :

change of water from ocean to atmosphere was evaporation.

Atmosphere → clouds :

change of  atmosphere to cloud was condensation.

Clouds → Snow :

change of  clouds to snow was condensation.

Glacier → river :

change of glacier to river was evaporation.

Ocean → cloud :

change of ocean water to cloud was evaporation.

cloud → glacier :

change of cloud to glacier was melting and refreezing.

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Identify each event as either a sympathetic nervous system response or a hypothalamic pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis response to stress

Answers

Heart rate rises, epinephrine and norepinephrine are released, blood pressure rises, and respiration increases as a result of the sympathetic nervous system.Cortisol release- Glucose levels rising in the blood- The pituitary gland's activation

What are the nervous system's four primary purposes?

The control center of your body is your neurological system.It is controlled by your brain and governs your actions, thoughts, and automatic reactions to your environment.Other bodily functions and systems, including digestion, respiration, and sexual development, are also under its control.

What are the nervous system's functions?

Signals are sent from the brain to the rest of the body, such as the internal organs, via the nervous system.Thus, its nervous system's activity regulates a variety of functions, including the capacity to move, breathe, see, and think.1. The nerve cell, or neuron, is the basic building block of the neurological system.

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A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who is gravida 1 and para 0. The client was admitted to the hospital at 38 weeks gestation with a diagnosis of pregnancy induced hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as inconsistent with the admitting diagnosis?
A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
B. 3+ protein in the urine
C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
D. Deep tendon reflextes of +1

Answers

The finding that is most inconsistent with the admitting diagnosis of pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH) is deep tendon reflexes of +1. Therefore, option (D) is correct.

What is Deep tendon reflexes of +1?

Pregnancy induced hypertension is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure. It can be a serious complication and may lead to further complications such as preterm labor and delivery. Common signs and symptoms of PIH may include high blood pressure, swelling in the hands and feet, protein in the urine, and occasionally, abdominal pain.

Deep tendon reflexes are a type of reflex that can be tested by a healthcare provider to assess the functioning of the nervous system. A deep tendon reflex is considered normal if the reflex is present and the response is graded at +2 or +3. A reflex graded at +1 is considered hyporeflexive, which means that the reflex is weaker than normal. This finding is not consistent with the diagnosis of PIH. If the nurse observes a deep tendon reflex of +1 in the client, they should report this finding to the healthcare provider, as it may indicate an underlying neurological condition that needs further evaluation.

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Trace the elimination of any urinary wastes from the allantoic bladder in fetus.

Answers

Urine in adults travels through the urethra, but in fetuses, urine travels from the bladder through the allantoic duct and then to the allantois, a special sac. Allantois is a nitrogenous waste-specific sac that allows fetal urine to bypass the urethra.

What is the urinary system about?

The kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra comprise the urinary system, also known as the urinary tract or renal system. The urinary system's purpose is to eliminate waste from the body, regulate blood volume and pressure, control electrolyte and metabolite levels, and maintain blood pH.

The allantoic is a sac formed from the posterior region of the alimentary canal in vertebrates. In amphibians, it serves as a urinary bladder, in embryonic reptiles and birds, it receives metabolic wastes, and in Eutheria, it forms part of the placenta.

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Infection by which of the following results in the formation of Ghon complexes? A. Bordetella pertussisB. Corynebacterium diphtheriaeC. Mycobacterium tuberculosisD. Streptococcus pyogenesE. Blastomyces dermatidis

Answers

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the pathogen that causes TB, also generates a Ghon complex.

What factor does Streptococcus pneumoniae's virulence depend on most?

There is a lot of genetic variation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, and some lineages are more successful than others. The key driver of virulence and immunodominant surface structure of S. pneumoniae, the capsular polysaccharide (CPs), is a significant source of strain-to-strain variation.

Which of the following can cause a tuberculin skin test to be positive?

The PPD test's positive skin reaction might happen in: infection with active TB. prior exposure to TB (latent TB infection) Earlier BCG vaccination (live attenuated mycobacterial strain) infection with different Mycobacteria that do not cause tuberculosis.

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Create a map to compare simple diffusion, protein-mediated transport, and vesicular transport across membranes.

Answers

By simple diffusion, it will be transferred across the plasma membrane.

Simple diffusion is the process by which molecules penetrate the plasma membrane without the assistance of channels that are present on the membrane's surface. Since the identified molecule was polar, it will not stick when it enters the hydrophobic part of the membrane since this region is non-polar, and it will travel smoothly across that region.Simple diffusion is a process in which a substance crosses a membrane without the aid of an outside agent or middleman, diffusion acts as the force that propels the molecules. In biology, diffusion is the migration of a molecule from a high concentration region to a low concentration region.

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a. What proportion of the gametes formed from Parent 1 have the composition b+b? [Choose ] b. What proportion of gametes formed from Parent 1 have the composition b [Choose ] > c. What proportion of gametes formed from Parent 1 have the composition b+? [Choose ] > d. What proportion of gametes formed from Parent 1 have the composition bb? [Choose ] e. What proportion of offspring from cross I will have brown body? [Choose ] f. What proportion of offspring from cross I will have yellow body? [ Choose g. What proportion of the gametes formed from Parent 3 have the composition b+b+? [Choose ] > g. What proportion of the gametes formed from Parent 3 have the composition b+b+? [Choose ] < h. What proportion of gametes formed from Parent 3 have the composition b+b? [Choose ] > i. What proportion of gametes formed from Parent 3 have the composition b+? [ Choose V j. What proportion of gametes formed from Parent 3 have the composition b? [Choose ] j. What proportion of gametes formed from Parent 3 have the composition b? [Choose ] k. What proportion of gametes formed from Parent 4 have the composition b+? [ Choose l. What proportion of gametes formed from Parent 4 have the composition b? m. What proportion of offspring from cross ll will have brown bofy[ Choose [Choose ]> n. What proportion of offspring from cross Il will have yellow body? [Choose ] < o. What proportion of offspring from cross Il will be trisomic? [Choose ]

Answers

The child would be born with twice as many chromosomes as it should. The organism's somatic cells are diploid (2n). This indicates that they have n double chromosomes.

Gametes (egg and sperm cells) are haploid cells, which means they contain n fewer chromosomes than other cells. A diploid zygote (2n) is created when haploid egg cell (n) and haploid sperm cell (n) combine:

n + n = 2n

Consequently, the freshly created organism's somatic cells are diploid once more (2n).

Imagine a scenario where the gametes are diploid rather than haploid (n) (2n). A tetraploid zygote (4n) would result from the union of a diploid egg cell (2n) and a diploid sperm cell (2n):

2n + 2n = 4n

The offspring will have twice as many chromosomes as they normally would. The result is that the baby would have twice as many chromosomes as it should have if the gametes were not haploid.

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The auditory ossicles transmit and amplify sound waves in the middle ear. In sequence, sound waves pass from: . malleus-incus-stapes.

Answers

In the middle ear, the hearing ossicles transmit & amplify sound waves. Sound waves go from the malleus, incus, and stapes in that order.

The ossicles began moving as a result of the eardrum's vibrations. The tiniest bones in the human body, the ossicles are essentially very small bones. The names of the three bones—the malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes—are based on their forms (stirrup). The ossicles magnify the sound even more. The oval window receives vibrations from the eardrum through to the middle ear through the auditory ossicles.In the middle ear, the hearing ossicles transmit & amplify sound waves. Sound waves go from the malleus, incus, and stapes in that order. The fluid in the inner ear is moved by a wave created at the oval window, which activates receptor cells and enables the conversion of mechanical vibrations into electrical impulses. Sound waves reach the outer ear & pass via the ear canal, a small tunnel that connects to the eardrum.

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Well observing an Elodea plant cell through a microscope a student noticed some small moving green disc these organelles were most likely responsible for

Answers

Answer: Based on the description you provided, the small moving green discs that the student observed in the Elodea plant cell are most likely chloroplasts.

Chloroplasts are organelles found in the cells of plants and other photosynthesizing organisms. They are responsible for photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert sunlight into chemical energy. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll, a pigment that absorbs light energy and converts it into chemical energy. This is why chloroplasts are often described as being green in color.

Chloroplasts are typically found in the cells of plants and algae, where they are responsible for producing energy for the organism through photosynthesis. They are found in the cytoplasm of cells, and they are typically oval or disk-shaped. They are typically small in size, and they are often described as being "in motion" due to the movement of the pigments within them.

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Answers

Answer: The amino acids that compose proteins are universal to all organisms

Explanation:

Which type of nuclear fusion will most likely lead
to commercial application?

Answers

Deuterium–tritium  fusion is the type of nuclear fusion will most likely lead to commercial application.

What are the features of Deuterium–tritium fusion?

Deuterium–tritium fusion is a type of nuclear fusion in which one deuterium nucleus fuses with one tritium nucleus, giving one helium nucleus, one free neutron, and 17.6 MeV of energy. It is the most efficient type of fusion for fusion devices.

Moreover, DT fusion produces a neutron and a helium nucleus. In the process, it also releases much more energy than most fusion reactions.

Therefore, the  fuel reaches fusion conditions at lower temperatures compared to other elements and releases more energy than other fusion reactions.

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scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of dna technology. which of the following is one of the adopted safety measures?

Answers

Recombinant DNA experiments involve genetically damaged microorganisms that are unable to thrive outside of the lab.

What is done in biology labs?

Apply the scientific process, making testable hypotheses based on observations and facts, and so on. Analyze how abiotic factors affect enzymatic activity. Investigate the processes of photosynthetic, mitotic, and meiosis in cells. Determine inheritance patterns using Mendelian genetics.

What do biological tools entail?

In the context of a Legacy Program, "Biological Tools" refers to (a) strains of bacteria and plasmid created in a lab, (b) biochemical reagent (containing protein and substrate), (c) cellular and molecular biology reagents, and (d) transcription plasmids and protein from TPAT.

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Which best describes the net result of meiotic cellular division?
A Two genetically identical daughter cells.
B
C
Two genetically different daughter cells.
Four genetically identical daughter cells.
D Four genetically different daughter cells.

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Meiosis and mitosis are different. Meiosis occurs in gamete-producing cells. Meiosis is essentially happens in two stages, with the first stage producing 2 cells and then those 2 cells each producing 2 cells, making the net result 4. The chromosomes are divided, creating genetically different daughter cells.

Scientists predict that climate change will cause more cases of extreme weather events in the future.

Which of the following extreme weather events do scientists have the strongest evidence for?

Lightning.

Heat waves and coastal flooding.

Earthquakes.

Tornadoes.

Answers

Answer:Agriculture is an important sector of the U.S. economy. The crops, livestock, and seafood produced  in the United States contribute more than $300 billion to the economy each year. When food-service and other agriculture-related industries are included, the agricultural and food sectors contribute more than $750 billion to the gross domestic product.

Agriculture and fisheries are highly dependent on the climate. Increases in temperature and carbon dioxide (CO2) can increase some crop yields in some places. But to realize these benefits, nutrient levels, soil moisture, water availability, and other conditions must also be met. Changes in the frequency and severity of droughts and floods could pose challenges for farmers and ranchers and threaten food safety. Meanwhile, warmer water temperatures are likely to cause the habitat ranges of many fish and shellfish species to shift, which could disrupt ecosystems. Overall, climate change could make it more difficult to grow crops, raise animals, and catch fish in the same ways and same places as we have done in the past. The effects of climate change also need to be considered along with other evolving factors that affect agricultural production, such as changes in farming practices and technology.

Explanation: copy right

How do organisms interact with and respond to changes in their environment?

Answers

Answer:

Organisms interact and use available resources, such as food, space, light, heat, water, air, and shelter. Each population of organisms, and the individuals within it, interact in specific ways that are limited by and can benefit from other organisms.

Explanation:

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What muscles make organs work properly?

Answers

Answer:

skeletal muscle or smooth muscle

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Which of the following is a characteristic of a theory?
Select one:

It is accepted to be true by many scientists

All of these

It explains why something happens

It is supported by a large body of scientific evidence

Answers

Answer:

All of the options are characteristics of a theory.

Explanation:

A theory is a well-supported and widely accepted explanation for a phenomenon. It is based on a large body of scientific evidence and is generally accepted to be true by the scientific community. Additionally, a theory explains why something happens and provides a framework for understanding and making predictions about a particular phenomenon.

which of the following graphs depict the cardiac cycle of an individual with chronic hypertension in which blood pressure is 140/90?

Answers

Continuous blood pressure (BP) more than 140/90 mmHg... lowers the risk of cardiovascular events in those with hypertension.

How does the cardiac cycle impact blood pressure?

The arterial blood pressure rises during active ventricular contraction phases of the cardiac cycle and falls during ventricular filling and atrial systole. As a result, there are two different ways to measure blood pressure: systolic while the heart is contracting and diastolic when it is relaxing.

When does the peak pressure during the cardiac cycle occur?

The highest active chamber stiffness or elastance (pressure to volume ratio) usually happens after ejection. When left ventricular pressure falls below left atrial pressure, ventricular filling (phase IV) which follows isovolumetric relaxation, begins.

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Data suggests that Baikal seals can sustain much longer dives than emperor penguins. Propose a hypothesis that could explain the evolution of different dive responses in emperor penguins and baikal seals

Answers

The suggested hypothesis is that fermentation may be to blame for the rise in lactate levels. Different bacteria with the capacity to utilise a variety of carbohydrate sources create lactic acid through the fermentation process.

What is the use of primary bacteria?

The primary bacteria utilised to create lactic acid are lactic acid bacteria, and among these, Lactobacillus spp. have demonstrated intriguing fermentation abilities. Lactic acid fermentation was a consequence of a deficiency in oxygen inside the muscle cells.

This is because oxygen is required by the cell as a terminal electron acceptor in order to make ATP. The cells had to find an alternative way to produce energy since there was no oxygen present. As a byproduct, lactic acid, or lactate, and H+ were produced.

Therefore, The suggested hypothesis is that fermentation may be to blame for the rise in lactate levels.

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A group of plants that are not capable of
interbreeding is called
a.vegetation
b.biome
C. Community
d. a population.

Answers

Answer:

A group of plants that are not capable of interbreeding would be known as a species, however that is not one your options.

Explanation:

For plants, another way to describe it would be "hybrid plants" however, that ia also not an option, but if you consider each option, you would end up at the conclusion that the answer is most likely be biome or community but community interbreeding often result in weak offspring.

A group of plants that are not capable of interbreeding would be known as a species.

What is interbreeding?

In both biology and philosophy, there is debate over the nature of species. Philosophers and biologists argue over the ontological significance of species, while biologists disagree over the definition of the word "species."

The basic taxonomic units of biological classification are species. Species are used to frame environmental legislation. Even how we view human nature is influenced by how we view different animals.

Numerous species are distinguishable with ease. The nature of species is significantly less evident when we look at the scholarly literature on species. There are more than twenty definitions of "species" provided by biologists.

Therefore, A group of plants that are not capable of interbreeding would be known as a species.

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if in a population there are only two alleles at a certain locus, then their frequencies are related as follows: p

Answers

if the allele frequencies in a population with two alleles at a locus are p and q, then the expected genotype frequencies are p2, 2pq, and q2. This frequency distribution will not change from generation to generation once a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

What is Hardy-Weinberg principle ?

A population's genetic variation will remain constant from one generation to the next if no unfavourable factors arise, according to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle.

There are five fundamental Hardy-Weinberg presumptions: absence of mutation, asexual reproduction, absence of gene flow, infinite population size, and absence of selection. The population for a gene may evolve if the presumptions are not true (the allele frequencies of the gene may change).

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A scientist places 23 mg of bacteria in a culture for an experiment and he finds that the mass of the bacteria triples every day.
1. Each day that passes, the mass of bacteria in the culture changes by what percent?
2. What is the mass of the bacteria in the culture 2 days after the start of the experiment?

Answers

If the mass of the bacteria triples every day then 1. The mass of bacteria in the culture changes by 300 percent every day and 2. the mass of the bacteria in the culture 2 days after the start of the experiment is calculated to be 207 mg

1. The percentage of the mass of bacteria that changes every day can be calculated as follows;

Since the mass of the 23 mg bacteria triples every day, therefore, the mass the next day will be;

23 × 3 = 69 mg

Now the percent change of the mass can be calculated as follows;

percent change = (final mass / initial mass) × 100

percent change = (69 / 23) × 100

percent change = 3 × 100

percent change = 300%

2. The mass of the bacteria in the culture 2 days after the start of the experiment can be calculated as follows;

Mass of bacteria after 1 day = mass × percentage mass = 23 × (300/100) = 69 mg

Mass of bacteria after 2 days = 69 × (300/100) = 207 mg

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The swelling and bursting of the red blood cells isSelect one:a. hemolysis.b. agonal edema.c. a rupture.d. an ecchymosis.

Answers

The swelling and bursting of the red blood cells is called hemolysis which is nothing but destruction of red blood cells.

Hemolysis is the breakdown or destruction of red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues. This can occur when red blood cells are exposed to certain substances or conditions, such as certain medications, infections, or physical trauma, which can cause the cells to swell and burst. The release of hemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen in the blood, into the surrounding tissue or fluid can lead to anemia and other health problems, depending on the severity of the condition. Hemolysis can also be caused by underlying health conditions, such as sickle cell anemia or autoimmune disorders, in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys healthy red blood cells. Hemolysis can be diagnosed through a combination of physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies, and treatment may involve medications, blood transfusions, or other therapies.

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What is the equation, in point-slope form, of the line that is parallel to the given line and passes through the point (4, 1)? y 1 = 2(x 4) y 1 = negative one-half(x 4) y 1 = one-half(x 4) y 1 = 2(x 4) A silo (base not included) is to be constructed in the form of a cylinder surmounted by a hemisphere. The cost of construction per square unit of surface area is 3 times as great for the hemisphere as it is for the cylindrical sidewall. Determine the dimensions to be used if the volume is fixed at 18000 cubic units and the cost of construction is to be kept to a minimum. Neglect the thickness of the silo and waste in construction.The radius of the cylindrical base (and of the hemisphere) is ? ft.(Rounding to the nearest tenth as needed.) Match the below with the correct descriptionsPores across two plasma membranesEnzyme that synthesizes CelluloseFibril that provides the most tensile strength in animal cellsCell surface receptor that links the ECM to the Intracellular environmentFibroblast ECM protein that interacts with cell surface receptorsCell surface adhesion molecules that hold cells together in a tissue structureA.CadherinsB.IngetrinsC.CollagenD.FibronectinE.Cellulose Synthase ComplexesF.Connexons shania sees a cognitive therapist for depression. shania's therapist has explained to her that cognitive therapy is very effective for depression because it addresses: SMelissa wants to make a table representing the area of her vegetable garden for a variety of differentlengths of the tomato patch. She uses her area expression to create the table. Complete the table by typing the correct answer in each box. Use numerals instead of words. Do notround your decimal answers. n3Length of Tomato Patch(in feet)Area of Vegetable Garden(in square feet)33818. 38ngto0in6. 542. 2512. 13147. 25497mourDart Bhall nenners. Since the space The 1858 U.S. Senate race, during which he debated Stephen A. Douglas, catapulted Lincoln into a national spotlight. Though he lost the election to Douglas, the famous Lincoln-Douglas Debates set the stage for Lincoln's eventual presidential nomination by the Republican Party two years later. To figure whether she should pay estimated tax for 2021, Jane determines her expected adjusted gross income for 2021 will be $82,800. Her AGI for 2020 was $73,700. Her total tax on her 2020 return was $9,001. Using the 2021 Estimated Tax Worksheet she figures her total 2021 estimated tax to be $11,015. Her tax expected to be withheld in 2021 is $10,000. She will file as Head of Household and expects no refundable credits in 2021. All of the following are true regarding Janes estimated taxes except:A. She expects to owe at least $1,000 for 2021 after subtracting her withholding from her expected total taxB. She expects her income tax withholding to be at least 90% of the tax to be shown on her 2021 returnC. Jane does not need to pay estimated taxD. Jane will need to pay estimated tax Coleman thought he was really good at math. His parents always said so, and so did his kindergarten teacher. But now that he was in first grade, Coleman, using __________, noticed that other first-graders were moving further along the math achievement chart than he was.Question 27 options:emotional display rulesself-esteemsocial comparisona fixed mindset Which equation justifies why 73=37? (1 P(73) - 7(6-0)-7=7OO () .,(-4).73=7(1)-(-)-= 7= 7? (1 point) suppose that you are holding a pencil balanced on its point. if you release the pencil and it begins to fall, what will be the angular acceleration when it has an angle of 10.0 degrees from the vertical? a typical pencil has an average length of 15.0 cm and an average mass of 10.0 g . assume the tip of the pencil does not slip as it falls. Use the figure above to compare the quantity of carbon present in the atmosphere to that present in fossil fuels. What percent of the carbon in the fossil fuel compartment would double the amount if carbon in the atmosphere if it was burned? Nations with proportional representation tend to have multiparty political systems. Nations with first-past-the-post voting tend to have two-party political systems. How do different types of voting systems lead to different types of party systems?