Methylergonovine is prescribed for a woman to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Before administration of methylergonovine, what is the priority assessment

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Blood pressure

Explanation:

Methylergonovine, an ergot alkaloid, is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. Methylergonovine causes continuous uterine contractions and may elevate the blood pressure. A priority assessment before the administration of the medication is to check the blood pressure. The obstetrician needs to be notified if hypertension is present.  blood pressure is related specifically to the administration of this medication.


Related Questions

Mention at least 2 diseases managed by Obstetrics and Gynecology

Answers

Answer:

Pelvic pain

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

Explanation:

Pelvic pain- Pelvic pain can arise from your digestive, reproductive or urinary system

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)- a hormonal disorder common among women of reproductive age

How many compressions per cycle should be provided to an adult, child or infant when doing cpr?.

Answers

Answer:

15 compressions to 2 breaths.

Explanation:

Two minutes usually allow for five cycles of 30 chest compressions and two breaths. A two-minute CPR cycle is usually tiring.

You are mentoring a student in the intensive care unit (ICU) while caring for a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which action by the student requires you to intervene most rapidly

Answers

The action by the student that requires you to intervene most rapidly is entering the room without putting on a mask & gown.

What is intensive care unit (ICU) ?

The Intensive Care Unit (ICU) is a unit in the hospital that specialises in the care of patients that are in critical conditions such as

patients that are from surgery who needs close monitoring.

Patients on life support and

terminal illness patients.

Meningococcal meningitis is a type of infection that affects the meningitis leading to life threatening situations.

This infection is communicable therefore that student should be on personal protection wares to avoid being infected.

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A client taking rifampin, isoniazid, and
pyrazinamide for tuberculosis reports contact
lenses being stained orange. Which action should
the nurse perform to help this client?

Answers

Answer:

to prescribe rifapentine, instead of

Explanation:

since rifampin dyes saliva, urine, tears, sweat, etc an orange color.

hope this helps:)

A client is admitted to the cardiac care unit for an electrophysiology (EP) study. What goal should guide the planning and execution of the client's care

Answers

Answer:

Diagnose the dysrhythmia.

Explanation:

What are some reasons someone might not seek help for autism

Answers

Answer:

they might not seek help because they are ashamed or just cant ask for help

The organ that is the first site of chemical digestion.

Answers

Answer:

The stomach

Explanation:

The stomach is the first place because your mouth and saliva do not do a chemical digestion, it only primes it for the chemical digestion in the stomach, plus the mouth is not a organ, it is a body part, for example the tongue or esophages are organs.

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A sudden onset of difficult breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with

Answers

Answer:

A pulmonary embolism.

Explanation:

A sudden onset of difficult breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with  pulmonary embolism.

Not yet answered Points out of 1.00
1 tbsp =
mL
Select one:
O a. 5
O b. 15
O c. 30
O d. 60
Flag question

Answers

Answer:

B. 15mL

Explanation:

The unit of measurement varies by region: a United States tablespoon is approximately 14.8 ml (0.50 US fl oz), a United Kingdom and Canadian tablespoon is exactly 15 ml (0.51 US fl oz).

Answer:

The answer is B. 15

Explanation:

1 tbsp = 15ml

which components of bile can become solids when thy interact with calcium

Answers

Abstract

Background: Previous studies have shown that human bile contains one or more factors that inhibit the precipitation of calcium carbonate from supersaturated solutions of calcium chloride and sodium bicarbonate. Lower concentrations of this factor have been observed in the gallbladder bile of patients with calcified gallstones. We hypothesized that gallbladder bile contains factors that inhibit calcium carbonate and these factors are present in varying concentrations in normal persons and in patients with cholesterol gallstones with and without calcium carbonate.

Methods: Gallbladder bile of patients without gallstones (n = 8) and of patients with cholesterol gallstones containing either calcium carbonate (n = 8) or other calcium salts (n = 8) was assayed for calcium carbonate inhibition. Individual components of bile (bilirubin, phospholipid, bile salts, and albumin) were tested in different concentrations in the same assay system. In addition, samples of model bile were tested.

Results: An inhibitory factor for calcium carbonate precipitation was present within all human gallbladder bile, irrespective of the absence, presence, or type of gallstones. The addition of a bilirubin-albumin solution to a supersaturated solution of calcium chloride and sodium bicarbonate entirely blocked precipitation of calcium carbonate from solution. In addition, serial dilutions of bilirubin exhibited a linear response between bilirubin concentration and inhibitory effect. Model bile and phospholipid dissolved in sodium taurocholate also exhibited a modest inhibitory effect on calcium carbonate precipitation.

Conclusions: We conclude that bilirubin, cholesterol, and phospholipids incrementally interfere with calcium carbonate precipitation in supersaturated solutions through the preferential formation of a soluble calcium complex.

The nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client with a history of cardiac disease regarding appropriate dietary measures. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates an understanding of the information provided by the nurse

Answers

Answer: A cesarean section will be necessary if vaginal lesions are present at the time of labor.

Explanation: A cesarean section will be necessary if vaginal lesions are present at the time of labor. This is because the cesarean section will be needed in order to assist with labor. If the cesarean section was not implied then labor for the patient would be extremely painful and could result in complications of the newborn.

in the case of jesse gelsinger, a young man who died during gene therapy, the therapy involved delivery via a viral vector. was this germ-line or somatic therapy?

Answers

Somatic therapy is the answer

muscles when moving produce body____

Answers

Answer:

heat

Explanation:

id.k if this is right

hope this helps

have a good day

A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. Identify how much drug will remain in the body after one half-life

Answers

A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. after a half-life the body will have 400 mg.

What is the half-life of a drug?

Half-life (t 1/2): is the time required for the amount of a substance to be reduced by half. More specifically, when dealing with drugs we say that the half-life is the time taken for the plasma concentration of a drug in the body to be reduced by half.

With this information, we can conclude that a drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. after a half-life the body will have 400 mg.

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The nursing instructor is teaching a class on the nutritional needs of the pregnant client. The instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly choose which supplement as being known to prevent up to 70% of CNS birth defects

Answers

Folic acid is the supplement which is known as being able to prevent up to 70% of CNS birth defects.

What is Folic acid?

This is known as Vitamin B9 and is soluble in water. It helps in the production of new healthy erythrocytes in the body.

This prevent CNS birth defects due to it favoring adequate production of healthy cells in a fetus.

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which type of radiation source would pose the greatest health risk when used internally for a medical procedure

Answers

Answer:

Alpha particles

Explanation:

What type of radiation is most harmful? It depends on whether your exposure to radiation is internal or external. Alpha particles are the most harmful internal hazard as compared with gamma rays and beta particles.

Articles that appear in the Journal of the American Medical Association are reliable sources of health information because the editors ________.

Answers

Answer:

Articles that appear in the Journal of the American Medical Association are reliable sources of health information because the editors have scientist review and react before publishing.

Articles that appear in the Journal of the American Medical Association are reliable sources of health information because the editors review them.

What is an Article?

This is referred to a piece of writing on a particular subject or topic in a newspaper etc.

Articles in the Journal of the American Medical Association are usually reviewed by peers to ascertain its validity.

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Component(s) of a comprehensive fitness program include intensity, progression, consistency, variety as well as ____.

Answers

Answer:

The components of a comprehensive fitness program are:

Cardiovascular Endurance.

Muscular Strength.

Muscular endurance.

Flexibility.

Body Composition.

which factor can be used to determine the source of infection of a client who tests positive for giardia

Answers

Answer:

Short-term symptoms include:

Diarrhea

Gas

Foul-smelling, greasy stools (poop) that tend to float

Stomach cramps or pain

Upset stomach or nausea

Vomiting

Dehydration (loss of fluids)

Explanation:

Giardia infection is an intestinal infection marked by stomach cramps, bloating, nausea and bouts of watery diarrhea. Giardia infection is caused by a microscopic parasite that is found worldwide, especially in areas with poor sanitation and unsafe water. You can get giardiasis if you swallow the Giardia parasite (germ). Giardia—or stool (poop) from people or animals infected with Giardia—can contaminate anything it contacts. Giardia spreads very easily; even getting tiny amounts of poop in your mouth could make you sick.

You noticed someone showing all the signs of a severe allergic reaction. What is the first and most important action you should take

Answers

Answer:

The first action would obviously be to call 911 if you aren't inside a medical facility. The next most important would be to ask the individual if they are carrying an epinephrine autoinjector (AKA an EpiPen or other device.)

Explanation:

what are the three main stages of aerobic cellular respiration?

Answers

Glycolysis, Citric acid cycle and Electron transport chain.

You need to make 350g of 15% zinc oxide. How much zinc oxide is required?

Answers

Answer:

52.5 gm

Explanation:

350 g * 15 % =   350 * .15 = 52.5 gm

Based on the breast milk consumption of an infant during the first 6 months of life, approximately _____calories are required from the mother each day.

Answers

Answer:

500

Explanation:

Based on the breast milk consumption of an infant during the first 6 months of life, approximately 500 calories are required from the mother each day.

if sylvia gonzales tells you that she ate breakfast before coming in for the test, what should you do?

Answers

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

Check to see if the test requires a fasting period ( NPO ) before proceeding.

If SYLVIA had breakfast before coming for the blood test, It doesn't mean it the test will not be performed.

As there are different types of blood tests, the fasting before the blood test  is depend on what you want to test.

What are the different types of blood tests?

Blood glucose fasting test refers to check the sugar level in an individual specifically in case of diabetic person, fasting sugar level detect the exact sugar level.

It is prescribed to patient to be on fast before 8 t0 10 hours of blood withdrawal.

For blood cholesterol test, is to detect the concentration of fatty substance mainly three types of cholesterol in body like high density, low density cholesterol and triglycerides.

Low density cholesterol are bad cholesterol for body, if the amount increases, then the person go for blood test at least for 10 hours before blood test.

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In a study of drug efficacy for depression management, Group 1 received a placebo, Group 2 received 2mg of the drug, and Group 3 received 5 mg of the drug. Which group(s) were the experimental group(s)

Answers

The experimental groups are the groups that received the drug and they were groups 2 and 3.

What is an experimental group?

The term experimental group refers to the group that receives the treatment which in this case is a certain drug meant or depression management.

The experimental groups are the groups that received the drug and they were groups 2 and 3.

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What's the name of the first woman who started nursing?

Answers

Florence Nightingale
Answer: Florence Nightingale!

Explanation: I hope that helps!! Have a great day :D

what is the difference between a threshold dose-response curve and a non-threshold dose-response curve

Answers

Threshold response curve is a point at which a biologic response occurs, so this implies that there is a "safe" amount of dose to be delivered. It starts at a point greater than "0" on the graph.

Non-threshold response curve is described as any radiation exposure can be harmful and cause a response in the body. It implies that there is no safe level of exposure. It starts at "0" on the graph.

Why does John use a phr instead of one from his provider

Answers

Answer:

because he has high iQ

Explanation:

The health educator uses ________________ to monitor student progress toward objectives and to modify instruction.

Answers

Answer:

formative assessment 

Explanation:

Q.162.A 10 years old girl presented with fever and bruises for last 2 weeks. On examination she is pale; however there is no evidence of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. Her Hb is 6g/dl, TLC is 2700 and platelets are 90000. The most appropriate investigation to clinch the diagnosis is:
a)Bone marrow aspiration
b)Retics count
c)Bleeding time
d)PT and APTT
e)Factor VIII assay

Answers

Answer:

In a bone marrow aspiration, a health care provider uses a thin needle to remove a small amount of liquid bone marrow, usually from a spot in the back of your hipbone (pelvis).

A normal PT with an abnormal aPTT means that the defect lies within the intrinsic pathway, and a deficiency of factor VIII, IX, X, or XIII is suggested. A normal aPTT with an abnormal PT means that the defect lies within the extrinsic pathway and suggests a possible factor VII deficiency

Bleeding time is a medical test done on someone to assess their platelets function. It involves making a patient bleed, then timing how long it takes for them to stop bleeding using a stopwatch or other suitable devices.

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