A contentious condition known as dissociative identity disorder is characterized by the apparent existence of two or more different identities, each with a distinct name and characteristics, within a single .
What kind of identity problem is dissociative?The daily routines of those who have dissociative identity disorder are occasionally interrupted by voices, identities, or memories. For instance, at work, an irate identity can yell at a subordinate or manager without warning.
Does someone have DID without realizing it?When a person with DID initially seeks professional assistance, they are typically unaware of their disease. Episodes of forgetfulness, or time loss, are a relatively common complaint among DID patients. These people might not be able to recall anything from the past, either completely or in part.
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when a phlebotomist does not wear gloves during contact with a patient, which link in the chain of infection does this represent?
A phlebotomist not wearing gloves can become contaminated from an infectious patient and be the mode of transmission of the infection to his or herself or to another patient.
Phlebotomy is the procedure of inserting a cannula into a vein, often in the arm, in order to extract blood. Venipuncture, the term for the process, is also used to describe intravenous treatment. Phlebotomists are those who do phlebotomies, while most doctors, nurses, and other technologists can also conduct phlebotomies. Phlebectomy, on the other hand, entails the removal of a vein.
Phlebotomies used to treat certain blood problems are referred to as therapeutic phlebotomies.
In therapeutic phlebotomy, an adult will typically have 1 unit (450–500 ml) of whole blood taken from them weekly to sometimes every few months, depending on the necessity.
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contraction of the external intercostal muscles causes which of the following to occur?
O the diaphragm moves downward. O the rib cage is compressed.
O the thoracic cavity volume decreases. O the ribs and sternum move upward.
The sternum and ribs rise when the external intercostal muscle contracts. This is in line with answer option "D." The rib cage enlarges as a result.
These muscles typically contract and raise the rib cage during breathing. Your lungs start to fill with air as your chest opens up. Air pressure inside your chest is lessened, which leads to intercostal retractions. When these muscles are contracted, the rib cage is raised upward and outward, which helps to expand the thoracic cavity and lower lung pressure, which causes air to move from the air into the lungs.
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Antisocial Personality Disorder
A person who continuously disregards right and wrong and the rights and sentiments of others is said to have antisocial personality disorder, often known as sociopathy.
Antisocial personalities have a propensity to manipulate, provoke, or treat people cruelly or with callous indifference.They don't display any regret or guilt for their actions.People with antisocial personality disorder frequently break the law and turn into criminals. They could be dishonest, act angrily or rashly, and struggle with drug and alcohol abuse. Due to these traits, individuals with this disease frequently fail to fulfil obligations to their families, employers, or educational institutions. Signs and symptoms of antisocial personality disorder might include: ignore what is good and wrong. ongoing deception or lying to take advantage of others being cynical, harsh, and contemptuous to other people.
complete question :
explain about Antisocial Personality Disorder
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Medical Melodrama
Click the root words in the story to highlight them.
It was supposed to be a great day for Mary. She was on her way to get a
manicure and a pedicure. She had not gone in a while on account of her
arthritis, but today, for now, she was feeling better. There was a time when
her fingers were swollen so bad that they looked like sausages. The doctor
called the condition dactylitis. A few months ago, she had been working
long hours on the computer and developed a condition called carpoptosis,
which is also called wrist dropping, but that too had gotten better. Find the root word
The root words in this Medical Melodrama story are: Manicure, Pedicure, Arthritis, Dactylitis, Carpoptosis.
What Medical Melodrama ?Melodrama, broadly speaking, is a genre of storytelling in which the overly dramatic scenario is intended to appeal to viewers' emotions, sometimes at the expense of the characters.
Whether or not viewers have a career in the medical field, medical melodramas play a vital role in their lives as TV viewers.
Hence, Melodrama is a type of theatrical work in which characters, events, and storyline are exaggerated in order to evoke powerful emotional responses.
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What are the 3 types of prescriptions?
Answer:
Opioids, CNS Depressants, Stimulants
Explanation:
A charge nurse is reviewing techniques for a safe administration of medication to children with newly licensed nurse. which state should the nurse make?
Confirming chemotherapy medicine dosage using a body surface area nomogram is the statement the nurse should make.
To guarantee safe drug administration of high-risk medications, such as chemotherapy, the nurse should utilize a nomogram to determine the body surface area of the kid.
Chemotherapy medications come in a wide variety. Chemotherapy can cause a variety of adverse effects, including exhaustion, fever, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The fluid and electrolyte balance in the body can be negatively impacted by vomiting and diarrhea. The serum potassium level may decrease as a result.
Weakness, cramps, paralysis, twitches, an irregular heart rhythm, etc. might result from a low potassium level in the body. A serum potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L indicates a chemotherapy-induced problem because the normal range for blood potassium is 3.6 to 5.2 millimoles per liter.
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There are four requirements to becoming a qualified nursing assistant who can receive a delegation. Write the correct words in "c" and "d" below.
a. Be either a NA-R or NA-C in the state of Washington.
b. Have completed the education requirements for delegation.
c. Be willing to perform the
) to be delegated.
d. Demonstrate
to perform the specific tasks correctly without direct
supervision of the delegating RN.
Be willing to perform the specific task to be delegated. Demonstrate to the delegating RN your competence to perform the specific task correctly without direct supervision of delegating RN.
What is delegation?Delegation typically entails giving responsibility for the outcome while assigning non-licensed assistance people to execute activities or tasks linked to patient care. Making nursing decisions is a responsibility that can only be assigned by a qualified nurse.
The main advantage of delegation in nursing is that it enables a skilled healthcare professional, such as an RN, to delegate regular and low-risk tasks to nursing support staff.
A nursing assistant must fulfil the following four qualifications in order to be qualified to accept a delegation:
In the state of Washington, be a NA-R or NA-C.Fulfill the educational prerequisites for delegation.Be prepared to carry out the assigned assignment.Exhibit proper performance of assigned responsibilities by the delegating RN without direct supervision from the delegating RN.Thus, these are the four requirements to becoming a qualified nursing assistant who can receive a delegation.
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Chronic conditions belong here
PMHx Chronic diseases belong here.
The patient’s age, gender, the most relevant previous medical history, as well as the main symptom(s) and duration, is known as the patient’s past medical history (PMHx). If the patient appropriately conveys the reason for the presentation, this statement should wherever possible identify the important issue from the patient’s perspective and incorporate the patient’s words. A medical history typically entails questions about a patient’s past medical conditions, previous surgeries, family medical history, social history, allergies, and drugs they are currently taking or may have recently stopped taking.
The terms refer to the written (paper notes), physical (image films), and digital records for each individual patient as well as the information contained in them.
Personal health records (PHR), which are kept by patients themselves and frequently on third-party websites, have replaced the conventional practice of keeping medical records by health care professionals, thanks to developments in online data storage. The American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA) and US national health administration organizations both embrace this idea.
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Marvin is a medical technician who administers stress tests. He has a low tolerance for ambiguity and is oriented toward task and technical concerns when making decisions. The ________ style is well suited for this position
Marvin is a medical technician who administers stress tests. He has a low tolerance for ambiguity and is oriented toward task and technical concerns when making decisions. The Directive style is well suited for this position.
Who is a medical technician?
Medical technicians are medical professionals who play a key role in the healthcare industry by supporting doctors and hospitals. They test blood in the lab or test body fluids ranging from sweat to tissue samples to help doctors make informed decisions about treatment plans.
The medical technician's responsibilities include testing blood samples, organizing them correctly according to standards, and producing accurate reports of testing.
Finally, collect and prepare samples for analysis. They may also be asked to test them using a variety of methods such as staining tests and other diagnostic equipment to ensure accurate results from the beginning of the testing process.
Marvin is a medical technician who administers stress tests. He has a low tolerance for ambiguity and is oriented toward task and technical concerns when making decisions. The Directive style is well suited for this position.
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Marvin is a clinical expert who manages pressure tests. He has a low capacity to bear uncertainty and is situated toward undertaking and specialized concerns while simply deciding. The Mandate style is appropriate for this position.
Who is a medical technician?Clinical experts are clinical experts who assume a key part in the medical care industry by supporting specialists and medical clinics. They test blood in the lab or test body liquids going from sweat to tissue tests to assist specialists with settling on informed conclusions about treatment plans.
The clinical expert's liabilities incorporate testing blood tests, arranging them accurately as per norms, and delivering exact reports of testing.
At long last, gather and plan tests for investigation. They may likewise be approached to test them utilizing different techniques, for example, staining tests and other indicative hardware to guarantee exact outcomes from the start of the testing system.
Marvin is a clinical specialist who manages pressure tests. He has a low capacity to bear vagueness and is situated toward undertaking and specialized concerns while simply deciding. The Mandate style is appropriate for this position.
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Cyanide is historically found in the following EXCEPT:
Cyanide is historically found in the following except A) Teflon.
Where is Cyanide found?Low concentrations of cyanides can be found in nature and in goods that we frequently use and consume. Certain bacteria, fungus, and algae can generate cyanides. Additionally, cyanides can be found in things like tapioca, spinach, bamboo shoots, almonds, lima beans, fruit pits, and car exhaust.
It is utilized in many different things, such as clothes, personal care items, cooking, and manufacturing. Its greatest adaptability lies in the fact that it may be applied to nearly anything without affecting the quality or form of the coated object.
Therefore, Cyanide is a chemical that has a quick onset of action and has the potential to be fatal. Cyanide comes in two different forms: crystals like sodium cyanide or colorless gases like hydrogen cyanide (HCN) or cyanogen chloride (CNCl) (NaCN)
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See options below
Cyanide is historically found in the following except
A) Teflon
B) Cherries
C) Apricots
D) All of the above
In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.
Select one:
A. patient-assisted
B. peer-assisted
C. EMT-administered
D. paramedic-administered
A client who is at 20-weeks' gestation visits the prenatal clinic for the first time. Assessment reveals temperature of 98.8° F (37.1° C), pulse of 80 beats per minute, blood pressure of 128/80 mm Hg, weight of 142 lb (64.4 kg) (pre-pregnancy weight was 132 lb (59.9 kg), fetal heart rate (FHR) of 140 beats per minute, urine that is negative for protein, and fasting blood glucose level of 92 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L). What should the nurse do after making these assessments?
Report the findings because the client needs immediate intervention.
Document the results because they are expected at 20-weeks' gestation.
Record the findings in the medical record because they are not within the norm but are not critical.
Prepare the client for an emergency admission because these findings may represent jeopardy to the client and fetus.
Because the results are anticipated at 20 weeks of gestation, note the findings. Justification: All of the information supplied is appropriate for a client who is 20 weeks pregnant and has to be documented.
What involves nursing research?Nursing is a basic science, much like biology. Biology is the study of life, whereas nursing science explores nursing principles and practices. You might be curious as to what sets nursing apart from nursing science. Nursing science provides the scientific underpinnings for professional nursing practice.
Can a nurse actually conduct surgery?Nurses cannot do surgical procedures on their own. Nurses are capable of carrying out a wide range of responsibilities before to, during, and after surgical procedures. Consider pursuing more education or training to help you obtain the career you desire the most.
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Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. diet and exercise.
B. tolbutamide (Orinase).
C. glyburide (Micronase).
D. supplemental insulin.
Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT D. supplemental insulin.
There's no cure for type 2 diabetes, however losing weight, ingestion well and physical exercise will assist you manage the illness. If diet and exercise are not enough to manage your blood glucose, you'll additionally would like diabetes medications or insulin.
Addition of supplemental insulin to a basal-bolus endocrine program in type 2 diabetes might improve glycemic management however might increase treatment burden with further endocrine dose calculations/injections and is related to the 16–40% of induced hypoglycaemia seen in studies with use of basal-bolus endocrine regimens.
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taking responsibility for your health care includes all of the following except group of answer choices learning how to navigate the health care system. using over-the-counter medications to treat a sudden, serious illness. being knowledgeable about the benefits and limits of self-care. checking a health care providers education, training, and credentials.
Using over-the-counter drugs to treat an unexpected, severe sickness All of the following, with one exception, are part of your health care.
What does health care mean?By preventing, diagnosing, treating, minimizing, or curing disease, illness, disability, and other mental and physical ailments in humans, health care, often known as healthcare, aims to enhance people's overall well-being.
Why is healthcare essential?The quality of life is enhanced and illnesses are prevented through high-quality healthcare. The goal of Healthy People 2030 is to ensure that everyone has access to the healthcare they require while also raising the standard of treatment. Health and wellbeing may be enhanced by aiding medical professionals in their communication.
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What is the purpose of Safety Reminder Devices (Restraints) and list steps the nurse must take prior to using them and during the use of them?
Safety reminder device (SRD) is a device that is used to block the movement of one or many parts of the patient's body such as legs and hands.
What are the functions of safety reminder devices?A safety reminder device is defined as any of the numerous devices you for mobilize the patient or part of the patient's body such as arms or hands.
The use of SRDs can also result in increased restlessness, disorientation, agitation, anxiety, and a feeling of powerlessness. Documentation about the need for the SRDs, the type of device used, and the patient response is crucial.
The use of SRDs can also result in increased restlessness, disorientation, agitation, anxiety, and a feeling of powerlessness. Documentation about the need for the SRDs, the type of device used, and the patient response is crucial.
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All death-row inmates are held in ________ prisons.
Inmates on death row are all housed in maximum security facilities.
People who have been found guilty of a crime and had their freedom stolen from them are detained in prisons after being remanded (detained) in custody by a court. A felony or misdemeanor conviction could result in a prison sentence being imposed on the offender. These people make up the majority of the prison population in several countries. Holding suspects until the trial is still a crucial purpose of modern prisons. Pretrial detainees make up more than two-thirds of the jail population in India, compared to the United Kingdom, where roughly one-fifth of those incarcerated are typically not found guilty or not sentenced. The jail was increasingly used by courts as a location of punishment as the usage of the death penalty started to wane in the late 18th century, and finally, it became the primary method of punishing major offenders.
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Arise when a company provides goods or services on credit;
Arise when a business offers products or services on debt; costs due to your group, broken down by age and financial class is accounts receivable.
What is services on credit provides by company?Accountable party is the person who is accountable for any unpaid private pay; any sum that remains once insurance has made its contribution.Receivables Accounts is money due to your organization broken down by financial class (such as Private Pay, Medicare, Blue Shield, Commercial, etc.) and by age that arises when a business delivers goods or services on credit (e.g., 30 days old or even less old, 31 days or older, etc.)Collecting patient balances is the process called patient collections.The grouping of accounts based on how much time has passed since the billing cycle or due date by aging.Learn more about the Patient credit refer to
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Which person has the greatest risk for accidents and injuries?
A. An 78-year old man
B. A person with dementia
C. A person with a hearing impairment
D. A person with impaired smell and touch
The person who has the greatest risk for accidents and injuries is the person with dementia who is present in Option B, as the dementia patient is more likely to be affected by this.
What are the risks of dementia?Dementia is a general term used to describe a decline in cognitive function, including memory, and is generally seen in older adults and people over the age of 60 or 65, some medical complications and genetics also contribute to this factor and can be avoided by leading a healthy lifestyle, engaging in physical activity, eating a healthy diet, etc.
Hence, the person who has the greatest risk for accidents and injuries is the person with dementia who is present in Option B, as the dementia patient is more likely to be affected by this.
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chromium deficiency is characterized by a. hypoglycemia. b. hyperparathyroidism. c. hyperglycemia. d. hypertension. e. weight loss.
Answer:
aswer is C
Explanation:
i think and hope it is true
2. ICD-10-CM codes can have up to characters. A(n) "x" is used to fill in for positions that don't have characters. 3. The SOAP notes system of documentation divides the information into what four areas? a. b. c. d. 4. To prepare for medical coding, the coder must analyze the patient's health record and the diagnostic statement 7. Match the following terms. Main terms a. These terms are indented under the main term; they Nonessential modifier change the description of the diagnosis in bold type Subterms b. Appear in bold Essential modifier c. Are found after the main term and are enclosed in parentheses d. Indented under the essential modifie 8. Information pertinent to code selection can be abstracted from a variety of medical documents. List the documents where the diagnostic statement may be found. 9. The physical assessment of the patient. is the provider's health history evaluation and 10. The describes why the person is seekign medical attention. is a statement in the patient's own words that 11. The is used for extracting procedure an diagnostic information for patients who underwent surgery.
Codes may be 3,4,5,6 or upto 7 characters.Hence the , ICD cm 10 codes have up to 7 characters is the answer
The ICD-10-CM utilizes a placeholder character"X" at certain codes for allow for future expansion. Hence, A placeholder Character is the correct answer
What is ICD-10?The World Health Organization approved the ICD-10 Clinical Modification, a modification of the ICD-10 that is used in the United States of America as a source for diagnosis codes.
It is a system used by doctors and other healthcare professionals in the United States to categorize and code all diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures recorded in connection with hospital care. The 4 headings of SOAP notes are Subjective, Objective, Assessment and Plan
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hich of the following signs or symptoms are more common in children than in adults following an isolated head injury?
Nausea and vomiting are more common in children than in adults following an isolated head injury.
Children with isolated head injury and vomiting are veritably doubtful to have intracranial injuries. Unless nonaccidental trauma is suspected, vomiting alone shouldn't instigate head imaging. These children should be observed until they're suitable to tolerate oral input and the treating clinician feels comfortable that the patient is stable without additional symptoms of head injury.
An injury to the cerebellum or inner ear can generate balance and dizziness problems, which can spark vomiting in some people. Migraines. Some head injuries bring about severe headaches or migraines, which again can activate vomiting.
Vomiting – roughly 10 percent of children adolescents have at least one occasion of vomiting after a head injury. Children who heave after a head injury don't inevitably have a serious brain injury. Seizures – lower than one percent of children adolescents have a seizure instantaneously after a head injury.
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When conducting an adolescent drug awareness program, the nurse describes which of the following drugs as having the highest addiction potential?
a) Marijuana and nicotine
b) Heroin and morphine
c) Cocaine and codeine
d) Amphetamines and barbiturates
When conducting an adolescent drug awareness program, the nurse describes b) Heroin and morphine drugs as having the highest addiction potential.
Morphine is a sturdy narcotic that's found naturally in controlled substance, a dark brown rosin in poppies. It's chiefly used as a pain medication, and is additionally ordinarily used recreationally, or to create different illicit opioids.
Heroin is a substance made up of morphine. Diacetylmorphine is extremely habit-forming, and it's contraband to use or sell it within the U. S.. It's going to be used outside the U. S. to treat severe pain. diacetylmorphine binds to opioid receptors within the central systema nervosum.
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Question 16 of 60 Nursing considerations for the administration of ziv-aflibercept include:
A. evaluating for dermatologic conditions prior to treatment B. restarting the dose after proteinuria is less than 2g/24 hours. C. withholding the doses for hypotensive events D. administering the agent over an hour using a 0 2 nylon filter Flag for Review
A chemotherapeutic medication is called ziv-aflibercept. It functions by reducing or halting the development of cancer cells. Certain forms of colon cancer are treated with it in conjunction with other medications. Thus option B is correct.
What administration of ziv-aflibercept include?It is administered to people who have previously received unsuccessful treatment for cancer with other drugs. Ziv-aflibercept functions by altering the flow of blood to the tumor. Only your doctor or someone working directly with him or her should administer this medication.
Therefore, restarting the dose after proteinuria is less than 2g/24 hours.
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Marty has hemochromatosis. Which of the following supplements should he avoid takiing?
A- vitamin D
B- Vitamin B-12
C- Caclcium
D- Iron
Haemochromatosis affects Marty. He shouldn't use iron supplements.The diagnosis of hemochromatosis might be challenging.
Early signs like weariness and tight joints might be caused by anything other than hemochromatosis. With the exception of elevated iron levels in their blood, many patients with the disease exhibit neither symptoms nor signs. Medications and therapeutic phlebotomy, a procedure that draws blood from the body, are used to treat hemochromatosis. There are some foods that may be advantageous for those with hemochromatosis, however there are no official dietary recommendations for this condition. Any wholesome diet must include fruits and vegetables. Hemochromatosis, also known as hereditary hemochromatosis, is an inherited disorder that results in an excessive absorpt.
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please diagram components of a pressure monitoring system and...
please diagram components of a pressure monitoring system and examine the role of nursing in ensuring accuracy of pressure waveforms and readings.
You can create infographic, hand-draw, or use Word for this assignment.
Waveform monitor and vectorscope and it is generally used for measuring as well as displaying the level or the voltage, of a video signal concerning the time.
What is waveform monitor?The waveform monitor can be applied for displaying the overall brightness of the TV picture as well as it can zoom in for showing one or two video signals individual lines.
The vectorscope is a special kind of oscilloscope that is being used for video or audio applications. The waveform monitor or the oscilloscope generally displays a signal plot wrt time, and the vectorscope shows an X-Y plot for the two signals, that can bring to light the details about the relationship in between those signals.
Therefore, Waveform monitor and vectorscope and it is generally used for measuring as well as displaying the level or the voltage, of a video signal concerning the time.
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histological examination of some brain tissue reveals the presence of several large, highly branched Purkinje cells. This sample of tissue must have come from the _______.
If the histological examination of the brain tissue has several large and highly branched Purkinje cells, the sample of tissue must have come from the cerebellar cortex.
Histology means the study of the microscopic structure of the tissues. A histological examination of the brain means the study of the brain tissues. So when a histological examination of the brain tissues was conducted, Purkinje cells that were large and highly branched were found. Purkinje cells are unique and are specific to the cerebellar cortex of the brain itself. These cells have a highly branched-tree-like structure and are easily identifiable. The functions of these cells are to integrate a large amount of information. These cells are also responsible for motor control and learning. Therefore, these cells are crucial for well-coordinated movement and cognition.
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After the aed has delivered a shock, the emt should?
The emt should start performing CPR as soon as the aed has administered a shock.
Following the shock from the AED, the EMT should: -check for a carotid pulse. -start CPR again right away. -reexamine the heart rhythm. More:The EMT should check for a carotid pulse after the AED has administered a shock. -resume CPR right away; reevaluate the heart rhythm. When an AED is used on a person, they are sent to the hospital for further care. As soon as EMS arrives, stay with them. Start doing CPR if the patient is still not breathing and not responding. A metronome built inside the AED will give the ideal tempo for your chest compressions.
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which of the following are steps that a lactating woman can take to reduce contaminants entering breastmilk? select all that apply.
A lactating woman can reduce contaminants in breastmilk by washing and peeling fruits and vegetables and avoiding freshwater fish from contaminated waters.
Lactation is indeed the process by which human milk is produced. Human milk is produced by ones mammary glands, which arise found in your breasts. Lactation is caused by hormones and naturally occurs in pregnant women. It may also be influenced in non-pregnant women.
To store expressed breast milk, use lactation storage bags as well as clean, food-grade containers. Make certain that the containers have been managed to make of plastic or glass and that the lids are securely fastened.
Bottles with recycling symbol number 7, that also indicates that container may be made of the a BPA-containing plastic, should be avoided.
Never hold breast milk in non-breast milk-specific disposable beverage liners or carrier containers.
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For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use:
A. shared training.
B. common goals.
C. common language
D. metric- sized tools.
It's crucial that EMTs and hospital personnel utilize common language when handing off patients.
In today's healthcare, patient handoffs are crucial. Despite being one of the most crucial and least studied and taught facets of patient care and safety The following should be part of a protocol that directs the handoff process: interacting with others a few brief pauses a method for making sure. a chance to go through any pertinent old data. Patient transfers: Collaboration will enhance team dynamics and hospital culture. A specialist describes the ideal patient handoff procedures. The act of communicating patient information is referred to as "signout," and the process of handing off responsibility for care is known as the "handoff."
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The pons is involved in all of the following EXCEPT __________.
- control of food intake
- respiration
- connections to cerebellum
- automatically processes incoming sensations
The pons is involved in all of the following except control of food intake.
The pons is really a part of ones forebrain, which connects your brain to ones spinal cord. It is in charge of unconscious processes as well as jobs like your sleep-wake cycle but also breathing. It also has several junction points for nerves that regulate muscles and carry information from your head and face's senses.
It has an effect on your sleep cycle. When you wake up, your pons determines the level of alertness in your body. It controls pain signals. Ones pons is responsible for relaying and regulating pain signals from any part of ones body below ones neck. It interacts with other parts of the brain. Your pons is a vital link between your brain and your cerebellum, which is in charge of balance and movement. It also collaborates with the other parts of ones brainstem that control your breathing.
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