The correct option (b) Only a subset of neurotransmitters will be released.
The process by which signaling chemicals known as neurotransmitters are produced by the axon terminal of one neuron (the presynaptic neuron) and bind to and respond with receptors on the dendrites of another neuron (the postsynaptic neuron) a short distance away is known as neurotransmission.
In retrograde neurotransmission, the dendrites of the postsynaptic neuron release retrograde neurotransmitters (e.g., endocannabinoids; synthesized in response to an increase in intracellular calcium levels) that signal through receptors on the presynaptic neuron's axon terminal, primarily at GABAergic and glutamatergic synapses.
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Which former 49ers of has the second most wins in Seahawks history
Answer:
Jesse Sapolu
Explanation:
Jesse Sapolu has the 2nd highest wins out of the former 49ers with 136 wins. The former 49er who had the highest amount of wins was Jerry Rice with 167 wins.
Jesse Sapolu even has the 2nd most games played out of the former 49ers with 182 games. In addition, Jerry Rice played in 249 games, the highest number of games a former 49er has played in.
Hence, the more games a player played, the more wins he has.
Jesse Sapolu former 49ers of has the second most wins in Seahawks history.
Who is Jesse Sapolu?Manse Jesse Sapolu is famous for being a Samoan former American football player in the National Football League, who played both center and offensive guard who played his entire career for the San Francisco 49ers. Sapolu attended Farrington High School in Honolulu and the University of Hawaii.
Jesse Sapolu has the second most wins out of former 49ers with 136 wins, where the former 49er with the most wins was Jerry Rice with 167 wins. Jesse Sapolu also has the second most games played out of a former 49ers with 182 games.
Thus, Jesse Sapolu former 49ers of has the second most wins in Seahawks history.
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How should records related to a workplace injury be maintained?
Answer:
The records must be maintained at the worksite for at least five years. Each February through April, employers must post a summary of the injuries and illnesses recorded the previous year. Also, if requested, copies of the records must be provided to current and former employees, or their representatives.
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Which of the following statements highlights the idea that mental illness can be socially constructed?
group of answer choices
O mental illness is clearly definable using the latest dsm produced by the american psychiatric association.
O an individual can determine for themselves if they have a mental illness.
O the meanings and definitions of mental illness vary over time and place.
O an individual with a mental illness may not show external signs
Option C: the meanings and definitions of mental illness vary over time and place of the following statements highlights the idea that mental illness can be socially constructed.
Conditions involving emotional, cognitive, or behavioural abnormalities are known as mental disorders. Distress and/or difficulties with social, occupational, or familial functioning can be symptoms of mental diseases.
Regardless of age, gender, location, money, social standing, race, ethnicity, religion, sexual orientation, family history, or any other facet of cultural identity, anyone can be affected by mental illness.
Although mental illness can strike anyone at any age, three-quarters of all cases start before the age of 24. Multiple forms of mental illness exist. Some, like some phobias, are modest and only minimally impact daily living. Other mental health issues can be so serious that a patient needs inpatient care. The best methods of treatment, like those for other medical conditions, depend on the ailment and how severely it affects the patient.
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T/F for sport organizations, media relations and community relations are essentially interchangeable terms.
FALSE For sporting organizations, community relations and media relations are practically the same thing.
In sports, what exactly is an organization?The term "sports organization" refers to any non-profit business, club, federation, union, club, or other or ga nis at ion registered in the United States that promotes or plans any athletics competition. offer a venue for discipline training and help employees stay close to one another. Employees are pushed outside of their comfort zones through sports, which also adds a sense of enjoyment to the pressures of the workplace. The value of self-control, tolerance, and collaboration is taught through friendly rivalry in sports.
What three kinds of organizations are there?Numerous legal entities exist, including businesses, governments, non-governmental groups, political groups, international organizations, armed forces, nonprofits, partnerships, unions, and educational institutions, among others.
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People in the military who hurt people because they are instructed to can be considered as psychopaths, but it still depends on the instruction. T/F
True. People in the military who hurt people because they are instructed to can be considered as psychopaths, but it still depends on the instruction.
People in the military who harm others because they are ordered to do so may be labeled psychopaths, however this depends on the instruction. If the directive is critical to the task or they are disciplining the adversaries, the military men may determine that they are acting in the best interests of their work and nation. However, if members of the military intentionally damage and murder others for no reason, they will be labeled as psychopaths because this is a natural trait of a psychopath. The individual who educates these staff may also be a psychopath since they may like torturing others.
Psychopaths are persons that are overly aggressive and frequently mistreat others as part of their personality or conduct. Psychopaths are diagnosed with Antisocial Personality Disorder in psychiatry (ASDP). It results in a pattern of aggression and manipulation of others around them.
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anorexiants are drugs that:a. suppress appetite. b. treat bedwetting. c. counteract depression. d. none of these is correct.
Anorexiants are drugs that suppress appetite. These are drugs lower the consumption of food by suppressing hunger thus used for treating obesity.
Anorexiants or anorectic drugs have an effect on the satiety center of the hypothalamus. As these drugs help in lowering the consumption of food, they are used to suppress hunger and are used to treat obesity as well. Drugs of this class are related to amphetamines which were used by the German and Finnish militaries to enhance warfare. After the war, these drugs were sold commercially until the late 1950s. However, there are many adverse effects of these drugs as well. These drugs can cause insomnia, nervousness, irritability and restlessness. Irritation of the stomach is another negative effect that is caused due to anorexiants.
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A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a pogt client who was diagnosed with chlamydia. What
three (3) teaching points should be
ad as the care of the client?
It's critical to take all of the chlamydia treatment medicine as directed. You can be prescribed a course of azithromycin to take once day for 3 days or a week's worth of doxycycline to take.
What is azithromycin?Azithromycin is defined as a bacterial-fighting antibiotic. It is used to treat illnesses such as pneumonia and chest infections. infections of the ear, nose, and throat as well as nose conditions including sinusitis.
The patient should receive chlamydia education. Enspire the patient to engage in safe sex. Condom use should be encouraged. Encourage the patient to continue taking his or her meds. Analyze culture results from labs. Give antibiotics as directed.
Thus, it's critical to take all of the chlamydia treatment medicine as directed. You can be prescribed a course of azithromycin to take once day for 3 days or a week's worth of doxycycline to take.
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What could you do to facilitate the examination and improve communication with Sara?
What possible problems could Sara be experiencing?
What should you do about the concerns that you have for Sara?
It is important to approach the situation with sensitivity and respect for Sara's feelings and concerns. Here are some suggestions for how you might facilitate the examination and improve communication with Sara:
Establish rapport: Start by introducing yourself and explaining the purpose of the physical exam. Let Sara know that you are there to help and that you want to make sure she is healthy and doing well. Ask if she has any questions or concerns before you start the exam.Address her mood: It's possible that Sara is feeling anxious, stressed, or upset about something. Acknowledge her mood and ask if there is anything she would like to talk about. Let her know that you are there to listen and support her.What are other way to improve communication with Sara?They are:
Involve her in the process: Ask Sara for her input and let her know that her feelings and preferences matter. Use open-ended questions: Avoid yes/no questions and instead ask open-ended questions that allow Sara to express herself. Provide breaks: If Sara seems overwhelmed or unwilling to continue, it may be helpful to take a break and come back to the exam at a later time.As for possible problems Sara could be experiencing, it's important to consider a wide range of possibilities.
Therefore, If you have concerns about Sara's health or well-being, it is important to follow up and address those concerns. This may involve making a referral to a specialist or mental health professional, or providing her with additional support and resources as needed.
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Sara, a 14-year-old, has come to the office for her school physical. She is very remote, moody, and unwilling to answer any questions you ask her as part of her physical exam. She seems to have changed a great deal in the past year, and is thinner, more unkempt, and lethargic. You notice also that her mother is constantly badgering her and rolling her eyes in exasperation at her lack of cooperation.
What could you do to facilitate the examination and improve communication with Sara?
What possible problems could Sara be experiencing?
What should you do about the concerns that you have for Sara?
____ is characterized by acute confusion and disorientation, whereas ____ is marked by deterioration in a broad range of cognitive abilities.
A. delirium, amnesia
B. amnesia, delirium
C. major neurocognitive disorder, delirium
D. delirium, major neurocognitive disorder
Delirium (d) is characterized by acute confusion and disorientation, whereas major neurocognitive disorder (d) is marked by deterioration in a broad range of cognitive abilities.
A significant decline in mental capacity is delirium. As a result, one's brain becomes clouded and they become unaware of their surroundings. Within a few days or hours, the disease typically develops quickly.
Delirium can frequently be linked to one or more causes. A severe or protracted sickness or an internal imbalance like insufficient salt are examples of factors. Infection, surgery, certain medications, alcohol or drug use or withdrawal are some potential causes of the illness.
Delirium symptoms can also be mistaken for dementia signs. In order to identify the disorder, health care professionals may use feedback from a family member or caregiver.
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You and your partner are performing CPR on a 2-year-old female in cardiac arrest. During your resuscitation attempt, you should:
Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth that is equal to one third the diameter of the chest throughout your effort at CPR on a 2-year-old female cardiac arrest resuscitation.
How much CPR should two rescuers perform on an unconscious 4-year-old?When giving rescue breaths, rescuers should halt compressions until an advanced airway is in place. A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 is advised for two-rescuer CPR performed by medical professionals.
How do you administer CPR to a baby?In the baby's chest's middle, place two fingers. Compress data at a rate of 2 compressions per second for 30 times. Every compression should lower the chest by around a third. To prevent the baby's chin from drooping, hold their head up.
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Suppose after a high-smog alert day in your city, a 5-year-old child with asthma, a 50-year-old male smoker with emphysema, and a 75-year-old of average health all come to the emergency room complaining of a cough and chest pain.
Which patientâs health would you be the most concerned about and why?
How do breathed-in air pollutants, such as smoke or asbestos, interfere with or worsen the respiration process in each of these scenarios?
If Due to Air pollution a 5-year-old child with asthma, a 50-year-old male smoker with emphysema, and a 75-year-old all come to the emergency room complaining then I would be the most concerned about a 5-year-old child with asthma due to given reasons.
How does air pollution affect children with asthma?Children with asthma are affected by air pollution in the same way that they are by other causes. They aggravate the airways, causing them to enlarge and constrict, which makes breathing difficult.Does pollution cause asthma in children?Asthma can be brought on by high air pollution levels in both children and adults, according to research. Children who live in high-pollution areas are more at danger.
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which of the following is correct for an athlete who is exercising at a steady pace on flat terrain for a prolonged period of time?a. pulmonary vein has higher oxygen and lower carbon dioxide
b. a decrease in capillarization around muscle tissue
c. stroke volume gradually decreases and sub maximal heart rate gradually increases
d. on the arterial walls during ventricular contraction
Sub-maximal heart rate gradually rises as stroke volume gradually declines. a long stretch of time spent moving at a constant speed on flat ground.
Simply put, why is exercise important?People who exercise are more likely to maintain a healthy weight and have fewer disease risks. Moderate exercise can prevent off diabetes type 2 heart disease, high blood pressure, or body weight. Exercises that build bone strength, such as leaping, running, or lifting weights, can support bone health.
Describe an exercise example.Examples include jogging, swimming, riding, and fast strolling. Exercises for strength, often known as resistance training, make your muscles stronger. Lifting weights and utilizing a resistance band are a couple of examples.
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Not looking after something or someone properly is known as:
A. Neglect
B. Abuse
C. Emotional abuse
D. Psychological aggression
Answer:
A. Neglect
Explanation:
What factors prompt individuals to become violent?
A. Stress
B. Frustration
C. Intoxication
D. Certain medical conditions
Answer:
All of the above
Explanation:
Of course, it depends on the level of each factor, but all options can prompt an individual to become violent.
Which of the following is NOT true about smoking?
A. Nicotine gives the user a mild rush of pleasure and energy.
B. E-cigarette vapor contains carcinogens and toxins.
OC. E-cigarettes are a FDA approved smoking cessation aid.
D. Smoking increases the risk of heart attack.
Answer: C. E-cigarettes are a FDA approved smoking cessation aid.
Explanation:
This is not true because the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has not approved e-cigarettes as a smoking cessation aid. While e-cigarettes may be marketed as a less harmful alternative to traditional cigarettes, there is limited evidence to support their effectiveness as a smoking cessation aid, and their safety and long-term health effects are not well understood.
Someone who has the "to please disease": Might have trouble saying no for fear of someone else not liking them Will agree to do things even though they don't want to and then feel angry and frustrated Has trouble setting boundaries All of the above
Answer:
all the above
Explanation:
eqch person is different but for most part person with "to please disease" have all the above because they fear rejection and letting someone down and can also cause anxiety
In a patient with a penetrating injury, why is it difficult to estimate the extent of tissue damage?
In penetrating injury, when a foreign object pierces the skin and enters the body creating a wound. That is why it is difficult to estimate the extent of tissue damage.
What do you mean by tissue damage?
Soft tissue injuries (STI) are when trauma or overuse occurs to muscles, tendons or ligaments. Most soft tissue injuries are the result of a sudden unexpected or uncontrolled movement like stepping awkwardly.
Treatment involves healing the inflamed area with rest, compression, elevation, and anti-inflammatory medicine. Ice may be used in the acute phase of injury.
Most soft tissue injuries heal without any problems in about six weeks. However, it may take a few months for your symptoms to settle – these can include pain or discomfort, stiffness, decreased strength, and swelling.
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african sleeping sickness is caused by the protist trypanosoma brucei. the protist is carried by the tsetse fly to humans. the tsetse fly is a .
A protozoan called Trypanosoma brucei. Tsetse flies transmit the protist from them to humans. A vector is the tsetse fly.
What do the terms "illness" and "sickness" mean?Ailment that affects both the physical and the psyche is referred to as a "illness." Any condition that isn't necessarily a medical issue is referred to be a disease. It also involves experiencing some degree of discomfort.
How many different diseases exist?There are four primary categories of disease: physiological illnesses, hereditary diseases (covering both genetic disorders and non-genetic hereditary diseases), deficient diseases, and infectious diseases. Another approach to categorize illnesses is according to whether they are contagious or not.
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Select the correct answer. What is a good way to improve your coordination? A. Practice a skill over and over again B. Lift heavy things C. Stretch your muscles D. Stand on one foot
Answer:
I'm pretty sure its A
Explanation:
Answer:
the answer is: A. Practice a skill over and over again
Explanation:
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V
(1 point)
15 of 15
V
!!!
Mateo is a medical student learning to take a blood pressure reading. His instructor
shows him how to position the cuff on the patient's arm. He squeezes the bulb to
inflate the cuff. Mateo uses the stethoscope to listen for silence as the brachial artery
is blocked. Then he slowly releases the pressure on the cuff. Mateo begins to hear a
'whooshing' sound as the blood begins to flow through the artery. He makes a note
of the pressure at this point. It is 120. When the whooshing' sound ends, Mateo
takes note that the pressure is now at 76. How should Mateo report these results to
his instructor?
Using two numbers, blood pressure is calculated: Systolic blood pressure is the first number, and it represents the pressure in your arteries when your heart beats.
Explain about the blood pressure?
Medical services in an emergency if you experience chest discomfort, breathlessness, or any other stroke-related symptoms and your blood pressure is 180/120 mm Hg or higher. Symptoms of a stroke can include speech difficulties, vision abnormalities, or tingling or numbness.
The pressure exerted by your blood on the artery walls is known as blood pressure. Blood is pumped into the arteries every time your heart beats. Whenever your heart beats and pumps blood, your blood pressure is at its greatest.
Blood vessels (arteries) that feed blood to the brain can suffer harm from blood pressure of 140/90 or greater. coronary disease. Heart disease is the leading cause of mortality among stroke survivors and the second biggest risk factor for stroke.
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In a well-developed paragraph (5+ sentences), summarize a hospital safety issue. Discuss the potential injuries and the guidelines for preventing injury.
Answer:
A hospital safety issue is the risk of injury to both patients and hospital staff. Common injuries that can occur include slips, trips and falls, overexertion, and needle punctures. To prevent such injuries, hospitals should assess their risk factors and develop plans to reduce them. This includes implementing safety policies, providing staff with appropriate training, and ensuring that all equipment is properly maintained. Additionally, hospital staff should be provided with appropriate safety gear, such as back supports, gloves, and non-slip shoes. Finally, it is important that hospitals track and investigate any injuries that occur so that they can be addressed and prevented in the future.
Explanation:
69) One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the
A) patellar surface of the femur.
B) pubic ramus.
C) coxal bones.
D) distal epiphysis of the femur.
E) neck of the femu
The femur (shin bone), which meets your pelvic bone, can shatter partially or completely in a hip fracture. A doctor needs to be called right away because the damage is serious.
The correct answer is A
Why is it dangerous to have a shattered femur?Adult midshaft femur fractures can result in life-threatening complications and injuries, such as hemorrhage, internal organ damage, wound infection, fat embolism, or adult respiratory distress syndrome.
What happens if your femur breaks?A femur fracture can result in excruciating pain, swelling, soreness, physical deformity, and frequently the inability to walk. In extreme circumstances, surgery may be necessary to guarantee appropriate healing after a femur fracture. Treatment for a femur fracture frequently entails setting or immobilizing the leg.
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People who have schizophrenia have difficulty switching tasks or code switching. This can be seen in: a. Their high scores in the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task b. The hallucinations they have c. Enlarged ventricles in brain imaging d. Hypofrontality in brain imaging
People with schizo who have enlarged ventricles are less responsive to medications as women have been proven less likely to have enlarged ventricles with schizo.
What is volume?Volume in the prefrontal areas of the brain actually decreases, and there are much more severe symptoms do to loss of brain matter.People who have schizophrenia have difficulty switching tasks or code switching.
Their high scores in the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task and The hallucinations they have enlarged ventricles in brain imaging as the Hypofrontality in brain imaging.
Therefore, People with schizo who have enlarged ventricles are less responsive to medications as women have been proven less likely to have enlarged ventricles with schizo.
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FILL IN THE BLANK __________ is the macronutrient bacteria feed on i the mouth, resulting in dental carries.
Carbohydrates is the macronutrient bacteria feed on i the mouth, resulting in dental carries.
How do carbohydrates affect the body?Your body converts carbohydrates you eat into simple sugars that are taken into the bloodstream.The pancreas secretes the hormone insulin as your blood sugar level rises.In order for sugar to be transported from of the blood to the cells, so that it can be utilized as an energy source, insulin is required.
Do carbohydrates cause weight gain?The idea that carbohydrates cause weight gain is the biggest myth of all time.Warning: This sentence contains a spoiler.Carbs don't cause you to gain weight.Not eating enough carbohydrates causes weight gain; rather, consuming too many calories does.
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For this project, we're going to take a closer look at one of your favorite foods to determine what government agency is responsible for inspection and safety of the food.
Compile your findings into a paper of at least 800 words and be sure to include information about your favorite food that you've examined and any surprises you encountered as you researched the food. Your response must include:
· the favorite food that you're examining.
· the government agencies involved in the safety and inspection in each of the food's ingredients.
· a report of at least 800 words about the experience, what you learned, and any surprises that you learned from your project.
Answer: FDA, through its Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN), regulates foods other than the meat, poultry, and egg products regulated by FSIS. FDA is also responsible for the safety of drugs, medical devices, biologics, animal feed and drugs, cosmetics, and radiation emitting devices.
Theresa is a 23-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis who is treated with immunosuppressive therapies. Which of the following vaccines should be avoided for Theresa?
As a general rule, live vaccines should be avoided in patients with altered immunocompetence. Varicella is a live vaccine and is contraindicated.
Treatment that lessens immune system activity in the body. This lessens its resistance to infections and other illnesses including cancer. To prevent a person from rejecting a bone marrow or organ transplant, immunosuppressive treatment may be utilized.
Types of immunosuppressants include:
Biologics such as adalimumab (Humira®) and infliximab (Remicade®).Calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus (Envarsus XR® or Protopic) and cyclosporine (Gengraf®, Neoral® or Sandimmune®).Corticosteroids (prednisone).What drugs are immunosuppressive therapies?Calcineurin Inhibitors: Tacrolimus and Cyclosporine.Antiproliferative agents: Mycophenolate Mofetil, Mycophenolate Sodium and Azathioprine.mTOR inhibitor: Sirolimus.Steroids: Prednisone.Learn more about immunosuppressive therapies to visit this link
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A mistaken identification of persons as healthy o unaffected when, in fact, they have the disease or condition being tested for.
Answer:
False-negative
Explanation:
Men tend to be focused on gaining independence and women are concerned with social relationships. What stage of adulthood does this statement describe?
According to Erikson, the primary crisis of early or young adulthood is _____________.
The medieval code of _____________ is one source of the modern emphasis on romantic love.
Today, approximately _____________ percent of married couples begin their lives in cohabitation.
_____________ is that time in a woman’s life when menstruation ceases.
(Men, Women) are more likely to suffer the impact of the empty nest syndrome.
In late adulthood, a decline in bone mass may lead to a condition called _____________.
According to the _____________ theory, the rate of aging is an inevitable result of heredity.
The process by which a body replaces neurons is called _____________.
Elizabeth Kübler-Ross identified five stages or reactions to the process of dying. List these five stages and briefly discuss her findings.
Intimacy vs. Isolation, chivarly, 82 percent, Menopause, osteoporosis, genetic theory, Neurogenesis.
How would one describe heredity?When you talk about heredity, we're speaking about the precise ways that genes are used to transmit characteristics or traits from one generations to the next. The instructions for creating certain proteins, which are in charge of an individual's distinctive qualities, are encoded by genes.
What are some examples of heredity?We may pass on inherited features to the next age since they are encoded in our DNA. Examples includes eye color, height, skin tone, and hair color. The differences that result from breeding may be passed down across families, increasing the likelihood that entities will survive.
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The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positives and results that are true negatives. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity, but low sensitivity?Accurately identifies the presence of diseaseAccurately identifies the absence of diseaseHas few false-positivesHas few false-negatives
Accurately identifies the absence of disease and Has few false-positives statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity, but low sensitivity .thus correct option (A) and (B) .
A test with high specificity accurately detects the absence of disease. The more specific a test is, the fewer false-positive results will occur. A test with high sensitivity accurately identifies the presence of disease. The more sensitive a test, the fewer false-negative results it produces.
In the case stated in this question, the immunoassay has high specificity, so it has few false-positives and will accurately detect those individuals who do not have the disease or condition that is being tested for. However, the test has low sensitivity, so it may not identify all individuals who actually have the disease; it may produce many false-negative results.
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which of the following is a possible outcome of an ethics complaint? academy of nutrition and dietetics
All of the above. Dismissal of the case. Suspension of the individual's Academy membership. Revocation of the individual's CDR credential.All of the above.
What behaviors are considered unethical?The disclosure of private information, poor working conditions, and bias are additional instances of ethical violations.Situations including bribery, forgery, & theft frequently involve criminal activity and thus are handled outside the organization, despite the fact that they are unethical.
Which is the most typical grievance made against real estate agents?The most frequent grievance made against realtors, according to the Association of Realtors, involves fraud.The most common claim in these lawsuits is a failure to reveal property flaws.Two words best describe your solution: examination and documentation.
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