The bacteria or yeast that are causing a urinary tract infection can be found with a urine culture test (UTI).
What does a positive urine culture test result mean?You have a UTI if bacteria develop in the urine culture test and you also exhibit symptoms of an infection or bladder discomfort.A positive urine culture test result or an abnormal test result is this one.The bacteria in the cultured sample are subjected to an antibiotic sensitivity test in the lab. This test, which is also known as an antibiotic susceptibility test, detects the kind of bacteria causing the infection and the medications that will kill the bacterium. Your healthcare professional can choose the most efficient antibiotic medication with the aid of this information.Only specific germs are resistant to certain antibiotics. Furthermore, certain bacteria are resistant to antibiotics. This indicates that the antibiotic is no longer able to prevent the growth of that particular bacterium. It is tougher to treat infections with antibiotic resistance.To Learn more About urine culture test Refer To:
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the nurse is performing an assessment on a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. which assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? select all that apply.
The assessment findings that the nurse should expect to observe include the following; Pallor, Edema, Anorexia, Proteinuria.
What is nephrotic syndrome?Nephrotic syndrome is defined as the type of disorder.thay affects the kidney whereby the damage of the kidney blood vessels leads to an excessive excretion of proteins in the urine.
The clinical manifestations found in an individual with nephrotic syndrome include the following:
peripheral edema, foamy urine, generalized swelling, puffy eyes, or weight gain, blood clots, fatigue, or loss of appetite(anorexia)pallor,Proteinuria.Therefore, the nurse is expected to observe protein in the urine because of the inability of the kidney to filter protein from the blood.
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All of the assessment findings which this nurse should expect to observe in a child admitted with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome include the following:
1. Pallor
2. Edema
3. Anorexia
4. Proteinuria
What is a kidney?A kidney can be defined as a pair of bean-shaped organ that is found in the body of an organism and it is typically responsible for the excretion of excess fluids as wastes. Additionally, the kidney helps to filter blood and produce urine in living organisms such as human beings (children).
What is nephrotic syndrome?Nephrotic syndrome can be defined as a kidney disorder that causes body of a living organism to release too much protein from the blood into the urine, especially due to an inflammation of glomeruli.
Therefore, nephrotic syndrome is typically caused as a result of the damage to clusters of small blood vessels within the kidney and some of the symptoms to observe in patients include the following:
PallorLoss of appetite.ProteinuriaWeight gainSevere swelling (edema).AnorexiaRead more on kidney here: brainly.com/question/15490784
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Complete Question:
The nurse is performing an assessment on a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? Select all that apply.
1. Pallor
2. Edema
3. Anorexia
4. Proteinuria
5. Weight loss
6. Decreased serum lipids
the nurse assessing a client with an exacerbation of heart failure identifies which symptom as a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure (hf)?
The nurse assessing a client with an exacerbation of heart failure identifies dizziness symptom as a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure (HF).
A heart failure exacerbation is any abnormality related to the muscles of the heart and/or its function. As a result, patients will expertise a spread of symptoms that indicate the guts is compromised. the foremost common symptoms include: Shortness of breath. Fatigue and weakness
Dizziness has several potential causes, together with sensory receptor disturbance, sickness and drugs effects. generally it's caused by associate underlying health condition, like poor circulation, infection or injury. The manner giddiness causes you to feel and your triggers offer clues for potential causes.
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a client has been told that stimulation of their chemoreceptor trigger zone (ctz) is responsible for their current symptoms. what nursing action indicates that the nurse is aware of the role of the ctz?
A client has been told that stimulation of their chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) is responsible for their current symptoms and it's role is planning care to manage the client's nausea and vomiting.
The CTZ is stirred by endogenous unhealthful substances created in acute infectious diseases or metabolic disorders like azotaemia and diabetic diabetic acidosis and by medicine and different exogenous toxins. It's conjointly known as the realm postrema. Once the CTZ is stirred, vomiting might occur.
Nausea is feeling associated urge to vomit. t's usually known as "being sick to your abdomen." Vomiting or throwing-up is forcing the contents of the abdomen up through the food pipe (esophagus) and out of the mouth.
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during a neonatal examination, the nurse notices that the newborn infant has six toes. this finding is documented as:
During a neonatal examination, the nurse notices that the newborn infant has six toes. this finding is documented as polydactyly.
Polydactyly, or having extra fingers or toes, is a medical term. Syndactyly is the term for the web that connects adjacent fingers or toes.
The webbing of the fingers or toes is known as syndactyly. The connecting of two or more fingers or toes is described. Often, the only physical connection between the areas is skin. The bones occasionally could fuse together. Syndactyly is typically seen during a child's medical examination. Usually, webbing appears between the second and third toes. This shape seems to be hereditary and is usual. Syndactyly can occur together with other congenital malformations affecting the skull, face, and bones.
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a primary health care provider prescribes 1000 ml of normal saline to be infused over a period of 10 hours. the drop factor is 15 drops (gtt) per ml. the nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? fill in the blank
A primary health care provider prescribes 1000 ml of normal saline to be infused over a period of 10 hours and the drop factor is 15 drops (GTT) per ml so the nurse sets the flow rate at 40 drops per minute.
Saline is a mixture of common salt and water. it's variety of uses in medication as well as improvement wounds, removal and storage of contact lenses, and facilitate with dry eyes. By injection into a vein it's wont to treat dehydration like that from intestinal flu and diabetic acidosis.
The drop factor, which may be found written on the IV tube package, is that the variety of drops (gtts) in one mililiter (mL) of resolution delivered by gravity. The speed is measured by numeration the amount of drops that make up the drip chamber every minute.
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you are a medical doctor and have a patient in their 50s. the patient is concerned about osteoporosis. what would you suggest as a preventative treatment?
when personal and health problems related to alcohol use have become severe and a person suffers withdrawal symptoms if they don't drink, they have reached the point of alcoholism or group of answer choices tolerance. binge drinking. inebriation. alcohol dependence.
when personal and health problems related to alcohol use have become severe and a person suffers withdrawal symptoms if they don't drink, they have reached the point of alcoholism or alcohol dependence.
Individual in alcohol dependence is individual is physically or psychologically dependent upon alcohol.
The individual regular, heavy drinking habits can result in alcohol dependence and alcoholism.
An alcohol dependence person shows,
1. He keeps drinking alcohol regularly and aimlessly.
2. Develop a tolerance for alcohol.
3. There is withdrawal symptoms if one does not drink it.
4. Craving alcohol day and night and no managing time.
5. Spend less time doing more important things
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all of the following occur during inflammation. what is the first step? all of the following occur during inflammation. what is the first step? diapedesis phagocyte migration repair margination vasodilation
Of the items, the first step that occurs during inflammation is vasodilation.
How does the inflammatory response work?The inflammatory response is part of the innate immune response and, therefore, it is not a specific response, but occurs in a standardized way regardless of the stimulus. The inflammatory process involves various cells of the immune system, molecular mediators and blood vessels.
How is the inflammatory response manifested?The inflammatory leads the body to produce five classic signs: heat, flushing (redness), tumor (swelling, edema), pain and loss of function. Heat and redness are caused by the dilation of the vessels and the increase in local blood flow leads to the reddish coloration.
How do leukocytes act during the inflammatory response?Due to inflammation, after the margination process, both endothelial cells and circulating leukocytes are activated by circulating inflammatory substances.
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A client had a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). What medication will the nurse administer to prevent thrombus formation in the stent?
A. Diltiazem
B. Isosorbide mononitrate
C. Clopidogrel
D. Metoprolol
The nurse will administer Diltiazem to prevent thrombus formation in the stent after a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA).
Diltiazem is used to lower high blood pressure and prevent thrombus. Diltiazem is given to people with high blood pressure avoid heart disease, heart attacks, and strokes in the future. Diltiazem is used to prevent angina. A calcium channel blocker called diltiazem is used to treat hypertension and control chronic stable angina. A derivative of benzothiazepine having antihypertensive and vasodilating effects is diltiazem.
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which process can reduce expensive redundant tests that are ordered because one provider does not have access to the clinical information stored at another provider's location?
The process that can reduce expensive redundant tests that are ordered because one provider does not have access to the clinical information stored at another provider's location is health information exchange.
What does health information exchange mean?The expression health information exchange makes reference to the shared info of medical records with patient consent in order to facilitate medical procedures in the clinical setting.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that health information exchange may be very useful to reduce time and costs during healthcare treatments in the clinical setting.
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A patient weighing 40 lb has an order for phenobarbital 60 mg twice daily. The safe dose
range is 3 to 6 mg/kg/day. Is this order safe?
A patient weighing 40 lb has an order for phenobarbital 60 mg twice daily. The safe dose range is 3 to 6 mg/kg/day.
What is phenobarbital?
Phenobarbital is a barbiturate and anticonvulsant with a lengthy half-life that is used to treat all forms of seizures except absent seizures.
Phenobarbital, the longest-acting barbiturate, is utilised in the treatment of all seizure disorders except absence seizures due to its anticonvulsant and sedative-hypnotic effects (petit mal).
Phenobarbital inhibits synaptic transmission by acting on GABAA receptors. This raises the seizure threshold and reduces the spread of seizure activity from a seizure focal. Phenobarbital may also inhibit calcium channels, causing excitatory transmitter release to diminish. Phenobarbital's sedative-hypnotic effects are most likely due to its action on polysynaptic midbrain reticular formation, which regulates CNS alertness.
Phenobarbital is in the barbiturates class of medicines. It is used to treat insomnia (difficulty sleeping) and as a sedative to reduce anxiety or tension symptoms. It is also used to treat certain forms of seizures. It functions by slowing the brain and nerve system.
In addition, phenobarbital is utilised to lower bilirubin levels in newborn newborns. Bilirubin is a chemical that the body produces and the liver eliminates. A newborn baby's liver may require some time to begin functioning properly.
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the nurse in charge of a nursing unit is asked to select the hospitalized clients who can be discharged so that hospital beds can be made available for victims of a community disaster. which clients can be safely discharged? select all that apply.
the nurse in charge who is asked to select the hospitalized clients who can be discharged so that hospital beds can be made available for victims of a community disaster selects the clients to be safely discharged when :
A client is with a Holter monitorA client is receiving oral antibioticsA client is experiencing sinus rhythmIf clients are discharged, they should be medically stable and able to manage their condition at home. A client experiencing chest pain may be suffering from a myocardial infarction and requires close monitoring. To stabilize a client who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation, medication and monitoring are required. A third-degree heart block patient is considered unstable, especially if the patient requires a pacemaker.
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a client comes to see the cardiologist for a routine follow-up visit. at the visit, the nurse reviews the client's electronic health record. the nurse is able to access a report from the client's last visit to the primary care provider last month and the report from an emergency department visit two weeks ago for reports of shortness of breath. the record also lists two changes in the client's medication based on the emergency department visit. the nurse's ability to access this information reflects which concept?
Interoperability is that process which is reflects in nurse's ability, the nurse is able to access a report from the client's last visit to the primary care provider last month and the report from an emergency department visit two weeks ago for reports of shortness of breath. the record also lists two changes in the client's medication based on the emergency department visit
What is Interoperability?
Interoperability is the quality that makes it possible for different systems to freely share and utilise resources through local area networks (LANs) or wide area networks (WANs). There are two types of data interoperability: semantic interoperability, which is the capacity of computer systems to exchange meaningful data with unambiguous, shared meaning, and syntactic interoperability, which enables various software components to cooperate and is a prerequisite for semantic interoperability.
One of the most important aspects of networked computerised systems, notably interoperability in healthcare information and management systems, is efficient automated data sharing between applications, databases, and other computer systems.
We could define interoperability as the ability of two or more information systems, or components, to let information to be shared and used across systems. The synchronisation of all components will be more than assured as a result.
Since it tries to address well-known demands like: redundant information across different sectors, lack of cohesiveness between distinct sections, existence of many information systems that operate independently, interoperability is a component of substantial importance to private firms. Control and effectiveness in an organisation are completely absent when all of this occurs.
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a nurse is teaching a client about a circumcision. which external reproductive structure is removed by circumcision?
The external reproductive structure that is surgically removed during circumcision is the foreskin; the tissue that covers the glans.
What is circumcision and its benefits?This procedure is fairly common in newborns in certain parts of the world, including the United States. Circumcision after the neonatal period is possible, but is a more complicated procedure. Some families choose circumcision because of their cultural or religious beliefs. Juvenile circumcision is a very common procedure.Potential medical benefits of circumcision include: low risk of HIV, slightly lower risk of other sexually transmitted infections, slightly lower risk of urinary tract infections and penile cancer.Does Circumcision affect Pleasure?Morris' systematic review of early his MC conducted in Australia in a total of 40,473 men found that medical circumcision (MC) had no adverse effects on sexual function, sensitivity, or pleasure.
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a client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (ptca) immediately following confirmed diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. the client is overtly anxious and crying. which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
For a client who is extremely anxious and crying and is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCS) immediately following a confirmed diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction, the appropriate response by the nurse should be "Tell me what concerns you most."
Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), is a minimally invasive procedure that opens blocked coronary arteries to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. First, a local anesthetic is used to numb the groin area. The doctor then inserts a needle into the femoral artery, which runs down the leg.
Acute myocardial infarction is myocardial necrosis caused by an acute blockage of a coronary artery. Symptoms include chest discomfort, nausea, and/or diaphoresis, with or without dyspnea. Electrocardiography (ECG) and the presence or absence of serologic markers are used to make the diagnosis.
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which diagnostic test should the nurse request an order for to determine if the client is developing drug toxicity?
Peak and trough tests should be ordered to determine if the client is developing drug toxicity.
Peak and trough levels—peak denoting the greatest and trough denoting the lowest—indicate how much medicine the patient has in their circulation. The following dose should be skipped, and the blood level should be examined again six hours later if the trough exceeds the drug's permissible limit.
There are different types of tests, such as:
Before antibiotic treatment, use culture and sensitivity to identify the microorganisms present and the most appropriate antibiotic.
The therapeutic index is the range between a medication's therapeutic and toxic doses.
Half-life: connected to dosage of medicine.
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the nurse is making a follow-up home visit to a woman who is 12 days postpartum. which finding would the nurse expect when assessing the client's fundus?
The nurse is preparing to assess a client who is 1 day postpartum. the nurse predicts the client's fundus will be located 1 cm below the umbilicus on assessment.
What is postpartum?The term postpartum wealth moment of truth following in position or time parturition. Most women catch “postnatal depression,” or feel dismal or empty, inside any day of creation. Postpartum, hormones (estrogen and progesterone) in your body concede the possibility of influence of postpartum depression.
For many women, postpartum depression departs in 3 to 5 days. If your postpartum depression forbiddance departs or you feel depressed, hopeless, or empty for lengthier than 2 weeks, you concede the possibility have postnatal depression.
Therefore, The nurse is preparing to assess a client who is 1 day postpartum. the nurse predicts the client's fundus will be located 1 cm below the umbilicus on assessment.
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a client is instructed to follow a low-fat diet after an inflammatory attack of the gallbladder. which vitamins or other acids will the nurse recommend the client supplement due to the client's dietary restrictions? select all that apply.
The nurse recommend the client supplement due to the client's dietary restrictions A,D,K, Essential fatty acids-Need fat soluble vitamins; folic acid is not fat soluble.
What is low fat diet?A low fat diet limits fat and often saturated fat and cholesterol. A low-fat diet is designed to reduce the incidence of diseases such as heart disease and obesity.
People lost weight on both diets, but only the low-fat diet significantly reduced body fat. the main reasons for choosing a low-fat diet are usually to reduce calories and improve cholesterol. To achieve these goals, a low-fat diet should be properly balanced to include a healthy amount of vitamins and minerals.
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a hospitalized client has been diagnosed with heart failure as a complication of hypertension. in explaining the disease process to the client, the nurse identifies which chamber of the heart as primarily responsible for the symptoms?
Left ventricle chamber of the heart as primarily responsible for the symptoms
What causes heart failure?Heart failure, also known as congestive heart failure, is a chronic illness that deteriorates over time. Heart failure, despite the name suggesting otherwise, is the inability of the heart to pump blood as effectively as it should. Your organs may suffer harm when your heart's pumping capacity is reduced, and fluid may build up in your lungs.Many medical conditions that damage the heart muscle can cause heart failure. Common conditions include:Coronary artery disease.Heart attack.Cardiomyopathy.Heart issues present at birth (congenital heart disease).Diabetes.High blood pressure (hypertension). This is a common cause in people assigned female at birth.Arrhythmia (abnormal heart rhythms, including atrial fibrillation).Kidney disease.Having obesity.Tobacco and recreational drug use.Medications. Some drugs used to fight cancer (chemotherapy) can lead to heart failure.Because the left ventricle must pump the stroke volume against greater resistance (after load) in the main blood arteries, hypertension increases the left ventricle's effort. This eventually results in the left ventricle failing, which produces heart failure signs and symptoms. Although these chambers may be impacted as the disease progresses and becomes more chronic, the other alternatives are not the chambers that are principally responsible for this disease process.To learn more about hypertension, refer to
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a young woman comes to the ed with lower abdominal pain on the right side and has been spotting blood for 2 days. she is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy, which is an obstetric emergency. an ectopic pregnancy is when what occurs?
The egg never leaves the fallopian tube
What is fallopian tube?One of the two lengthy, thin tubes that join the ovaries and uterus. The fallopian tubes carry eggs from the ovaries to the uterus. On either side of the uterus are an ovary and a fallopian tube in the female reproductive system.When the egg never leaves the fallopian tube, ectopic pregnancy results. Blood spots and lower abdomen pain on one side are symptoms of this potentially fatal illness. An obstetric emergency necessitating hospitalization and pregnancy termination in order to save the mother's life is confirmed ectopic pregnancy. The alternative choices serve to dilute the question.The most frequent type of ectopic pregnancy, known as a tubal pregnancy, occurs when a fertilized egg becomes impaled on something while traveling to the uterus.To learn more about fallopian tube refer to:
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which irrigation technique is best? pour the saline directly onto the wound from the bottle. moisten a sterile gauze pad and pat the gauze over the wound. irrigate as gently as possible using a 60-ml bulb syringe. apply steady pressure using a 35 ml syringe and 19-gauge needle.
The best irrigation technique is, Using a 35-ml syringe and 19-gauge needle provides 8 pounds per square inch (PSI). The irrigation used here is wound irrigation,
Wound irrigation is easy to perform, quick, inexpensive and effective.
Normal saline is the most frequently used irritant, as it is proved tap water cures it fast and is an cost effective way.
It should be irrigated as slowly as possible using a large syringe.
It is adequate pressure to ensure effective irrigation.
It is always advised to use irrigation pressure between 4 and 15 psi.
If we apply too much pressure it can actually force surface bacteria into the wound bed.
If we apply too low pressure it will fail to remove surface bacteria it may lead to wound infection.
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a child with growth hormone deficiency is prescribed growth hormone (gh) by subcutaneous injection. when teaching the child's parents about this drug, the nurse would instruct the parents to administer the drug at which frequency?
Subcutaneous (sub-Q-TAIN-ee-us) injections are used to administer GH, which indicates that the substance enters the fatty tissue immediately below the skin's surface.
What to expect with Growth Hormone Treatment?Growth is primarily what to anticipate. The important thing is that your child will grow — probably 1 to 2 inches within the first 6 months of starting treatment. It takes about 3 to 6 months to notice any height differences, but this is not the most important thing. You might also notice the following things:Your child's shoes might become quickly unfit. You may need to buy new shoes more frequently if your feet grow within 6 to 8 weeks.Your child might desire more food. An improvement in appetite is typical, particularly if the patient had a poor appetite prior to treatment.Once height growth begins, your child might appear thinner for a while. With GH therapy, an increase in lean body mass and a decrease in fat mass are frequent outcomes.You should be informed that GH treatment is frequently a lengthy commitment since it may take your child a number of years to attain his or her adult height. Regular appointments with the pediatric endocrinologist, as well as infrequent x-rays and blood tests, will be required to track your child's treatment success. Although the course of treatment can vary, your kid will likely need to continue receiving GH until he or she has:Entire mature height was attainedComplete bone maturityLess than 2 cm in recent growth.To Learn more About Growth Hormone Treatment Refer To:
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a client who is taking supplements reports severe flushing and itching an hour after ingestion. the nurse is aware that the supplement is most likely:
A client who is taking supplements reports severe flushing and itching an hour after ingestion. The nurse is aware that the supplement is most likely niacin.
Flushing is the sudden and extreme reddening of the skin. This usually happens in the skin of the face, neck, or upper chest. The redness is the result of increased blood flow into that region. The redness appears as patches or blotchiness.
Niacin is the name for vitamin B3. It is naturally present in foods like milk, meat, tortillas, cereal grains, etc. It is also taken from external supplements. The supplements can sometimes cause allergic reactions in some people.
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which of the following medications may be administered concurrently with amphotericin b (fungizone) to help minimize the adverse reactions to this medication? which of the following medications may be administered concurrently with amphotericin b (fungizone) to help minimize the adverse reactions to this medication? antipyretics beta-adrenergic blockers sedatives diuretics
Antipyretics is the medication that may be administered concurrently with amphotericin b (fungizone) to help minimize the adverse reactions to this medication.
A drug that lowers fever is known as an antipyretic ( aentipartk, from the words anti- "against" and pyretic "feverish"). [1] The hypothalamus is forced by antipyretics to overcome a prostaglandin-induced rise in body temperature. The fever eventually lessens as a result of the body's efforts to reduce the temperature.
The majority of antipyretic drugs also serve additional functions. Ibuprofen, aspirin, and paracetamol (acetaminophen), analgesics lacking anti-inflammatory qualities that are often used as anti-inflammatories and analgesics (pain relievers) but also have antipyretic effects, are the most frequently used antipyretics in the US.
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a nurse is teaching a client and the client's family about chronic pancreatitis. which are the major causes of chronic pancreatitis?
Answer:
Elevated triglyceride levels in the patient's blood.
which topic is most important for the nurse to discuss preoperatively with a patient who is scheduled for abdominal surgery for an open cholecystectomy?
The most important topic to be discussed preoperatively with the patient scheduled for abdominal surgery for an open cholecystectomy is: (2) Deep breathing and coughing.
Cholecystectomy is the operational removal of the gall bladder. Gall bladder is the organ present below the liver that stores and secretes the bile juices. Although commonly performed, the surgery is still a major one as it may sometimes lead to other infections and conditions.
Teaching about deep breathing and coughing is essential preoperatively to the patients undergoing abdominal surgery so as to prevent postoperative atelectasis. Atelectasis is the condition where the lungs may complete collapse.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Which topic is most important for the nurse to discuss preoperatively with a patient who is scheduled for abdominal surgery for an open cholecystectomy?
Care for the surgical incisionDeep breathing and coughingOral antibiotic therapy after dischargeMedications to be used during surgeryTo know more about cholecystectomy, here
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how do histone deacetylase inhibitors work
The removal of acetyl functional groups from the lysine residues of both histone and nonhistone proteins is catalysed by enzymes known as histone deacetylases (HDACs).
What is non histone protein ?
Non-histone proteins are those proteins in chromatin that persist after the removal of the histones. The chromosome is organised and compacted into higher order structures by a wide group of heterogeneous proteins known as non-histone proteins. They are essential in controlling procedures such as the remodelling of nucleosomes, DNA replication, RNA synthesis and processing, nuclear transport, the action of steroid hormones, and the transition between interphase and mitosis. Common non-histone proteins include scaffold proteins, DNA polymerase, Heterochromatin Protein 1, and Polycomb. There are numerous additional structural, regulatory, and motor proteins in this categorization category. Acidic non-histone proteins exist.
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a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, has been spending thousands of dollars on clothing and makeup. she has been partying in bars every night and rarely sleeps or eats. the nurse in the outpatient clinic, knowing that this client rarely eats, recognizes that her eating problems most likely result from what?
The nurse in the outpatient clinic, knowing that this client rarely eats, recognizes that her eating problems most likely result from Excessive physical activity.
What is Excessive physical activity?
Although exercise is generally good for our bodies and minds, overtraining is unavoidable. A sense of exhaustion, changes in appetite, a decline in performance, a propensity for injury, and an inability to advance further are all symptoms of over-exercising.
What results from daily exercise?
Your muscle strength and endurance can both increase with regular exercise. Exercise helps your circulatory system function more effectively and distributes oxygen and nutrients to your tissues. Additionally, you have greater energy to do everyday tasks as your heart and lung health improves.
Hence Excessive physical activity is a correct answer.
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a nurse is caring for a preterm newborn born at 29 weeks' gestation. which nursing diagnosis would have the highest priority?
The nursing diagnosis that would have the highest priority would be Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat.
What is preterm newborn?Preterm newborn is defined as the infant that is delivered before 37 weeks of gestation. That is a baby that arrived earlier than full term baby which should be 40 weeks of gestation.
Nursing diagnosis is been drafted and carried out by a well professionally trained registered nurse and this should be done based on the order of priority.
A preterm baby has most of its organs and systems under developed and this makes it difficult to regulate the internal environment of the body to adapt to the ever changing environment.
Therefore, the most important nursing diagnosis would be Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat.
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Question 1 Which term describes the situation when 3 to 4 cm of the fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening? O Crowning Tidaling Caput succedaneum Coronal presentation
The term that describes when 3-4 cm of fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening is Crowning, option 1.
What does crowning of the fetus mean?This process occurs during the second stage of labor after complete dilation is achieved and the woman is ready to push. Crowning is when the crown or top of the baby's head is visible through the vulva.
When the fetal head is seen up to 3 to 4cm, the mother is encouraged to push to 3 to 5 times with every contraction to avoid complications. With the next set of contractions the baby comes out.
The complete question:
Question 1 Which term describes the situation when 3 to 4 cm of the fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening?
1. Crowning
2. Tidaling
3. Caput succedaneum
4. Coronal presentation
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