The adverse reaction should be Dry mouth.
Traditional antipsychotic drugs include a number of potentially harmful side effects, including extrapyramidal symptoms, tardive dyskinesia, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). The inhibition of alpha-adrenergic, dopamine, endocrine, histamine, and muscarinic receptors is the cause of these negative consequences.
Tell the patient to take their medication as prescribed. The day's doses of medication should be spaced out equally. To see the intended results from this medication, may take many weeks. Patients should be informed that sudden withdrawal may result in dizziness, nausea, vomiting, and uncontrollable mouth, tongue, or jaw movements, as well as the likelihood of extrapyramidal symptoms.
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the nurse is assessing a client's knee. the area has a grating sensation. what would this be documented as?
This will be documented as crepitus where the area has a grating sensation.
Crepitus, also known as crepitation, is the medical term for any grinding, creaking, cracking, grating, crunching, or popping that happens when a joint is moved. Crepitus can strike anyone at any age, but it seems to happen more frequently as people age. Crepitus can cause noises that are either faint or loud enough for other people to hear.
Typically, crepitus is nothing to worry about. In actuality, it is typical for joints to pop or crack sometimes in most people. Crepitus, however, may be an indication of arthritis or another medical issue if it occurs frequently and is accompanied by pain, swelling, or other unsettling symptoms.
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the nurse is conducting an education group for women at risk for self-mutilation. what is the most important goal for this group?
This group's main objective of mutilation is to develop methods for avoiding self-harm.
Which personality disorder is most frequently associated with self-mutilation?Results: The deliberate, direct altering or destruction of one's own body tissue without consciously intending to commit is referred to as self-mutilation. More than 41% of BPD patients engage in this repeating pattern of behavior, which is prevalent (occurring in 50 to 80% of instances).
Which personality disorder among the following is the most well-known?At the moment, BPD is the most frequently identified personality disorder. Our pages on borderline personality disorder have further information on it (BPD). "Having BPD is like lacking an emotional safety net.
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true or false? the primary therapeutic goals for treatment of anorexia nervosa are the restoration of body weight and return of menses.
The primary therapeutic goals for treatment of anorexia nervosa are the restoration of body weight and return of menses. The given statement is true.
What is the primary goal of treatment?
The goal of the majority of therapies is to treat or reduce the symptoms of a problematic problem or disease. Medical professionals design treatment plans that describe their strategy and methods for achieving a particular objective.
What is called primary treatment?
It is the initial course of treatment for a disease. It frequently forms a component of an established course of therapy, such as surgery followed by chemotherapy and radiation. Primary therapy is acknowledged as the optimum form of treatment when done alone.
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a client has been brought into the ed via ambulance, reporting acute generalized abdominal pain, nausea, fever, and constipation. the healthcare provider suspects appendicitis, but testing has not been performed yet to make a definitive diagnosis. what will the nurse most likely do while initially caring for this client?
Answer:
Inform the client of the reason why analgesics are being withheld will help to prevent disguising symptoms that might affect the diagnostic.
a nurse is caring for a client with elevated triglyceride levels who is unresponsive to hmg-coa reductase inhibitors (statin). what medication will the nurse administer
The nurse is reviewing instructions for a client taking an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin). "Take this medication at the same time each day." is essential for the nurse to include.
What are triglycerides?Triglycerides are a specific form of fat. They are the most prevalent form of fat in the body. They are derived from meals, particularly butter, oils, and other fats. Extra calories are also a source of triglycerides.
These are the calories that you consume but that your body does not require straight away. These additional calories are converted by your body into triglycerides and stored in fat cells. Triglycerides are released by your body when it need energy. Triglycerides are carried to your tissues via VLDL cholesterol particles.
Normal — Less than 150 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL), or less than 1.7 millimoles per liter (mmol/L) Borderline high — 150 to 199 mg/dL (1.8 to 2.2 mmol/L) High — 200 to 499 mg/dL (2.3 to 5.6 mmol/L) Very high — 500 mg/dL or above (5.7 mmol/L or above)
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two days after being discharged a new mother calls the clinic stating that she is not sure that her baby is receiving enough breast milk. which information would indicate that the infant is being fed adequately?
Before 2:00 p.m., the knowledge that nurse would suggest that the child is receiving appropriate nutrition is voided four times.
A typical indicator of proper hydration is between six and eight wet diapers per day. Sleeping for 3 and a half to 4 hours in between meals might indicate low dietary intake. Because breast milk is quickly absorbed, a newborn who is nursing often naps for 112 to 2 12 hours in between feedings.
Three or even more soft yellow or mustard-colored poop each day after day four or five is typically an indication that your kid is consuming enough milk. Additionally, your baby's level of hydration may be determined by the presence of at minimum five or six wet diapers (nappies) every day and pale urine next to the filthy ones.
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which mineral needs to be supplemented during pregnancy even though the intestinal absorption triples during pregnancy?
Iron is the mineral needs to be supplemented during pregnancy even though the intestinal absorption triples during pregnancy .
While pregnant, you need 27 mg of iron every day. Most prenatal vitamins include this amount. Food is another way to get iron.
The sources of dietary iron (heme iron) that are most easily absorbed are lean meat, poultry, and fish. Non-animal (non-heme) sources are still beneficial nevertheless, and combining them with meals that are strong in vitamin C will boost their absorption.
For pregnant women who are not anemic, taking extra iron during pregnancy may be harmful, but it may be important for those who are iron deficient. According to past studies, elevated iron levels have been associated with an increased risk of low birth weight, premature birth, and high blood pressure in mothers.
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TRUE/FALSE. of the three core functions of public health, includes development of a competent public health workforce.
True. of the three core functions of public health, includes development of a competent public health workforce.it comes under the category of assurance.
Environmental health services are crucial and align with the three main public health functions (assessment, policy development, and assurance). Together, these roles contribute to the restoration, enhancement, promotion, and protection of the greater good's health through collective action. Assurance enforce laws and rules that safeguard the environment and guarantee safety. Connecting individuals to the necessary environmental health services and ensuring their delivery when those services are unavailable are two ways to ensure their provision. Ensure that the environmental health workforce is skilled. Assess the efficiency, usability, and standard of personal and community-based environmental health services. research to find fresh perspectives and creative answers to environmental health issues.
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a nurse is working in the emergency department and is assigned to a client brought in by family members. the family thinks that the client is on methamphetamine. the nurse should assess for:
The nurse should assess for hypertension. Methamphetamine users increased atherosclerotic plaque development and acute coronary vasospasm both contribute to myocardial infarction symptoms.
The use of methamphetamine is linked to pulmonary hypertension, especially in people who have particular polymorphisms in the enzyme that breaks down methamphetamine, carboxylesterase. Following exposure to methamphetamine, remodelling of heart tissue causes dilated cardiomyopathy and may increase the vulnerability to cardiac arrhythmias. Globally, the use of methamphetamine is increasing, which has a major impact on morbidity and mortality due to an increase in a variety of cardiovascular diseases that is poorly understood. Through catecholamine toxicity or direct effects on cardiac and vascular tissue, methamphetamines may worsen cardiovascular disease.
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the nurse is collecting a blood sample from a client's central venous access device (cvad). the nurse notices that the flow stops when drawing the blood, even after changing the specimen tube and having the client cough. what would be the next recommended intervention?
Avoid directly applying skin protectant to the insertion site; instead, apply it to the same area. Aseptic method should be used while accessing a CVAD.
Where ought Cvad to be placed?According to the research, the lower portion of the superior vena cava is the ideal location for a CVAD tip. Anyone installing a CVAD must be aware of any changes in body position that could cause a tip to move.
Where should the tip of a Cvad rest?According to the research, the lower portion of the superior vena cava is the ideal location for a CVAD tip. Anyone installing a CVAD must be aware of any changes in body position that could cause a tip to move.
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your assessment of a 5-year-old child reveals that he is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. treatment for this child should include:
Your assessment of a 5-year-old child reveals that he is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. treatment for this child should include: lower the extremities and reassess the child.
In humans, the respiratory rate is calculated by measuring the number of breaths taken in one minute and the number of times the chest rises. During a magnetic resonance imaging scan, a fibre-optic respiratory rate sensor can be utilized to monitor patients. With fever, sickness, or other medical conditions, respiration rates may rise.
In the literature, inaccuracies in respiratory measurement have been noted.
One research observed substantial changes in respiration rates when respiratory rates were recorded using a 90-second count interval vs a full minute.
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Which of the following may be considered an exception to the requirement for informed consent? A. The patient is a non-English speaker B. The person is both blind and hearing impaired C. Performing CPR on an unconscious patient D. An invasive procedure not requiring hospitalization
Answer: C. Performing CPR on an unconscious patient
Explanation:
a client diagnosed with pulmonary edema has a paco2 of 72 mm hg and an oxygen saturation of 84%. what method of oxygen delivery would best meet the needs of this client?
Intubation and mechanical ventilation method of oxygen delivery would best meet the needs of this client. a client diagnosed with pulmonary edema has a paco2 of 72 mm hg and an oxygen saturation of 84%.
An intubation is a procedure in which a medical professional puts a tube into a patient's trachea (airway/windpipe) through the mouth or nose. The trachea is kept open by the tube so that air may pass through. The tube can be attached to a device that disperses air or oxygen. Other names for intubation include tracheal intubation and endotracheal intubation. When your airway is obstructed, injured, or you can't breathe on your own, you need to be intubated. The following common circumstances can result in intubation: Airway blockage (something caught in the airway, blocking the flow of air).
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the nurse is aware that a client receiving which category of medication will not be prescribed vardenafil?
The nurse knows that vardenafil will not be recommended for patients taking medications for heart problems and chest pain (angina).
What is vardenafil?Vardenafil is a drug to treat impotence or erectile dysfunction in men. Vardenafil is available in tablet form and should only be used with a doctor's prescription.
Vardenafil dilates the blood vessels so that blood flows increases. vardenafil cannot treat the causes of erectile dysfunction, cannot increase libido, and cannot prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases.
Vardenafil may cause the following side effects:
Flushing or reddened skinBack painRunny or stuffy noseFlu-like symptoms, such as runny nose, cough, and body achesHeadacheDizzyStomach acheStomach acid diseaseLearn more about therapy for erectile dysfunction here :
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a nurse is caring for a patient undergoing thyroid hormone replacement therapy. what should the nurse inform this patient regarding administration of the drug?
a nurse is caring for a patient undergoing thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Preferably before breakfast.
Justification: The nurse needs to advise the patient receiving thyroid hormone replacement treatment to take the medication in the morning, ideally before breakfast. As this is typically not advised by the healthcare practitioner, the nurse shouldn't request that the patient take the medication right before bed, right before dinner, or right after lunch.The hormone known as thyroid hormone regulates your body's metabolism, or how your body turns the food you eat into energy. Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), the two primary hormones your thyroid secretes, together make up thyroid hormone.
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a client with a systemic fungal infection has been prescribed ketoconazole 350 mg po daily. what assessment should the nurse prioritize before administration?
Observe the patient's response to the treatment (resolution of fungal infections). Observe for negative impacts (e.g. rash, local irritation, burning, etc).
By asking the patient to name the medicine, its indication, and any potential side effects, you can gauge how well they understand their drug therapy. Tracking patient adherence to medication. Antifungals are prescribed to treat mycosis, or fungal infections. Fungi are distinct from bacteria in that they include polysaccharides and chitin in their cell walls, which makes them resistant to antibiotics. In people with impaired immune systems, fungus infections are more common (e.g., patients with AIDS, those taking immunosuppressants like organ transplant recipients, etc.).
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Patients with which of the following conditions should not take OTC decongestants without first consulting with their doctor?
Heart Disease conditions should not take OTC decongestants without first consulting with their doctor.
Decongestants are a class of medication that might offer momentary relief for a stuffy or congested nose (nasal congestion).
They can aid in reducing the symptoms of illnesses including the flu, hay fever, and other allergic responses, catarrh, and sinusitis, among others.
They function by lessening nasal blood vessel swelling, which aids in widening the airways.
One example is pseudoephedrine (sometimes called by the brand name Sudafed).
What are the 3 types of decongestants?Oxymetazoline (such as in Claritin or Drixoral).Phenylephrine (such as in Benylin or Sudafed PE).Pseudoephedrine (such as in Sudafed).Learn more about decongestants to visit this link
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an adult client being treated for breast cancer inquired about required vaccinations. what information should the nurse provide to this client?
Live vaccinations shouldn't be administered to patients who have an active malignancy. There is no reason for a pneumococcal vaccination, and a booster dose of the tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis vaccine.
How does breast cancer start?According to physicians, breast cancer is brought on by certain breast cells that develop abnormally. These cells keep growing and dividing faster than mitochondria do, resulting in a mass or lump. Cells may move (metastasize) from your breast to your lymphatic vessels or other parts of your body.
What is the typical age of breast cancer?Women 50 years of age or older are the ones most likely to get breast cancer. Even if a woman is unaware of any additional risk factors, she may still get breast cancer. Not all lifestyle factors have the identical effects, and having one does not guarantee that you will develop the disease.
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a nurse is teaching a client about immunosuppressants. which common adverse reactions of immunosuppressants should be included in the teaching? (select all that apply.)
The common adverse reactions of immunosuppressants should be included in the teaching is:
ChillsFeverHeadacheThe most common indications include prevention of transplant rejection and treatment of autoimmune diseases such as lupus psoriasis and rheumatoid arthritis. It is common to use a combination of different immunosuppressants to maximize immunosuppressive effects and minimize side effects.
Immunosuppressants are drugs that reduce the body's ability to reject transplanted organs. Another term for these drugs is anti-rejection drugs. There are two types of immunosuppressants: her. Induction drug: an effective anti-rejection drug used during transplantation. The most serious side effect of immunosuppressants is an increased risk of infection.
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the nurse is caring for a client with breast cancer who is scheduled to have a mastectomy. what nutritional recommendation would the nurse make to promote healing after surgery?
The nutritional recommendation the nurse would make to promote healing after surgery is Increase intake of protein foods.
In order to treat or prevent breast cancer, a mastectomy is a surgical procedure where entire breast tissue is removed from the breast. A mastectomy might be a possible course of treatment for those with early-stage breast cancer. Another alternative is breast-conserving surgery, or lumpectomy, in which only the breast tumor is removed.
Our immune system, bones, and muscles are all built from protein. Prior to surgery, you want to be as strong as possible.
After surgery, protein is extremely necessary. It aids in the restoration of broken bodily tissues, the production of antibodies to ward against infections, and the synthesis of collagen, which is essential for scar formation. Nuts, legumes, seeds, fish, and lean poultry are all excellent sources of protein.
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the nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is being sent home on oral tetracycline. what instructions should the nurse include? select all that apply.
The client receiving oral tetracycline from the nurse must be instructed to take the medication on an empty stomach.
To promote complete absorption, tetracycline should be taken with a full eight ounces of water on an empty stomach either 1 hour beforehand or 2 hours after meals. Most people take tetracycline at least once every 12 hours.
When using cardiac glycosides, the pulse should be checked and the dose held if it is below 60 bpm.
When bacteria develop the ability to live and thrive in the presence of antibiotics, antibiotic resistance arises. Tetracyclines are still a go-to therapy for various sorts of illnesses, although their use has declined for some due to worries about resistance.
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The question is -
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who is being sent home on oral tetracycline (Sumycin). What instructions should the nurse include?
a. Take the medication only once a day.
b. Check pulse rate and hold the drug if lower than 60 beats per minute (bpm).
c. Take the drug on an empty stomach.
d. Take the medication with 2 ounces of water.
the nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed. with paget disease of bone. which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
client statement indicates a need for further teaching The normal recycling process by which old bone tissue is eventually replaced by new bone tissue is hampered by Paget's (PAJ-its) disease of the bones. Bones can deteriorate and change shape over time. The most frequently impacted areas are the legs, spine, pelvis, and head.
Age and the presence of the disease in the family both raise the risk of Paget's disease of the bones. However, the disease has been less prevalent over the past few years and is less severe when it does manifest for reasons that doctors are not aware of. Broken bones, hearing loss, and pinched nerves in your spine are examples of complications.
The mainstay of treatment involves bisphosphonates, which are drugs used to rebuild bones that have been damaged by osteoporosis. If difficulties arise, surgery might be required.
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an elderly client who lives at home with her daughter is admitted with unexplained bruises on her arms and legs. which action should the nurse take first?
Assess the patient's popular appearance, posture, and intellectual status. Is she easy and accurately dressed For the elderly client who lives at home with her daughter is admitted with unexplained bruises .
Bruising is the most common abusive harm visible in a suspected case of bodily abuse (1). They are not unusualplace in a regular lively child. However, they have a tendency to arise in unique locations - shins, elbows, foreheads. Bruising in different locations is greater suggestive of bodily abuse.
Recommended requirements for clinically assessing and documenting a bruise encompass recording its size (i.e., duration and width), appearance (i.e., shape, pattern, location, color, margins), and presence of ache or induration.
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in the human body, water is needed to: regulate energy production. monitor nerve cell function. dissolve fat-soluble vitamins. remove wastes.
Water regulates our internal body temperature by sweating and respiration and removes waste from the body.
To keep the body in a state of homeostasis, the fluid balance inside the body must be controlled. The cells will lose their functionality and negatively affect every aspect of human function if there is too much or too little discovered inside of them. To replace the water lost via normal exercise and organ function, a steady supply of water must be supplied through drinking liquids and eating foods. The hypothalamus, a part of the brain, is where we consume the majority of the water required for everyday function and acts as the control center for thirst. Osmoreceptors detect changes in blood water concentration to decide whether cells need to take in more water for appropriate function or contract to expel some. These receptors alert the brain's thirst mechanism and the hypothalamus that more water is required.
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medical control has ordered you to administer one tube of oral glucose to a hypoglycemic patient. immediately after receiving this order, you should:
Do the following if you have signs of hypoglycemia: Consume or consume 15–20 grammes of quick-acting carbs. These are sweet, protein- and fat-free meals and beverages that the body may quickly turn into sugar.
Test your blood sugar levels using a blood glucose metre if you take insulin or another diabetic medicine to reduce your blood sugar and you experience the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Follow your diabetes treatment plan if the result indicates low blood sugar (less than 70 mg/dL). Keep track of the results of your blood sugar testing and the steps you took to address low blood sugar levels so that your doctor may evaluate the data and help you modify your hypoglycemia treatment plan.
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on the third postpartum day the nurse is preparing a breast-feeding mother of twins for discharge. which statement by the client indicates a potential problem?
on the third postpartum day the nurse is preparing a breast-feeding mother of twins for discharge. which statement by the client indicates a potential problem
Helping the client express some milk manually before feeding
By manually expressing some of the milk before breast-feeding, the pressure and tenderness brought on by stored milk can be reduced. If all else fails, pain medication may be prescribed; nevertheless, the baby can get the medicine through breast milk. A prescription is also necessary for the nurse's dependent role of administering medication. Fluid intake shouldn't be restricted by the mother, especially if she is breastfeeding. Continue breastfeeding instead of giving formula to prevent engorgement and promote milk production.
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the labor and delivery charge nurse is making staff assignments, including assignments to a new nurse. what client is most appropriate for the new nurse?
The client that is most appropriate for the new nurse is primigravida in active phase of stage one, waiting for epidural. The correct option is 3.
What is epidural?An epidural is a back injection that relieves pain in a specific area of your body.
Epidural anesthesia is a type of epidural commonly used to relieve pain during childbirth and some types of surgery.
The primigravida provides numerous opportunities for basic and diverse skills that would be extremely beneficial to a new nurse.
This is the best client to work for because it will give you valuable experience with basic labor and delivery procedures.
Thus, the correct option is 3.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
1. A gravida 3 para 2 in active phase of stage one, expecting twins.
2. A gravida 2 para 0 at 41 weeks gestation, awaiting induction.
3. A primigravida in active phase of stage one, waiting for epidural.
4. A 12-hour post Cesarean section needing assistance to ambulate.
a client with vertigo is scheduled to have an electronystagmography in 2 weeks. what should the nurse instruct the client to do prior to the test? select all that apply.
A client who have gone through electronystagmography in 2 wees should be instructed to withhold caffeine and alcohol 48 hours before the test and withhold antivertigo agents for 5 days before the test.
What is Vertigo?
Vertigo is a symptom, rather than a condition. It is the sensation in which a person, or the environment around that person, is moving or spinning. This feeling may not be noticeable, or it may be so severe that a person find it difficult to keep balance and complete everyday tasks effectively.
Electronystagmography (ENG) is a procedure used to evaluate people with vertigo and certain other types of disorder that affect the hearing capacity and vision. In this procedure, electrodes are placed at locations above and below the eye to record the electrical activity and diagnose the problem.
When a client has undergone electronystagmography then usually the nurse instructs them to withhold caffeine and alcohol 48 hours before the test and also withhold antivertigo agents for 5 days before the test.
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a pediatric client has been prescribed dextroamphetamine (adderall) 2.5 mg po bid. how many mg would this client take each day?
Dosage of adderall: The maximum daily dose is 40 mg for adults and 30 mg for kids. Dosage of Adderall XR: The maximum daily dose is 40 mg for adults and 30 mg for kids.
What makes Adderall and dextroamphetamine different from one another?Dextroamphetamine is the generic name for the stimulant drug dextrodrine, which contains the active component. A mixture of dextroamphetamine and amphetamine makes up Adderall, on the other hand. Dextroamphetamine is present, but there is also amphetamine present,
Dextroamphetamine IR 10 mg duration of action?Despite the fact that the effects of dexedrine might last for up to ten hours, it takes the body 12 hours to eliminate only half of that quantity.
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which of the following questions does dr. arthur kleinman, a medical anthropologist at harvard university, suggest providers ask to see illness from the perspective of their patients?
What do you believe led to your issue, based on the statement? is the response.
Which term—patience or patience—is correct?If patience is a word, you may own it. Although it's not very simple to do, you may be the embodiment of patience. Patient cannot exist. Patients is the possessive form of the term patient, which refers to a person undergoing medical treatment. It is used here primarily for convenience as it resembles patience.
Why are medical patients referred to as clients?Originally, the term "patient" meant "one who suffers," or "one who has the "patience" to endure." Someone who is ill and injured and requires medical help, care, or medication from a clinician or other person with medical training is considered a patient.
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