f(n)=n-2 could some one please answer this?

I need help with this too it’s confusing and I don’t understand it.

it will be 20 squares in step four

Answer:

10 2/3 ft or approximately 10.67 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the width = w

The length is L = 2w + 2.

The perimeter is:

P = 2(L + w)

P = 2(2w + 2 + w)

P = 2(3w + 2)

P = 6w + 4 = 68

6w = 64

w = 64/6

w = 32/3 = 10 2/3

Answer: 10 2/3 ft or approximately 10.67 ft

9514 1404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the least common denominator, we have ...

  [tex]2-\dfrac{x+1}{x-2}-\dfrac{x-4}{x+2}\\\\=\dfrac{2(x-2)(x+2)-(x+1)(x+2)-(x-4)(x-2)}{(x-2)(x+2)}\\\\=\dfrac{2(x^2-4)-(x^2+3x+2)-(x^2-6x+8)}{x^2-4}\\\\=\dfrac{(2-1-1)x^2+(-3+6)x+(-8-2-8)}{x^2-4}=\boxed{\dfrac{3x-18}{x^2-4}}[/tex]

The values of a and b are ...

  a = 3

  b = -18

[tex]\mathfrak{\huge{\orange{\underline{\underline{AnSwEr:-}}}}}[/tex]

Actually Welcome to the concept of logarithms.

Since here the log is on both sides, we take antilog on both sides, so we get as,

==> 2-x = -5x - 18

==> -x + 5x = -18 -2

==> 4x = -20

==> x = -20/4

==> x = -5

hence, x = -5

Answer:

I think that you multiply the 2 numbers by x and b,

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1. 0.0469 (4.d.p)

2. 0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

1. First we'll find the probability of drawing a blue marble.

P = (No. favourable events)/(Total events)

In this case it's:

P = (No. blue marbles)/(Total Marbles)

Therefore P(Blue) = 4/16 = 0.25

Now we find the probability of drawing a yellow marble:

The total number will be the same because the blue marble will have been put back.

P(Yellow) = 3/16 = 0.1875

Now, since we are calculating the probability of both happening we multiply together the two individual probabilities to get the combined probability of both:

0.25 x 0.1875 = 0.0469 (4.d.p)

2. The probability of drawing a blue marble is still the same so we can keep that: P(Blue) = 0.25

But this time, the marble is not replaced. This means that the total number of marbles has changed when drawing the yellow marble:

P(Yellow) = 3/15 = 0.2

Now we multiply them together again to find the combined probability of both happening:

0.25 x 0.2 = 0.05

Hope this helped!

Answer:

explanation:

thats it

Answer:

15 , 20

Step-by-step explanation:

6 × 8 = 48

48 + 72 = 120

120 ÷ 48 = 2.5

>>>>>>>

6 × 2.5 = 15

8 × 2.5 = 20

Answer:

15 , 20

Step-by-step explanation:

6 × 8 = 48

48 + 72 = 120

120 ÷ 48 = 2.5

>>>>>>>

6 × 2.5 = 15

8 × 2.5 = 20

Answer:

(a)

[tex]\begin{array}{ccc}{} & {W} & {w} & {w} & {Ww } & {ww } & {w} & { Ww} & {ww } \ \end{array}[/tex]

(b)

[tex]White = 50\%[/tex]

[tex]Yellow = 50\%[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

See attachment for initial punnet square

Solving (a): Complete the square

Initially, we have:

[tex]\begin{array}{ccc}{} & {W} & {w} & {w} & { } & { } & {w} & { } & { } \ \end{array}[/tex]

To complete the square, we simply write the letter at the column and the letter at the row in each cell;

So, we have:

[tex]\begin{array}{ccc}{} & {W} & {w} & {w} & {Ww } & {ww } & {w} & { Ww} & {ww } \ \end{array}[/tex]

Solving (b): Percentage of each

From the question, we understand that W are dominant to w.

So:

[tex]Ww = White[/tex]

[tex]ww = Yellow[/tex]

From (a) above

[tex]Ww = 2[/tex]

[tex]ww = 2[/tex]

[tex]Total = 4[/tex]

So, the percentage of each is:

[tex]White = \frac{Ww}{Total} * 100\%[/tex]

[tex]White = \frac{2}{4} * 100\%[/tex]

[tex]White = 0.5 * 100\%[/tex]

[tex]White = 50\%[/tex]

[tex]Yellow = 100\% - White[/tex] --- Complement rule

[tex]Yellow = 100\% - 50\%[/tex]

[tex]Yellow = 50\%[/tex]

The ladder and the top of the building form a right triangle

The building is 20.8 feet tall

The given parameters are:

The height (h) of the building is calculated using the following Pythagoras theorem

L^2 = b^2 + h^2

So, we have:

39^2 = 33^2 + h^2

Evaluate the exponent

1521 = 1089 + h^2

Rewrite as:

h^2 = 1521 - 1089

h^2 = 432

Take the square root of both sides

h = 20.8

Hence, the building is 20.8 feet tall

Read more about right triangles at:

brainly.com/question/2437195

Given:

In a right angle triangle ABC, [tex]m\angle B=90^\circ, BC=x, AC=11, m\angle C=41^\circ[/tex].

To find:

The value of x to the nearest tenth.

Solution:

In a right angle triangle,

[tex]\cos\theta =\dfrac{Adjacent}{Hypotenuse}[/tex]

In the given right angle triangle ABC,

[tex]\cos \angle C =\dfrac{BC}{AC}[/tex]

[tex]\cos (41^\circ) =\dfrac{x}{11}[/tex]

[tex]11(0.7547) =x[/tex]

[tex]8.3017 =x[/tex]

Round the answer to the nearest tenth.

[tex]x\approx 8.3[/tex]

Therefore, the value of x is 8.3 units.

Answer: 34.3

Step-by-step explanation:

23+42+38+67+15+51+22+9+42=309

309/9

34.333333

34.3

Answer:

9, 15,22,23,38,42,42,51,67

Answer:

Smallest: 15,840 ft

Largest: 16,896 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

1 mi = 5,280 ft

Setup proportion to solve for the smallest:

[tex]\frac{1mi}{5,280ft} =\frac{3mi}{xft}[/tex]

Do butterfly method and you should get this:

[tex]xft=3(5280)\\x=15,840ft[/tex]

Setup proportion to solve for the largest:

[tex]\frac{1mi}{5,280ft} =\frac{3.2mi}{xft}[/tex]

Butterfly method:

[tex]xft=3.2(5280)\\x=16,896ft[/tex]

Answer:

(7,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Midpoint Formula = [tex](x_{1} + x_{2}/2)=[/tex] x coordinate of midpoint

same for y coordinate of midpoint

so

2=-3+x/2

4=-3+x

x=7

for y

5=6+y/2

10=6+y

y=4

therefore B(7,4)

Answer:

either B or C I think

Answer:

0.1 x 2 = 0.2

Step-by-step explanation:

when you multiply, you move the decimal once because there is one decimal place.

Answer:

925 marks.

Step-by-step explanation:

AS Biraj had 20 less marks then the  40% pass mark must be 350+20 = 370.

370  is equivalent to 40%

So 100% = 100*370 / 40

= 925 marks.

Answer:

[tex][tex] \huge green[ \mid \underline \overline[ \tt BILLIE }} \mid]][/tex] \: sorry \: i \: m \: testing \: something[/tex]

Answer with step-by-step explanation:

Let us find the perfect cubes between 1 to 100.

We know that, 1

3

=1,2

3

=8,3

3

=27,4

3

=64 and the rest numbers i.e. 4,5,6,.... have their cubes greater than 100.

So, only these four numbers have their cubes between 1 to 100.

Thus, there are 4 perfect cubes from 1 to 100.

Now, let's find the cubes between −100 to 0

We know, 0

3

=0,(−1)

3

=−1,(−2)

3

=−8,(−3)

3

=−27,(−4)

3

=−64 and the rest numbers have their cubes less than −100

So, only these 5 numbers have their cubes between −100 to 0 and 4 perfect cubes are there from 1 to 100.

Thus, there are 9 perfect cubes from −100 to 100.

plz mark me as brainliest.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3

=1,2

3

=8,3

3

=27,4

3

=64

The rest numbers i.e. 4,5,6,.... have their cubes greater than 100.

So, only these four numbers have their cubes between 1 to 100.

Thus, there are 4 perfect cubes from 1 to 100.

Now, let's find the cubes between −100 to 0

3

=0,(−1)

3

=−1,(−2)

3

=−8,(−3)

3

=−27,(−4)

3

=−64 and the rest numbers have their cubes less than −100

So, only these 5 numbers have their cubes between −100 to 0 and 4 perfect cubes are there from 1 to 100.

Thus, there are 9 perfect cubes from −100 to 100.

Answer:

B. Distribute

Step-by-step explanation:

The first step is to apply the distributive property.

Please let me know if I was correct

Answer:

Distance covered by Ruchi = 61.1 km

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula of the Speed is given by,

Speed = [tex]\frac{\text{Distance covered}}{\text{Time taken}}[/tex]

Since, Ruchi coves distance = 3.25 km

Time taken to cove this distance = 50 minutes

Therefore, speed of Ruchi = [tex]\frac{3.25}{50}[/tex]

                                            = 0.65 km per minute

Therefore, distance covered by Ruchi in 94 minutes,

0.65 = [tex]\frac{\text{Distance covered}}{94}[/tex]

Distance covered = 0.65 × 94

                              = 61.1 km

Answer:7 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

32

Step-by-step explanation:

count each cube and it equals 32

Answer:

expresion happy

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

no one cares

Step-by-step explanation:

simply, no one gives a sh1t!

Answer:

Step-by-step noitanalpxe:

cewl