Genetic engineering is due to the human selection of desired phenotypes, whereas natural selection is a slow process of differential survival and reproduction.
What does natural selection mean?According to the evolution theory, natural selection is a slow process of differential survival of the fittest organisms in a given environment.
Conversely, genetic engineering refers to the molecular biology techniques used in the laboratory to produce organisms expressing desired phenotypes.
In conclusion, genetic engineering is based on human molecular biology techniques, whereas natural selection refers to differential survival and reproduction in nature.
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Single-cell recording studies of the motor control of reaching movements have demonstrated that neurons in the motor cortex are selectively active based on the
The single cell recording studies of the motor control of reaching movements have demonstrated that neurons in the motor cortex are selectively active based on the movement of the body.
Describe the motor cortex.The primary function of the motor cortex is to generate signals to direct the movement of the body.It is part of the frontal lobe and is anterior to the central sulcus.It consists of the primary motor cortex, premotor cortex, and supplementary motor area.The primary motor cortex, situated in Brodmann area 4, sends most electrical impulses coming out of the motor complex.The premotor complex is situated just anterior to the primary motor cortex. Its function is to prepare for movements, especially proximal musculature.The supplementary motor cortex is on the medial surface of the longitudinal fissure, just anterior to the leg representation in the primary motor cortex. Although not fully understood, proposed functions include body postural stabilization and coordination.To learn more about Motor cortex,
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3. What is peptidoglycan?
combination of polypeptides and modified sugars that enclose the entire eubacteria
a special molecule that helps make proteins
a special molecule that helps eubacteria to make their own food
a combination of sugars and lipids that make up the cell membrane
Answer:
A combination of polypeptides and modified sugars that enclose the entire eubacteria.
Explanation:
A component of bacterial cell walls called peptidoglycan (PGN) promotes innate immune responses. Peptidoglycan, a polymer made of sugars and amino acids, creates the cell wall of the majority of bacteria by producing a layer that resembles a mesh outside the plasma membrane. N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid residues are alternated in the sugar component. forms a saccules in the cell wall of most bacteria that resembles a bag. It controls bacterial cell shape and is crucial for osmotic stability. A heteropolymer made up of glycan strands carrying small peptides is known as a peptidoglycan.
Answer:
I hope this helps.
Explanation:
Some of the mechanisms by which enzyme catalytic activity is controlled are: A. allosteric control. B. feedback inhibition. C. covalent modification. D. A and C. E. A, B, and C.
Some of the mechanisms by which catalytic activity is controlled are option(e) i.e, A, B, and C, (allosteric control, feedback inhibition, and covalent modification)
What is the catalytic activity?The acceleration of chemical reactions brought on by the presence of a catalyst. A catalyst value is measured as a rise in the reaction rate.
Specific surface area, pore structure, oxygen-containing functional groups, and the amount of ash and its components all have an impact on how well AC catalysts perform. The role that specific surface areas and pore shapes play in methane adsorption is significant.
Examples are:
1) The hydrogenation of palm oil into margarine uses the metal nickel or Ni. 2) The Haber process makes use of iron, Fe.There are three different forms of catalysis, depending on the nature and physical condition of the materials used in the chemical reaction.
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Write a paragraph explaining how adhesion cohesion and capillary action all enable water to go from the roots to the top of the tree
Adhesion, cohesion and capillary action enable water to go from the roots to the top of the tree due to its specific property.
How adhesion cohesion and capillary action move water to the top?Capillary action helps to bring water to the upper parts from the roots but to a small distance due to strong gravity. In order to get water up to all the branches and leaves, the forces of adhesion and cohesion work together in the plant's xylem to move water to the upper body.
So we can conclude that adhesion, cohesion and capillary action enable water to go from the roots to the top of the tree due to its specific property.
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The interplay of the force is adhesion and cohesion helps to move the water up the roots to the top of the tree.
How does water move up a tree?We know that water is a polar molecule hence the dipole dipole interaction tends to make the molecules of water to coalesce together. This is the force of cohesion.
The force of adhesion binds the water molecule to other surfaces hence it cam interact with the xylem cells. Capillary action is the process that enable the water to enter the roots.
Thus the interplay of the force is adhesion and cohesion helps to move the water up the roots to the top of the tree.
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How do convection cells affect global climate?
A. The Coriolis effect results in high rainfall and produce Africa's rainforests. El Nino oscillations occur at 30 degrees north and south
resulting in very little rain and produce Africa's deserts.
B. High pressure areas at the equator result in high rainfall and produce Africa's rainforests. Low pressure areas occur at 30 degrees north
and south resulting in very little rain and produce Africa's deserts.
C. Low pressure areas at the equator result in high rainfall and produce Africa's rainforests. High pressure areas occur at 30 degrees north
and south, resulting in very little rain and produce Africa's deserts.
D. El Nino oscillations result in high rainfall and produce Africa's rainforests. The Coriolis effect occurs at 30 degrees north and south
resulting in very little rain and produce Africa's deserts.
Reset Selection
Option C. Low pressure areas at the equator result in high rainfall and produce Africa's rainforests. High pressure areas occur at 30 degrees north and south, resulting in very little rain and produce Africa's deserts.
What are convective cells?At a global level, it occurs unequal warming of the atmosphere, which depends on many factors and varies with latitude. This effect occurs because solar radiation reaches the earth differently at different latitudes.
Unequal warming of the atmosphere results in convective circulation cells: Hardley cell, Ferrel cell, and Polar cell.
The term convective cell refers to air getting warm, expanding, and ascending. As it gets to higher altitudes, it gets colder and thicker, and hence descends again.
In each hemisphere,
Warm air ascends at the equator and approximately at 60º latitude. Cold air descends at approximately 30º latitude and at the poles.These air masses' circulation generates superficial winds that blow toward the equator between 0º-30º latitude and toward the poles between 30º-60º latitude.
Hardley cell ⇒ It occurs between 0º and 30º latitude (north and south).While the tropical air gets warmer, it ascends and produces a low atmospheric pressure area over the equator.
The dense air coming from the north and south moves to a low-pressure area and forms the superficial winds that blow toward the equator.
As the warmed air ascends, it is pushed by new masses of warm air that are also rising. The equator turns to be the divergence point where warm masses of air rise and get separated as they get colder and pushed to the different poles.
When the air gets cold enough, it descends again at approximately 30º latitude (north and south). This is the horse's latitude. And the cycle starts all over again.
The Ferrel cell ⇒ It occurs between 30º and 60º latitude The polar cell ⇒ occurs between 60º and the poles.High-pressure zones send cold winds from the poles to lower latitudes toward the equator.
As these winds go to lower latitudes they get warmed, and they start accumulating humidity.
Approximately at 60 degrees latitude, they meet with warm winds coming from the horses' latitude (30 degrees latitude). They both ascend while getting cooled. They cannot maintain humidity, so it precipitates.
Then winds move back to the poles, where they get cold again, so the cycle continues.
In conclusion,
0º and 60º latitude ⇒ low pressure30º and 90º latitude ⇒ high pressureThe correct option is C.
Low pressure areas at the equator result in high rainfall and produce Africa's rainforests.
High pressure areas occur at 30 degrees north and south, resulting in very little rain and produce Africa's deserts.
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Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the?
Why is soil erosion more common in areas that lack adequate vegetation?
Select one:
O a. Because gravity pulls on the plants and increases erosion.
Ob.
Because plant roots help keep the soil in place.
O c.
Because the lack of adequate vegetation affects the soil pressure and erosion rate.
Od. Because soil erosion is stopped by reduced vegetation.
Answer:
B: Because plant roots help keep the soil in place.
Brainliest?
From your perspective, how does the frequency of the waves appear to change as the airplane approches and then passes you ?
Answer:
The frequency of the waves appear to change as the airplane approaches and then passes you because the sound waves are being compressed as the airplane moves closer to you. The sound waves are being stretched out as the airplane moves away from you.
Explanation:
Which phylum of protozoa contains organisms that are non-motile, obligate intracellular parasites?.
Answer:
The answer is Apicomplexa.
Hope this helps:-):-)
A 25-year-old man who had just recovered from Infectious mononucleosis had evidence of a genital lesion. His RPR test was positive. What should the Medical technologist do next
If his test is positive, he might have syphilis.
The following step is to confirm the diagnosis using a more accurate syphilis test, like FTA-ABS. The FTA-ABS test will aid in differentiating syphilis from other infections or diseases.
What is the RPR test?Rapid Plasma Regain, or RPR, is a syphilis screening test. It evaluates the presence of molecules (proteins) known as antibodies in the blood of individuals who may have the disease. It is frequently used to test pregnant women for the condition and is used to check people who exhibit signs of STDs. The effectiveness of syphilis therapy is also evaluated using the test. Antibody levels for syphilis should decrease following antibiotic therapy. Another RPR test can be used to keep track of these values. Levels that stay the same or increase may indicate an ongoing infection. Infectious mononucleosis: The Epstein-Barr virus is the common infectious agent that causes infectious mononucleosis (EBV). The term "glandular fever" is used more frequently. Young adults between the ages of 15 and 25 are most commonly affected by infectious mononucleosis. It affects all races and is equally prevalent in both sexes. By the time they are adults, up to approximately 95 percent of persons have EBV infection. There is no seasonal preference in the disease's occurrence worldwide.
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a sparrow. We cannot see its ears. Which of these actions by the sparrow shows us that it can hear?
A sparrow. We cannot see their ears. One action of the sparrow that shows us that it can hear is when it listens to other birds or responds to sound stimuli produced.
How is the bird's ear?The ears are on the side of the skull, just like in other land animals, but the difference is that they don't have the ears. To find the ears you need to take them in your hands or when they are wet. So be careful with the bath!!
With this information, we can conclude that a bird's song is perceived by the brains of its companions in a similar way to the way the human brain deals with music.
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The reason animals need a continuous supply of oxygen jis to _______________________. make carbon dioxide dispose of carbon dioxide carry out glycolysis obtain energy from their food
The reason animals need a continuous supply of oxygen is to Obtain energy from their food.
The most fundamental reason why animals need a non-stop delivery of oxygen is without it animals can't achieve sufficient power from their meals.
Cells require a steady delivery of power to generate and preserve the biological order that keeps them alive. This electricity is derived from the chemical bond energy in food molecules, which thereby function as fuel for cells.
The animal's metabolism converts oxygen into strength. All through this system, a waste gas called carbon dioxide is produced. To remove it, the carbon dioxide is carried lower back to the lungs, where its miles are collected and exhaled.
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A population of panthers lives in the southeastern united states. over 50 years, the size of the panther population in the region increased. what best explains the increase in the size of the panther population?
a.the panther population is always increasing because no animal eats panthers.
b. fewer panthers were born than died. fewer panthers were born than died.
c. more panthers were born than died. more panthers were born than died.
d. a lot of panthers were born and none of them died.a lot of panthers were born and none of them died.
more panthers were born than died. more panthers were born than died
The population of the Florida panther once dwindled to below two dozen, but it has since rebounded to more than 200
What is the panther population in Florida ?Today there are only 120 to 130 Florida panthers left in the wild. They are found in southern Florida in swamplands such as Everglades National Park and Big Cypress National Preserve
Florida's largest wild cat species, the panther is critically endangered, but has been making a slow and steady comeback since numbers sunk to just 20 individuals in the 1970's. As of 2021, most estimates place the present day population at around 200.By far the greatest threats to Florida panthers are habitat loss, fragmentation and degradation — all driven by Florida's burgeoning human population and the developments and highways that accommodate it.Learn more about Florida Panther here:
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Bioaugmentation involves Group of answer choices adding nitrogen and phosphorus to an area in need of remediation. adding specialized microbes to an area in need of remediation. producing humus from plant waste. producing a methane by-product for powering facility equipment. using microbes to filter out impurities from leach water.
Answer:
Bioaugmentation involves adding specialized microbes to an area in need of remediation.
Explanation:
The practice of adding specialized microbes for degrading specific substances such as contaminants, and biodegradable substances. This will increase the rate of degradation or catabolism of the said materials. They will help to resolve the problem of waste that is being produced every day.
They fall into two different strategies as they can be enriched by indigenous and non-indigenous microorganisms. They are not used for enriching the nutrients in the soil, producing humus, methane, etc. There can be byproducts of bioaugmentation and such byproducts can be increased availability of soil nutrients, methane, etc. But it is not the primary purpose of bioaugmentation.
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How are proteins built using the information provided by a molecule of RNA?
Answer:
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) associates with a set of proteins to form ribosomes. These complex structures, which physically move along an mRNA molecule, catalyze the assembly of amino acids into protein chains. They also bind tRNAs and various accessory molecules necessary for protein synthesis.
Explanation:
Fatty acids, in particular, essential fatty acids alpha-linolenic and linoleic acid are intimately related to managing inflammation in the body.
Answer:
A cell's messenger RNA molecules contain instructions that are read by the ribosome, which then uses these mRNAs to assemble amino acids into proteins in the precise order specified by the mRNA.
⇒ How are proteins formed?
In essence, proteins are very long sequences of chemicals known as amino acids. A protein's specific amino acid arrangement defines the form it will take, which in turn affects what it will accomplish. For instance, certain proteins have the ideal structure to grasp two more molecules and smush them together in order to combine them (these proteins are called enzymes). Other proteins have the ideal structure to transport significant substances (like hemoglobin, which is a protein that carries oxygen around your blood). Your DNA is also a long chain of molecules, but these molecules are called nucleotides. There are four main nucleotides that make up the chain, and each is represented by a letter (A, C, T, and G). The sequence of "letters" in DNA contains all the information to make proteins in your body. Scientists represent DNA by writing out the sequence of "letters," like ATCTGCCATCCCGT. Now here's the important bit: these letters are arranged in 3-letter words that "mean" an amino acid. For example, "ATC" in DNA corresponds with an amino acid called glutamine. A long chain of these three letter words will match perfectly the chain of amino acids in a protein. So if a protein has amino acids 1, 2, and 3, the DNA corresponding to that protein will have the 3-letter words that mean amino acids 1, 2, and 3 in order. A sequence of DNA that matches a protein is called a gene. When it's time to make a protein, your body unravels the DNA and makes a copy of the gene on a different, very similar molecule called messenger RNA (mRNA). This copying is called transcription--like you're transcribing your notes from your notebook to your computer. This mRNA flies out to a thing in your cells called a ribosome, which actually goes through and READS the RNA sequence and attaches amino acids in the right order. So it will go "okay, these 3 letters mean this amino acid, the next 3 letters mean this amino acid, etc." and just attach all the amino acids in a row.* So you end up with a long long chain (hundreds, even thousands!) of amino acids in the exact sequence of the DNA letters that you had originally. This process of matching DNA "words" to amino acids is called translation--like you're translating from the "language" of DNA to the "language" of proteins/amino acids. This long chain of amino acids then detaches itself from the ribosome, folds itself up, and voila! You have a protein! This is happening millions of times constantly all around your body as all your cells make all the proteins they need to function. Now in reality, it's actually a lot more complicated than that--the DNA isn't always in the right order, the protein can get "cut" and shaped by other things after it detaches, etc. But this is the basic process and is what you need to know!
⇒ How does DNA/RNA store information?
Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine/uracil are the four bases that make up the quaternary code, which is the sort of coding used by DNA and RNA to store information. Ribonucleic acid (more particularly, messenger RNA) is introduced when a cell needs to code for a protein. Temporarily attaching to the DNA bases, the mRNA bases duplicate the DNA's instructions. The mRNA next exits the nucleus and enters the ribosomes. Then transfer RNA, or tRNA, enters the picture. It has a three-base region (a codon) that binds to the mRNA and an amino acid linked to the end. The amino acid is then released once the tRNA attaches to the mRNA. After that, it joins a protein or polypeptide chain.
Frozen red blood cells that have been thawed, deglycerolized and reconstituted in an open system must be used within _______.
Frozen red blood cells that have been thawed, deglycerolized and reconstituted in an open system must be used within 24 hours.
Cryopreservation of Red blood cells (RBCs) can be done with a long time span of usability of 10 years. Glycerol safeguards RBCs during freezing and defrosting, yet it can cause hemolysis if it is not washed off or eliminated before transfusion. When a unit has been deglycerolized, the shelf life of RBCs in an open system is only 24 hours, bringing about sporadic utilization of Frozen RBCs from the outset of the procedure or in close system cases it is up to 14 days.
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Frozen red blood cells that have been thawed, deglycerolized and reconstituted in an open system must be used within 24 hours.
The classical way of preserving the blood cells is to store them at low temperatures. The phenomenon by which the red blood cells are frozen and defrosted is called cryopreservation. This process requires the use of glycerol to safeguard the RBCs from damage. The glycerol is washed off prior to transfusion to avoid hemolysis. After removal of glycerol, the shelf life of RBCs in case of an open system is only for 24 hours. This creates the need of immediate use of the frozen RBCs. However, in case of close system, the RBC utilization period is up to 14 days.
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HELP PLEASE
Pathogen-specific defenses in the body include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. t-cells
B. Ingestion of bacteria
C. B-cells
D. Antibodies
Answer:
B. Ingestion of bacteria
Explanation:
Phagocytosis is not pathogen-specific
Ingestion of bacteria is not a pathogen-specific defence; it is a general mechanism of the immune system to clear any harmful particles, including bacteria. The correct option is B.
Pathogen-specific defences involve T-cells, B-cells, and antibodies, which target and eliminate specific types of pathogens in a highly specialized manner.
T-cells: They are a part of the pathogen-specific defence system. T-cells help identify and destroy infected cells and regulate the immune response.B-cells: B-cells are another type of white blood cell that is essential in the immune response. They produce antibodies, which are proteins that specifically target and neutralize specific pathogens. D. Antibodies: Antibodies are produced by B-cells and are a key part of the pathogen-specific defence system. They recognize and bind to specific pathogens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells.Whereas, ingestion of bacteria is a general mechanism of the immune system, where white blood cells called macrophages engulf and destroy bacteria and other foreign particles.
Thus, the correct answer is B.
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A cancer cell is injected into a healthy mouse. The mouse develops tumors. This experiment indicates that cancer is
A cancer cell is injected into a healthy mouse. The mouse develops tumors. This experiment indicates that cancer is contact inhibited.
Cancer can be described as a condition where some cells lost their ability to stop dividing and they keep dividing resulting in the formation of cell clusters known as tumors which can grow at a particular place (Benign tumor) or can invade and spread to other parts of the body (Malignant tumor) creating severe health conditions leading to death.
When a cancerous cell is injected into a healthy mouse it keeps on replicating there as well which shows that cancerous cells do not stop dividing when the place becomes full and they come in contact with other cells. There will be no change in their behavior and they keep on replicating.
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A synapsis is the X-like formation that represents an exchange of genetic material between chromatids on homologous chromosomes. Select one: True False
False
Reason:chiasmata is the x-like formation that does this chromatids are attached to one another.
What is synapsis chiasmata?Homologous chromosomal pairing is referred to as synaptism.This takes place in the second prophase I or zygotene stage.Chiasmata are the points at which homologous pairs of chromosomes come into contact. The non-sister chromatids of the homologous pairs swap chromosomal segments at the location of chiasmata.
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A peacock is significantly more colorful than a pea hen and has a much larger tail. These traits allow the peacock to attract a mate but also make the peacock more visible to predators. This is an example of:
Answer:
This is an example of runaway sexual selection
Which of these atmospheric layers is the largest (spans the most height)
Answer:
Troposphere is the correct answer
The gracilis, sartorius, pectineus, and three adductor muscles collectively make up a part of the anatomical region on the inner thigh referred to as the _____.
The Gracilis, Sartorius, Pectinius, and tree Adductor muscles collectively make up a part of the anatomical region on the inner thigh referred to as groin.
Mention the muscles of the thigh.The musculature of the thigh can be split into three sections; anterior, medial, and posterior.There are three major muscles in the anterior thigh- the pectineus, sartorius, and quadriceps femoris.These are innervated by the Femoral nerve.The muscles in the medial compartment of the thigh are collectively called the hip adductors.There are five muscles in this group; gracilis, obturator externus, adductor brevis, adductor longus and adductor magnus.These are innervated by the obturator nerve.The muscles in the posterior compartment of the thigh are called hamstrings.They consist of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.These are innervated by the sciatic nerve.Together, gracilis, sartorius, pectineus, and three adductor muscles lie on the inner side of the thigh and form the groin.To learn more about Muscles of the thigh,
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Incorporation of _____, a neutral antibiotic, into a polyvinyl chloride membrane allows for the manufacture of an ion-selective electrode that is highly selective for potassium.
The incorporation of valinomycin, a neutral antibiotic, into a polyvinyl chloride membrane allows for the manufacture of an ion-selective electrode that is highly selective for potassium.
How Valinomycin Ionophores Enter and Transport K+ across Model Lipid Bilayer Membranes?A biomimetic lipid membrane attached to the surface of the gold electrode contained the cyclic peptide valinomycin. The ionophore characteristics of the peptide were investigated using electrochemical impedance spectroscopy, and the conformation and orientation of the antibiotic valinomycin within the membrane were identified using polarization modulation infrared reflection absorption spectroscopy. By forming a complex with potassium ions and an ion pair with a counter anion, valinomycin transports ions across the membrane, and the combination of these two techniques revealed novel information about the ionophore mechanism. The ion pair is located inside the hydrophobic portion of the membrane and makes a little angle of around 22° with the surface normal.To learn more about Valinomycin refer to:
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When forest areas are clear-cut for timber, spaces previously filled with trees become open areas that have full access to sunlight. Which plant populations would be best suited for this newly generated environment
Those that produce many offspring would be best suited for this newly generated environment.
A phenomenon called genetic flow can also motivate species to conform. In genetic float, a few organisms. in simple terms by way of risk produce extra offspring than might be anticipated. The one's organisms are not always the fittest in their species, however, it is their genes that get passed directly to the next era.
Due to the fact resources are limited in nature, organisms with heritable trends that favor survival and replica will have a tendency to leave greater offspring than their friends, causing the developments to increase in frequency over generations.
Overproduction is a driving pressure in natural selection, as it may result in variation and versions in a species. Darwin argued that every one species overproduce since they have got greater offspring than can realistically attain reproductive age, based on the resources available.
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Gene expression can be regulated differently along the central dogma. Which regulation type would have the fastest effect
Post-translation modification regulation type would have the fastest effect.
Gene expression can be defined as a process in which the information stored in genes in the form of nucleotides gets translated into proteins. This whole gene expression process takes place in multiple steps which are combined as central dogma where the process of formation of new DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) from pre-existing DNA molecules is termed Replication, the process of transcribing this DNA into mRNA is termed Transcription and the process of translating these mRNA into functional proteins is known as translation.
Post-translation modifications (PTM) as their name suggests are the modifications to the newly synthesized proteins that occur after the completion of the translation process. Phosphorylation, acetylation, hydroxylation, and methylation are some of the commonly known PTMs.
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During an action potential, activation of voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels occurs at different rates. What is the effect of this difference on ion flow across an axon membrane?.
K+ departs the cell after Na+, which enters the cell first. Ions can move freely across the axon membrane because of the difference during the action potential.
Because sodium contains a positive charge, the neuron becomes more positive and depolarized. Potassium channels take longer to open. As soon as the cell does open, K+ rushes out, reversing the depolarization.Sodium channels close during the peak of the action potential when potassium leaves the cell. When potassium ions are effluxed, the membrane potential is lowered or the cell becomes hyperpolarized.Because it depends on adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for power, the sodium/potassium pump is sometimes referred to as an ATPase. Outside of the cell, the concentration of Na+ is greater than inside the cell. while the concentration of K+ is is greater inside the cell than outside.learn more about action potential here: https://brainly.com/question/6705448
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In a sample of yeast DNA, 30% of the bases are adenine (A). Predict the approximate percentages of C, G, and T. Explain.
Answer:
A + G = T + C. Here, [A] = 30%, therefore, % of [T] is also 30%. Thus, [G]+[C] = 100 - 60 = 40%. [G] = 20% and [C] = 20%.
According to Chargaff’s rule, in all cellular DNAs, regardless of the species, number of adenosine residues is equal to the number of thymidine residues which means that A=T; and the number of guanosine residues is equal to the number of cytidine residues; G = C.
In a sample of yeast DNA with 30% Adenine, the approximate percentages of C, G, and T bases are as follows:
Thymine - 30%Guanine - 20%Cytosine - 20%What is DNA composition?The DNA, which stores genetic information in living cells is made up monomers called nucleotides.
These nucleotides are four in number and are as follows:
AdenineAdenineThymineAdenineThymineCytosineAdenineThymineCytosineGuanineHowever, in a DNA molecule, adenine and thymine bases are hydrogen-paired while Guanine and cytosine based are also hydrogen-paired.
This means that if a DNA molecule contains 30% Adenine, there will also be 30% Thymine. There are 40% left to be shared between cytosine and guanine equally, which is 20% each.
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Alopecia, also known as __________, is the partial or complete loss of hair that occurs most commonly on the scalp.
Answer:
Baldness
Explanation: hair loss, or absence of hair. Baldness is usually most noticeable on the scalp, but can happen anywhere on the body where hair grows.
Explain how chromosomes work?
Answer:
Hope my answer will help you .
Explanation:
In the nucleus of each cell, the DNA molecule is packaged into thread-like structures called chromosomes. Each chromosome is made up of DNA tightly coiled many times around proteins called histones that support its structure.
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C cells of the thyroid gland secrete __________. C cells of the thyroid gland secrete __________. tetraiodothyronine cortisol calcitonin triiodothyronine
C cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin.
What does C cells of thyroid gland produce?The thyroid follicle, which is the gland's active component, is encircled by a single layer of epithelial cells, and the lumen is stuffed with colloidal material. It includes parafollicular cells, or C cells, which release calcitonin.The C-cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin, a 32 amino acid hormone.When the concentration of blood calcium has grown over the usual range, the thyroid gland releases the hormone calcitonin, which lowers the level. The parafollicular cells, sometimes referred to as the C cells, of the thyroid gland are the principal producers of this polypeptide hormone, which has 32 amino acids.Learn more about thyroid gland here:
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Disclaimer: The question was given incomplete on the portal. Here is the complete question.
Question: The C cells of the thyroid gland secrete
a) TSH.
b) parathormone.
c) thyroxine.
d) triiodothyronine.
e) calcitonin