cells within the tissues of adult organisms are constantly being replaced, yet the tissues remain the same size. Which description BEST explain this?
the rate of cell death is lowerthan the rate of cell division
the rate of cell death and cell division are equal
the rate of cell death is grater than the fate of cell division
the rate of cell death is more predictable than the rate of cell division

Cells Within The Tissues Of Adult Organisms Are Constantly Being Replaced, Yet The Tissues Remain The

Answers

Answer 1

Best description to explain cells within the tissues of adult organisms are constantly being replaced, yet the tissues remain the same size is

b. the rate of cell death and cell division are equal.

In general , the presence of cell organelles namely, lysosomes it is concluded that cells have a life span and death as seen in a living entity. This is well known that cell age, deteriorate, get damaged and die through a process known as apoptosis.

Hence, Apoptosis is an active, programmed process of autonomous cellular replacement that avoids eliciting inflammation. Necrosis has been characterized as passive, accidental cell death resulting from environmental disturbance.

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Related Questions

which of the following statements describes the role of the transport protein in facilitated diffusion?
Transport proteins provide the energy for diffusion of the solute.
Transport proteins organize the phospholipids to allow the solute to cross the membrane.
Transport proteins provide a protein site for ATP hydrolysis, which facilitates the movement of a solute across a membrane.
Transport proteins allow solutes to move passively down their concentration gradients across the membrane.
Transport proteins provide a low-resistance channel for water molecules to cross the membrane.

Answers

Statement D: Transport proteins allow solutes to move passively down their concentration gradients across the membrane.

and statement E: Transport proteins provide a low-resistance channel for water molecules to cross the membrane

describes the role of the transport protein in facilitated diffusion.

The passive transport (without the use of energy) of molecules down the concentration gradient is known as facilitated diffusion. It is a selective process, meaning that only specific molecules and ions can pass through the membrane.

However, it blocks the passage of other molecules across the membrane. The diffusion of molecules through the membrane is aided by the electric charge and pH.

The two main groups of proteins that mediate assisted diffusion are:

Carrier proteins Channel proteins

Special channel proteins which allow easy movement of water are known as aquaporins, which are described in statement E.

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The ___ areas of the cerebral cortex is important in integrating input from various sensory, visual, and auditory sources in order to interpret an overall situation.

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The cerebral cortex's association regions play a crucial role in combining information from diverse sensory, visual, and auditory sources in order to comprehend a scenario as a whole.

Result for an image In order to perceive a situation as a whole, information from many sensory, visual, and auditory sources must be combined in the association regions of the cerebral cortex.

These cerebral cortex regions are known as the "sensory areas," and they process sensory data from your environment and senses. Making sense of visual data and object recognition are some of its functions. The visual cortex is a part of your occipital lobe that processes these tasks.

The sensory, motor, and association areas of the cerebral cortex are three distinct divisions that each perform a different function. The majority of human cognition and behavior are accounted for by the interaction of these three regions.

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Question 27 The Eyes of Dr. T.J. Eckleburg symbolizes A. negative economic impact of prohibition laws B. a moral center in the novel C. growing economic prosperity through industry D. Gatsby's hopes and dreams for the future​

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Answer:

B. a moral center in the novel

a pathogen that lives on mucous membranes but does not survive very long in the outside environment is most likely transferred from one host to another. True or False

Answers

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

It is true that a pathogen that lives on mucous membranes is most likely transferred from one host to another. Mucous membranes are moist linings in the body that are found in areas such as the mouth, nose, and genitals, and are a common site for the colonization of pathogenic bacteria and viruses.

Because these pathogens thrive in moist environments, they are often spread through close contact between individuals, such as through kissing, sexual activity, or sharing utensils or other objects that come into contact with mucous membranes.

However, it is not necessarily true that such pathogens do not survive for very long in the outside environment, as this can vary depending on the specific pathogen in question. Some pathogens may be able to survive for a short time on objects or surfaces outside the body, while others may be able to survive for longer periods of time in the right conditions.

TRUE/FALSE. those who have a homozygous genotype will exhibit the symptoms of cystic fibrosis, including abnormalities of the pancreas, intestine, sweat glands, and lungs.

Answers

Those who have a homozygous recessive genotype will exhibit the symptoms of cystic fibrosis, including abnormalities of the pancreas, intestine, sweat glands, and lungs.

In the field of science, cystic fibrosis can be described as an autosomal recessive disorder that damages many vital organs of the body such as the pancreas, lungs, etc.

Cystic fibrosis occurs when both the alleles for the disease are recessive. In such a case, the individual will need to have a homozygous recessive genotype. The CFTR gene is responsible for cystic fibrosis and hence a person with a homozygous recessive genotype will get the disease. This means that those people that have both the recessive alleles for the CFTR gene will show symptoms of cystic fibrosis.

Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:

Fill In The Blank

Those who have a homozygous ............... genotype will exhibit the symptoms of cystic fibrosis, including abnormalities of the pancreas, intestine, sweat glands, and lungs.

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sum1 help me on disss​

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

The reactants are on the left side of the chemical equation. They react together to form new substances, forming the products which are on the right side of the equation.

the maintenance of a resting membrane potential is due to three factors:(1) the concentration of k (click to select) the membrane is (click to select) than that (click to select) the membrane.(2) the concentration of na (click to select) the membrane is (click to select) than that (click to select) the membrane.(3) the membrane is (click to select) permeable to k than na .

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the maintenance of a resting membrane potential is due to three factors:(1) the concentration of k (click to select) the membrane is (click to select) than that (click to select) the membrane

What do you mean by resting membrane potential ?

The resting membrane potential is a voltage across the cell membrane of a resting or non- signaling neuron.

It can be determined by concentration gradients of ions across the membrane and by membrane permeability to each type of ion,  a single neuron with resting membrane potential is about -70 mV (mV=millivolt)

At resting condition,  more sodium ions outside the neuron and more potassium ions inside that neuron.

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which of the following laboratory test (s) would be helpful in differentiating dic from fibrinolysis?

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A laboratory test that helps in differentiating dic from fibrinolysis is the factor V test.

A coagulation test is a medical examination performed to measure the level of blood's ability to clot. An examination is also carried out to measure the time it takes for the blood to clot. By doing this test can detect the risk of bleeding or blood clots in blood vessels.

To distinguish DIC from fibrolysis, a coagulation test can be used to check for factor V. Check for factor V is one of the important substances that play a role in the process of blood clotting. Low factor V levels may be indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) disorders. So the most helpful laboratory test for differentiating fibrinolysis from DIC or disseminated intravascular coagulation is to use the factor V test. The use of the factor V test can help determine if the disease is DIC.

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despite their classification as protists, the evolutionary tree suggests that amoebas and the green algae are more closely related to animals and plants, respectively, than one another.

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As a result, some protists may share a closer relationship with plants, animals, or fungi than they do with other protists.

Any eukaryotic organism (i.e., one whose cells include a cell nucleus) that is not an animal, plant, or fungus is referred to as a protist. Protists do not constitute a natural group, or clade, even though it is believed that they share a common ancestor with other eukaryotes (the last eukaryotic common ancestor). As a result, some protists may share a closer relationship with plants, animals, or fungi than they do with other protists. However, the biological category protist is employed for practical reasons, much like the groupings of algae, invertebrates, and protozoans. Others define a protist as any unicellular eukaryotic microbe.  Protistology is the study of protists.

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when drawing blood cultures, a ma should prepare a patient's skin using which of the following products
hydrogen peroxide
Glutaraldehyde
sterile water
iodine solution

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when drawing blood cultures, a ma should prepare a patient's skin using iodine solution.

Antiseptic agents in dermatologic surgery commonly include chlorhexidine, povidone-iodine, chloroxylenol, isopropyl alcohol, hexachlorophene, benzalkonium chloride, and hydrogen peroxide.Included on the label should be at least the first and last name of the patient, the medical record or identification number, the date and time of collection, initials of the person collecting the specimen, and any other information required by the collecting facility.Tops of the culture bottles must be free of contaminants when inoculated. Typically, culture bottles with plastic caps can be clean with 70% isopropyl alcohol after removing the flip-off cap. It is suggested that a clean alcohol prep pad be placed on top of each bottle after cleaning.

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Discriminate the highlighted structure, which terminates at the confluence of sinuses, from the other dural venous sinuses. Siymaid Sinus Superior Petrosal Situs Superior Sagittal Sinus Occipital Sinus Transverse Sinus

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Deep to the skull's occipital protuberance is where the superior sagittal sinus connects with other sinuses, creating the confluence of sinuses. After reaching this location, blood continues to flow into the left and right transverse sinuses. occipital sinus and straight sinus.

In what strata are the dural venous sinuses defined?

The dural venous sinuses, also known as dural sinuses, cerebral sinuses, or cranial sinuses, are venous channels that can be discovered in the brain's dura mater between the endosteal and meningeal layers.

Where does the confluence of the sinuses' dural venous sinuses drain?

Together, the left and right sigmoid sinuses drain venous blood into the internal jugular vein, which leaves the body through the jugular foramen.

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The dominant gene is expressed when present; the recessive gene is expressed only in the absence of the dominant gene.1)Polygenic inheritance2)Dominant-recessive inheritance3)Incomplete dominance4)Sex-linked inheritance5)Multiple-allele inheritance

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Polygenic inheritance, Dominant-recessive inheritance, Incomplete dominance, and Multiple-allele inheritance are all types of inheritance in which the dominant gene is expressed when present and the recessive gene is expressed only in the absence of the dominant gene. Sex-linked inheritance is a type of inheritance in which the expression of a trait is determined by genes located on the sex chromosomes.

1) Polygenic Inheritance: This type of inheritance occurs when the phenotype (physical characteristics) of an organism are determined by two or more genes. The phenotype is determined by the interaction between these genes, as well as the environment. For example, the colour of a flower may be determined by the interaction between multiple genes, as well as the environment in which the flower is grown.

2) Dominant-Recessive Inheritance: This type of inheritance occurs when one gene is dominant and the other is recessive. A dominant gene is expressed when present, while a recessive gene is expressed only in the absence of the dominant gene. For example, the colour of a person's eyes may be determined by a dominant gene for brown eyes and a recessive gene for blue eyes.

3) Incomplete Dominance: This type of inheritance occurs when neither of the two alleles are completely dominant over the other. Instead, the phenotype of the organism is a combination of the two alleles. For example, the colour of a flower may be determined by two alleles that produce a pink colour when combined.

4) Sex-Linked Inheritance: This type of inheritance occurs when a gene is located on the X or Y chromosome.

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Match each part of a tooth with the correct description, Living, bone-like tissue covered with cementum 1. Crown Cusps 2. Neck Covering that resists abrasion 3. Root 4. Pulp cavity In the socket 5. Dentin Has nerves and blood vessels 6. Enamel Under the gum Question 20 (3 points) Match each part of the stomach with the correct description. From esophagus 1. Cardiac opening To the small intestine To the sm 2. Fundus Left 3. Greater curvature Right 4. Lesser curvature 5. Pyloric opening Superior region 6. Body Largest portion

Answers

1. Crown-Covering that resists abrasion,2. Neck-Living, bone-like tissue covered with cementum,3. Root-Has nerves and blood vessels, 4. Pulp-cavity In the socket, 5. Dentin- Under the gum  6. Enamel-Cusps .

What are a tooth's four primary components?

Four dental tissues make up your teeth. Enamel, dentin, and cementum are three of the hard tissues. The tooth's pulp, which is composed of connective tissue, blood vessels, and nerves, is the fourth tissue and is a soft, non-calcified tissue.

Cement is a living tissue, right?

Dental cementum is a live tissue that keeps developing throughout time. The calcified substance that coats the outside of the tooth root serves as an attachment point for the periodontal ligaments that secure the tooth to the alveolar bone in the socket.

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suppose an organism with genotype aabbee undergoes a meiotic non-disjunction in meiosis i of the chromosomes that carry the a gene. all three genes assort independently on different chromosomes. if the gametes produced by this organism fused with gametes of an organism with genotype aabbee, indicate the percentage of zygotes with each of the following genotypes that are formed:

Answers

There will be 25% chance that an organism with genotype aabbee undergoes a meiotic non-disjunction in meiosis i of the chromosomes that carry the a gene. all three genes assort independently on different chromosomes. if the gametes produced by this organism fused with gametes of an organism with genotype aabbee.

The genetic components that make up a genotype in an organism. The alleles or genetic variations that a person possesses in a particular gene or genetic area are known as their genotype. The number of alleles a person can have for a particular gene depends on the ploidy, or number of copies of each chromosome, present in that species. Since humans are diploid, each individual has two alleles for each gene (have two full sets of chromosomes). When both alleles are present in a genotype, it is said to be homozygous. When there are two different alleles, the genotype is said to be heterozygous.

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The modern example of vascular Shoreline plant

Answers

Answer: alligator weed

Explanation:

monkeys were_____ to develop a fear of fear-relevant stimuli, like toy snakes or a toy crocodile, as they were to fear-irrelevant stimuli, like flowers or a toy rabbit.

Answers

By observing another monkey exhibit fear of snakes, monkeys can acquire that phobia.

Are monkeys naturally afraid of snakes?

Real, toy, and modeling snakes caused significant fear in the majority of monkeys raised in the wild, however most of those raised in laboratories only displayed extremely weak reactions. Lack of willingness to reach food on the snake's opposite side and behavioral disturbances were indicators of fear.

Is a fear of snakes something you can learn?

According to David Rakison, a social psychologist at Carnegie Mellon who studies early child development, "the current experiment, and even no contractor shall submit, has provided proof that fear of snake or spiders is intrinsic."

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How does the addition of an enzyme to a chemical reaction affect each of the following parameters (no effect, increase, or decrease)?
a. Standard free energy of the reaction
b. Activation energy of the reaction
c. Initial velocity of the reaction
d. Equilibrium constant of the reaction
e. Time to reach equilibrium

Answers

a. no effect and b. decrease and c. increase and d. no effect and e. decrease.

How do chemical reactions work?

Repairing chemical bonds across different molecules (particles) and creating new bonds between atoms within product particles are two aspects of chemical reactions (molecules). While there are the same number of atoms prior to and following the chemical transition, there will be a change in the number of molecules.

Why is chemical reaction important?

We can learn about a substance's qualities by studying chemical reactions. We can learn about a substance's chemical characteristics by looking at how it interacts with other substances. These characteristics can be utilized to recognize an unidentified sample. When atoms establish or break chemical bonds, chemical processes take place.

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as a powerful central nervous system (cns) stimulant, which of these substances can lead to miscarriage, preterm labor, placental separation (abruption), and stillbirth?

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A potent CNS stimulant, cocaine. Preterm labor, premature delivery, stillbirth, and abruptio placentae are only a few pregnancy effects linked to cocaine usage.

What causes anxiety in people?

Your body's stress reaction frequently causes you to feel nervous. A variety of hormonal and physiological reactions are involved in this, which help you become ready to handle a real or perceived threat. Your body increases adrenaline production to get ready to fight or run from a threat.

How much time does anxiety last?

An anxiety attack might last anywhere from a few hours to a few weeks. The following 10 suggestions are for you if your breakdown has been going on for a while and you need some respite. They won't only assist you in getting through this trying period.

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label the anatomy of the cochlea, including a section through the cochlea and one turn of the cochlea, by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

Answers

Cochlea through section View of One Cochlear Turn By clicking and dragging the labels to the proper position, you may view the cochlea's oval window section.

Scala tympani, scala media, and scala vestibuli are the three compartments that make up the cochlea. The compartments are separated from one another by the basilar membrane and the Reissner's membrane. Through the flimsy vestibular wall of the cochlear duct (Reissner's membrane), perilymph movement causes endolymph to move. The spiral organ (organ of Corti) cochlea, the organ of hearing, is placed inside the cochlear duct, leaning against the basilar lamina of the tympanic wall. a bony, coiled tube in the inner ear that conducts nerve impulses as sound waves pass through it. circular semi-canal. There are three canals in the inner ear.

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Evolution occurs: a) only when the environment is changing. b) only through natural selection. c) almost entirely because of directional selection. d) only via natural selection, genetic drift, migration, or mutation. e) by altering physical traits but not behavioral traits.

Answers

Answer:

e. by altering physical traits but not behavioral traits.

Explanation:

Genetic variations can arise from gene variants (also called mutations) or from a normal process in which genetic material is rearranged as a cell is getting ready to divide (known as genetic recombination). Genetic variations that alter gene activity or protein function can introduce different traits in an organism

the greater the importance in motor function a body region has, the greater the size of that region in the motor homunculus.

Answers

Based on a neurological "map" of the locations and ratios of motor or sensory functions, a cortical homunculus is a distorted image of the human body.

The brain does not take into account the location of the sensor on the body while mapping each sensory receptor onto the cortex, which is the cause. Along the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe, the motor homunculus is a topographic depiction of the bodily parts and their correspondents. While the sensory homunculus runs along the parietal lobe's postcentral gyrus and is a topographic depiction of the bodily components. A motor homunculus is a diagram illustrating the brain regions responsible for processing motor commands for various bodily regions. The precentral gyrus is home to the primary motor cortex, which controls movement.

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Which of the statements are ways that modern geneticists are addressing medical, social, or industrial problems?
-Developing genetic tests for conditions so that patients can receive appropriate treatment
-Improving the nutritional value of agricultural crops through genetic modification
-Studying bacterial genetics to learn how to control the spread of infectious diseases
-Learning how to clone humans to obtain organs for replacing failing or damaged ones

Answers

-Creating genetic diagnostics for diseases so that patients can get the right care, genetic alteration to increase the nutritional value of agricultural crops, studying the genetics of bacteria.

What are the genetics' contemporary applications?

Mass-producing insulin, human growth hormones, follistim (to treat infertility), human albumin, monoclonal antibodies, antihemophilic factors, vaccinations, and numerous more medications have all been made via genetic engineering in medicine. In scientific study, creatures are genetically modified to learn how specific genes operate.

What are some current applications of genes in medicine?

When creating new medications, pharmaceutical companies can identify more precise therapy targets by studying the genetics of sick tissue (such as malignancies) (such as anticancer drugs). Trastuzumab, an anticancer medication, can, for instance, target particular cancer cells in breast tumors that include .

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Why is it thought that glycolysis is the first catabolic pathway to have evolved in the metabolism of all cellular systems?
Glycolysis produces much less ATP than does oxidative phosphorylation. Glycolysis takes place in the cytosol, does not involve oxygen, and is present in most organisms. It is found in prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells. Glycolysis is the first step that breaks down glucose and MUST be done before any further metabolic pathways can break down the glycolysis products. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm which mean it would have been able to be used before the bacteria that formed the mitochondria invade the cell that gave rise to all eukaryotes, indicating it must have been a very fundamental early pathway. Glycolysis does not require any of the membrane-bound organelles of the eukaryotic cell which evolved approximately 1 billion years after the prokaryotic cells. Before there was oxygen in the earth's atmosphere, there was only anaerobic processes - So they must have developed first. The primary method for anaerobic bacteria is glycolysis because it provides energy without oxygen. Aerobic processes require a huge number of specific proteins, whereas glycolysis has a minimal number of proteins involved. The oldest known fossils of bacteria date back 3.5 billion years when appreciable quantities of oxygen were not accumulated in the atmosphere -- so therefore since glycolysis does not require Oxygen and is thought to be the first catabolic pathway to have evolved.

Answers

Nearly all sorts of organisms have evolved a metabolic process and anaerobic energy source called glycolysis. The Embden-Meyerhof pathway is another name for the process, given in honour of the key figures in its discovery and comprehension.

It serves a purpose in anaerobic respiration because it doesn't need oxygen, but it is also the initial stage in cellular respiration. Molecules of glucose, the most important organic fuel for plants, microorganisms, and animals, are oxidised during the process. a majority of cells favour glucose Per glucose molecule, glycolysis uses up 2 ATP molecules and generates 4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvates. The citric acid cycle or other processes can both employ pyruvate as a precursor.In the end, glycolysis divides glucose into two pyruvate molecules. Glycolysis can be thought of as having two stages that take place in the cytosol of cells. Due to the use of two ATP molecules, the first phase is known as the "investment" phase, while the second is known as the "payoff" phase. Each of these processes is performed by a different enzyme, with phosphofructokinase serving as the most crucial regulator because it regulates the rate of glycolysis.

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the body uses larger amounts of protein for energy if overall kilocalorie intake is inadequate and if carbohydrate stores are low.

Answers

Protein is a macronutrient that is used for energy when the body does not have adequate kilocalorie intake.

What is Kilocalorie?

Kilocalorie (kcal) is a unit of energy measurement used to measure the amount of energy in food. It is also sometimes referred to as a Calorie, which is equal to 1,000 calories. Kilocalories are used to measure the amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.

When carbohydrates are low, the body is unable to use them for energy and must break down protein instead. This is done by converting the amino acids in protein into glucose in a process called gluconeogenesis. This glucose can then be used for energy by the body's cells. Therefore, when overall kilocalorie intake is inadequate and if carbohydrate stores are low, the body will use larger amounts of protein for energy.

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Which of the following describes pathways that would be active to provide molecules (NADPH and ATP) required for fatty acid synthesis upon insulin signaling?
Stimulation of the non-oxidative phase only by use of glycolytic intermediates.
Cycling of the oxidative and non-oxidative phase to produce NADPH only.
Stimulation of the oxidative phase to produce NADPH and the non-oxidative phase to produce glycolytic intermediates that can be used to generate ATP.
Stimulation of the oxidative phase to produce NADPH and ribose-5-P only.

Answers

Stimulation of the oxidative phase to produce NADPH and the non-oxidative phase to produce glycolytic intermediates that can be used to generate ATP.

So option c is correct.

Due to the possibility of reversing these processes, the non-oxidative phase is very advantageous. Since several molecules can enter the pentose phosphate pathway at various points throughout the non-oxidative phase, it is conceivable for them to undergo a variety of changes before finally reaching the initial non-oxidative phase molecule.

During the glycolytic process, hexoses and hexose phosphates, which are created when starch or sucrose is broken down to produce ATP, reductants, and pyruvate, are oxidized.

The trip is divided into two main parts. The oxidative phase, the initial step, is when NADPH is produced. The non-oxidative synthesis of 5-carbon sugars is the second. The pentose phosphate route is largely used by most organisms in their cytosol; in plants, this is where most activities occur.

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joseph planted a 7-inch tall magical beanstalk. the height of the beanstalk increases by 13% each day.

Answers

Jacob creates a fantastic beanstalk. When he planted the beanstalk, its height was 10 inches, and it now stands at 15 inches, growing 15% taller every day.

A miraculous beanstalk 8 inches tall was planted by Diego. Each bean boosts the beanstalk's height by 16% - Brainly.com A miraculous beanstalk 8 inches tall was planted by Diego.

When he planted the beanstalk, its height was 10 inches, and it now stands at 15 inches, growing 15% taller every day. A) Construct a function that determines Jacob creates a fantastic beanstalk. When he planted the beanstalk, its height was 10 inches, and it now stands at 15 inches, growing 15% taller every day. Given that the size of Diego's beanstalk increases at an exponential rate of 16% daily, the.

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A new serine protease was discovered that preferentially cleaves a peptide bond adjoining a negatively charged side chain. Which of the following is true?
A) A specificity pocket would mimic that of chymotrypsin
B) The specificity pocket would mimic that of trypsin
C) The specificity pocket is likely lined with amino acids such as Arg and Lys
D) It likely reacts much slower with chymotrypsin
E_ It likely reacts much faster than chymotrypsin

Answers

The true statement about a newly discovered serine protease that cleaves a peptide bond adjoining a negatively charged side chain is: C) The specificity pocket is likely lined with amino acids such as Arg and Lys.

Serine protease is the class of enzyme that cleaves the peptide bond in proteins. In this enzyme, serine protease acts as the nucleophilic amino acid which is present at the active site of the enzyme. They can be of two types: chymotrypsin-like or subtilisin-like.

Amino acids are the organic molecules that are required for the body. They are needed for the synthesis of proteins, enzymes, etc. that then perform various functions. There are a total of 20 amino acids involved in protein synthesis.

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identify the features indicated on this removable part of an ear model by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

Answers

The given features are all a part of the anatomy of the inner ear.

Define ear.

The ear is a organ of hearing and balance in vertebrates. It consists of three parts: the outer ear, the middle ear, and the inner ear. The outer ear collects sound waves and directs them to the eardrum, a thin membrane that vibrates when it is struck by sound waves. These vibrations are transferred to the middle ear, which contains three tiny bones (the ossicles) that amplify the vibrations and send them to the inner ear. The inner ear contains fluid-filled chambers called the cochlea, which contain thousands of tiny hair cells that detect the vibrations and convert them into nerve impulses that are sent to the brain.

1 - Semicircular duct

2 - Vestibule

3 - Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)

4 - Cochlea

5 - Oval window

6 - Stapes

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A researcher hypothesizes that plant Ieaf cells express fewer genes in the middle of the night compared to right before the sun rises She tests her hypothesis by introducing DNase into the cells at both timnes. She finds that DNA Is cut ruch more right before the sun rises and that more mRNA is present in the cells at that time. The best interpretation of these results Is that only post-translational modification contributes to gene regulation between the two night periods chromatin regulation is a crucial component f plant gene regulation overnight plants do not change gene expression between the two night periods

Answers

The best interpretation of these results Is that, key element of plant gene regulation is through chromatin regulation. All eukaryotes include chromatin that is crammed into nucleosomes.

Members of the histone protein family make up the bulk of the chromatin regulation protein component. Histone proteins may come near to DNA because of their positive charge. H3 and H4 are core histones that bind to DNA before other gene regulation and are located in the interior of the nucleosome. When DNA gene regulation is significantly compressed, the chromatin regulation architecture prevents transcription factors, polymerases, and other nuclear proteins from reaching it. Fruit production involves a series of developmental gene regulation stages, and crop output is greatly influenced by the fruit set process.

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(03.03 HC)
What may happen if there were no convective currents in the mantle?
O The diameter of Earth will start increasing.
O The recycling of Earth's crust will stop.
Oceans will turn completely dry.
O Continents will start breaking apart.

Answers

Answer:

c

Explanation:

because as the magma cools and solidifies, the convection currents will stop and the Earth will become geologically dead.

Convection currents within the Earth's mantle are caused by hot material rising upwards, cooling, then dropping back toward the core. These currents are thought to be the driving force for tectonic plate activity in the crust. The moving magma in the mantle carries the plates floating on top of it.

Other Questions
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