a patient is receiving a continuous tube feeding. the nurse notes that the feeding tube was last irrigated at 2 p.m. the nurse would plan to irrigate the tube again at which time?

Answers

Answer 1

D) 6 p.m. to 8 p.m.

It is advised that patients receiving continuous tubes feedings irrigate their feeding tubes every 4 to 6 hours. The nurse would then irrigate the tube for this patient between 6 and 8 o'clock.

Feeding Tube- A tube that is put into the stomach through the nose, then down the neck and esophagus. It can be used to remove items from the stomach as well as to administer medications, liquids, and liquid food. Enteral nutrition refers to the feeding of food through a feeding tube to the stomach.

Nutrition- The process of consuming food and transforming it into energy as well as other essential elements is known as nutrition.

The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,

Q. A patient is receiving a continuous tube feeding. The nurse notes that the feeding tube was last irrigated at 2 p.m. The nurse would plan to irrigate the tube again at which time?

A) 4 p.m. to 6 p.m.

B) 10 p.m. to 12 a.m.

C) 8 p.m. to 10 p.m.

D) 6 p.m. to 8 p.m.

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Related Questions

a novice nurse is sharing a newly published research article which outlines a different approach in preventing a wound infection after surgery with a colleague and states the nurse is going to try this new method. which is the best response from the colleague?

Answers

Before trying the new method, the nurse should "wait until the method is analyzed to ensure it will be appropriate for their clients".

How should nurses implement newly published research articles?

Nurses assist patients in care and case management, treating health conditions. A novice nurse has  1–2 years of experience, while in some cases they might have less than a year of experience as a novice is a newly graduated nurse.

Before implementing a newly published research article that outlines a different approach to preventing wound infection after surgery, the nurses should study the new practices and confirm it will be appropriate for their patient and they should also make sure that the procedure is suitable for their patient's situation.

In summary, a novice nurse does not have much work experience and as such, the nurse should not conclude that every published research article will be suitable practice for treating their patient.

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the nurse is giving discharge instructions to a parent of a 3-month-old infant. what is the best information to guve the parent concerning oral medicaiton administration

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Answer: Give the medication with a syringe and squirt a small amount at a time beside the tongue while holding the infant upright.

Explanation: Oral drugs should be administered to infants using a syringe. Hold the newborn upright and squirt a small bit at a time onto the side of the tongue to prevent aspiration. Since formula or breast milk is a newborn's main source of sustenance and there is a chance that the infant would grow to dislike it, medications should never be mixed with it. When administering oral drugs to infants, they should be positioned upright or with the head of the bed raised. Because babies must breathe via their noses, it is not advised to hold the nose closed. The tongue should not be touched with medication.

a patient undergoes a total laryngectomy along with a radical neck dissection, as well as emergency endotracheal intubation. the coder assigns code 31365 and 31500-51. according to cpt guidelines, this code assignment is

Answers

The whole larynx is removed during a total laryngectomy. Your pharynx may also be removed in part. Total laryngectomy with radical neck dissection is 31365.

What is meant by total laryngectomy?

The whole larynx is removed during a total laryngectomy. Your pharynx may also be removed in part. The mucous membrane-lined passageway between your esophagus and nasal passages is known as your pharynx. To access the area, the surgeon will make a cut in your neck.

All laryngeal structures and a portion of the upper trachea are removed during a total laryngectomy treatment, which results in the airway being disconnected and leaving a permanent breathing hole in the neck (tracheostomy).

Your sense of smell won't be as strong as it once was after a laryngectomy. You need air to pass through your nose in order to smell things. This no longer happens spontaneously since your mouth and nose are no longer connected to your breathing.

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a 35-year-old patient undergoing initial therapy for acute myeloid leukemia has tolerated the chemotherapy well. however, 6 days after the initiation of chemotherapy and ~10 days after the insertion of an indwelling transthoracic intravenous device (hickman catheter), he develops a fever. examination is negative except for erythema and tenderness at the insertion site and along the subcutaneous tunnel. blood cultures and chest x-ray are negative. the most appropriate course of action at this point is to

Answers

The most appropriate course of action to take at this point is to terminate the indwelling transthoracic intravenous device (hickman catheter).

What is acute myeloid leukemia?

Acute myeloid leukemia is defined as the cancer of the bone marrow which is characterized with an increase in the production of white blood cells that are immature.

The clinical manifestations that presents with the acute myeloid leukemia is related with the following:

Low number of red blood cellsLow number of normal white blood cellsLow blood platelet countsHigh number of leukemia cellsBleeding and clotting problems,Bone or joint pain andSwelling in the abdomen.

One of the effective treatment used for the management of acute myeloid leukemia is chemotherapy through the use of indwelling transthoracic intravenous device (hickman catheter).

After the insertion of an indwelling transthoracic intravenous device (hickman catheter), it is the work of the nurse to observe the patient for an adverse effect due to the use of the catheter.

The development of fever after insertion signifies an unintended effect, therefore the catheter should be terminated and an alternative route of drug administration should be used for the chemotherapy.

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_________ are the most commonly used group of psychoactive drugs in the us and include ___________, which is considered the easiest substance to become addicted to and most difficult to quit.

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Caffeine are the most commonly used group of psychoactive drugs in the us and include marijuana, which is considered the easiest substance to become addicted to and most difficult to quit.

Caffeine is a legal pschoactive drug and is consumed more than 90% young generation in United States. Marijuana is one of the most widely used addictive drug used after alcohol and tobacco. It is consumed through cigarettes or bongs. One of the harmful ingredient of marijuana include THC. THC enters the circulation swiftly from the lungs when marijuana is smoked.

THC affects particular brain cell receptors that often respond to substances that resemble THC in nature. These organic compounds contribute to healthy brain growth and operation. The areas of the brain with the highest concentration of these receptors are overactivated by marijuana. People get a "high" as a result of this on a short-term basis. marijuana can also impair the thinking capacity, learning power and memory of the smoker.

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patient-reported outcomes and factors associated with achieving the minimal clinically important difference after acl reconstruction: results at a mean 7.7-year follow-up

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At the 2-year and final follow-ups, respectively, almost 95% and 89% of patients stated that they were happy with the surgical result.

What is ACL?

One of two cruciate ligaments found in the human knee is the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). Due to their crossed configuration, the 2 ligaments are often known as "cruciform" ligaments. Based on its anatomical location, it is also known as the cranial cruciate ligament in the quadruped stifle joint. The word "cruciate" means "cross" in English.

This term is appropriate given that the ACL forms a "X" with the posterior cruciate ligament. It helps to restrain overly vigorous action because it is made of sturdy, fibrous material. This is accomplished by reducing the joint's range of motion.

At the 2-year and final follow-ups, respectively, almost 95% and 89% of patients stated that they were happy with the surgical result.

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which vital statistic should a nurse recognize as demonstrating that a community lacks adequate services or programs to meet the needs of its members?

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High rates of teen pregnancy.

What is pregnancy?

The period during which a fetus grows within a woman's womb or stomach is known as a pregnancy. When counting from the last menstrual cycle through delivery, a pregnancy typically lasts around 40 weeks, or slightly over 9 months. Pregnancy is divided into three trimesters, as described by healthcare professionals.

Therefore,

which vital statistic should a nurse recognize as demonstrating that a community lacks adequate services or programs to meet the needs of its members?

High rates of teen pregnancy.

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the nurse is teaching a class of parents about health promotion for children. which recommendation should the nurse include to help prevent or regress coronary artery disease (cad)?

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The nurse is teaching a class of parents about health promotion for children and the recommendation that the nurse should include to help prevent or regress coronary artery disease (CAD) is that children should maintain a healthy weight, blood pressure, and not be exposed to smoke.

Children and young adults aren't proof against hardening of the arteries, that is that the leading explanation for death in developed and developing countries. Interventions to market a healthy life style, like maintaining a healthy weight and blood pressure, and abstaining from smoking are necessary to forestall hardening of the arteries, or to regress developed and developing atheromas at any age before they cause arteria coronaria sickness. simply sweat, diet, and a smokeless surroundings alone aren't enough to forestall CAD.

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1.Do you think we should have stronger enforcement around chemical manufacturing and distribution of stimulants? Why or why not?

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We should have stronger enforcement around chemical manufacturing and distribution of stimulants because large doses of these stimulants if not checked can can cause over-stimulation, resulting in anxiety, panic, seizures and other risks associated with overdose.

What are stimulants?

Stimulants can be referred as a term that covers many drugs including those that increase activity of the central nervous system and the body, drugs that are pleasurable and invigorating, or drugs that have sympathomimetic effects.

Stimulants include drugs such as caffeine, nicotine, amphetamines and cocaine.

Stronger enforcement around chemical manufacturing and distribution of stimulants because large doses of these stimulants if not checked can can cause over-stimulation, resulting in anxiety, panic, seizures and other risks associated with overdose.

Stimulants has their legal and illegal usage.

Illegal  stimulants are usually snorted, swallowed, smoked or injected. Prescribed stimulants are usually taken orally, and how long the effects last differs depending on the type.

The effects of taking stimulants with other drugs − including over-the-counter or prescribed medications can be unpredictable and dangerous to health and life.

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A cube of metal is heated to become a gas. The gas takes up more volume than the cube. Does the gas have more matter than the solid? Explain why or why not.

Answers

Answer:

the gas don't have more matter than solid

Explanation:

the gas don't more matter than solid but volume of the gas expand when heated

Answer:

No, gas does not have more matter than solid.

Explanation:

Matter cannot be created or destroyed. The gas simply takes up more volume as the matter is not densely packed, and have more freedom of movement.

*See attached image.

In the attached image, it shows the difference between the three states. While it may look like gas is more than solid, it is simply more free and have more movement.

The freedom of movement from least to greatest is:

1) solid

2) liquid

3) gas

~

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Post your Science questions below

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Answer:

Explain why six accumulators each of elctromotive foce two volts connect in series can be used to start the engine of a car where as eight dry cell each of electromotive force 1.5v connected in series cannot be used

a 5-year-old is being prepared for diagnostic cardiac catheterization, in which the catheter will be inserted in the right femoral vein. what intervention should the nurse take to prevent infection?

Answers

According to the statement Prior to the surgery, avoid taking a blood sample from the right femoral vein.

What is the purpose of a catheter?

When patients have trouble urinating on their own, they typically utilize a urinary catheter. Additionally, it can be used to aid with several tests and to empty the bladder prior to or following surgery.

What negative affects might a catheter have?

The greatest danger of utilizing a urinary catheter is the potential for bacterial ingestion. This may result in an infection of the bladder, urethra, or, less frequently, the kidneys. Urinary tract infections are this group of infections (UTIs).

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a client approaching end-of-life reports dyspnea as being 7 on a scale from 0 to 10. which action will the nurse take to assist this client?42159807/chapter-7-end-of-life-care-flash-cards/

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In order to assist the patient, the nurse must assist the patient in easing the discomfort that occurs with Dyspnea. One example would be to ensure that they are placed on oxygen.

What is the Dyspnea Scale?

Dyspnea is defined as shortness of breath. A dyspnea scale is a way to describe shortness of breath when exercising. The scale can be used during pulmonary rehabilitation exercises or at home.

During exercise or chores, a healthcare specialist will educate one on how to utilize the Rating of Perceived Dyspnea (RPD) scale.

This scale allows one to rate their level of shortness of breath. RPD is measured on a scale of 0 to 10.

A score of 0 indicates that one is experiencing no shortness of breath. At 10, the patent is out of breath and must discontinue the exercise or activity.

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cathy has asthma and had to use her inhaler before taking her physiology exam. later, in the physiology laboratory, she measured her pulse rate and blood pressure and found them to be higher than usual. the following week, after administering some drugs (epinephrine atropine, and some others) to a frog heart, she later developed a severe headache and dry mouth. when she looked in the mirror she noticed that her pupils were dilated.

Answers

Cathy has asthma and had to use her inhaler before taking her physiology exam and later, in the physiology laboratory, she measured her pulse rate and blood pressure and found them to be higher than usual and the following week, after administering some drugs (epinephrine atropine, and some others) to a frog heart, she later developed a severe headache and dry mouth and when she looked in the mirror she noticed that her pupils were dilated because of increased norepinephrine release from post-gangleonic sympathetic nerve fibers.

Asthma is a condition within which your airways slim and swell and should turn out further secretion. this could build respiratory troublesome and trigger coughing, a whistling sound (wheezing) after you breathe and shortness of breath. for a few folks, it could be just a minor nuisance.

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one study found a reduction in the rate of cardiovascular events during standard time in particular, suggesting that the chronic effects of daylight saving time may lead to a higher risk of adverse health problems when compared with standard time.

Answers

Daylight saving time effect on our heart.

Does Daylight Savings Time Affect Your heart?

Daylight saving time takes a toll on your heart. One study found a 24 percent increase in heart attacks on the Monday after daylight saving time starts. Another found the risk of stroke is 8 percent higher on the two days following the time change.

After the European Union decided to ask citizens about their opinions on daylight saving time, a small percentage of European citizens said they did not want to change the time twice a year. However, there are still concerns about the biomedical and clinical significance of this position, and consensus is lacking. An international group of experts convened in August 2018 to review the literature on the many effects potentially attributable to circadian variation caused by daylight saving time and to clarify and define whether daylight saving time observance should be considered a hazardous or risky behavior in terms of health and well-being. Accordingly, the authors of the first version of the Consensus on the Effects of Daylight Saving Time on the Circadian Time System concluded that:

(1) although the exact mechanisms are not currently certain, there is sufficient literature demonstrating the negative effects of daylight saving time on various levels of the circadian time system, either in relation to the master circadian clock and several peripheral oscillators on which adequate organic function depends;

(2)  there is evidence of the potentially negative effects of daylight saving time-induced disruption of the circadian time system associated with various adverse health outcomes, daylight saving time should be eliminated.

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stephen complains to his doctor of frequent urination and extreme thirst. over the past 3 months, he also lost 12 pounds without dieting. his doctor sends him for tests to see if he has

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Since Stephen complained to his doctor of frequent urination and extreme thirst, his doctor should send him for tests to see if he has diabetes.

What is diabetes?

Diabetes can be defined as a type of disease which occurs when sufficient (enough) insulin is not being produced by the pancreas or when the body does not respond properly to the ones that are being produced.

This ultimately implies that, diabetes is a type of disease that is typically related to a malfunctioning pancreas.

Based on medical records, some of the symptoms of diabetes include the following:

High frequency of hunger.Loss of weight.Frequent urination.Tingling hands or feet.Fatigue Blurry visionHigh appetite for water or an extreme thirst.

In this context, we can reasonably infer and logically deduce that Stephen is most likely suffering from diabetes based on the symptoms he is experiencing.

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a gerontological nurse is providing care to several older adult clients. on which client’s plan of care will the nurse include teaching of kegel exercises?

Answers

A 67-year-old female client living with stress incontinence since having her children will be included with teaching of kegel exercises.

What exactly do Kegel exercises accomplish?Kegel exercises can help with other pelvic floor issues and urine incontinence. Here is a step-by-step instruction manual for performing Kegel exercises. Kegel exercises help to build up the pelvic floor muscles, which support the uterus, bladder, small intestine, and rectum.

What is your Kegel hold time?It could be challenging at first to keep the contraction in place for longer than one or two seconds. In order to prevent stressing the muscles, the ultimate goal is to hold the contraction for 10 seconds before letting it go for 10 seconds.

Why are Kegels satisfying?Kegels increase blood flow to the vagina and pelvic floor, which may aid in arousal and lubrication. Many women desire surgery because they believe their vagina is not as tight as it once was after giving birth.

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WHAT DOES CELLULAR METABOLISM DO WITH ENERGY?
Choose all that apply

Store
Acquire
Release
Create
Destroy

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Cell metabolism exists as a network of biochemical reactions converting metabolites to fulfill biological functions.

What does cellular metabolism do to energy?

A network of biochemical processes called the cell metabolism transforms metabolites to carry out biological functions. The catabolic pathways that break down molecules to produce energy, which is then used to power biosynthetic processes and perform mechanical work, are at the center of this biochemical network.

The chemical processes that make up metabolism include both spontaneous chemical reactions that release energy and non-spontaneous chemical reactions that need energy to proceed. Cellular processes require energy, which living things must obtain from food, nutrients, or sunlight.

The conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid, which releases energy, during cellular respiration. Krebs cycle: a series of chemical processes that oxidize specific molecules and release energy.

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a client at 25 weeks' gestation presents with a blood pressure of 152/99 mm hg, pulse 78 beats/min, no edema, and urine negative for protein. what would the nurse do next?

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A client at 25 weeks' gestation presents with a blood pressure of 152/99 mm hg, pulse 78 beats/min, no edema, and urine negative for protein. The nurse will immediately inform the health care provider.

Gestation- The gestation period, often known as pregnancy, lasts an average of 40 weeks even though the unborn child spends about 38 weeks inside the uterus. The beginning of a woman's last menstruation is used to start the pregnancy clock, not the conception date, which often happens two weeks later.

Whereas many men and women believe that pregnancy begins at conception (whenever the sperm and egg come together), in the medical community, the start of a pregnancy—known as that of the gestation by doctors—is actually the first day of woman's final menstruation.

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a client admitted with acute anxiety has the following arterial blood gas (abg) values: ph, 7.55; partial pressure of arterial oxygen (pao2), 90 mm hg; partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (paco2), 27 mm hg; and bicarbonate (hco3–), 24 meq/l. based on these values, the nurse suspects:

Answers

The result is, the client has respiratory alkalosis. A patient with pneumonia could hyperventilate to take in more oxygen.

A patient with pneumonia may hyperventilate in an effort to take in more oxygen, resulting in respiratory alkalosis.

This client's increased pH level is an indication of alkalosis, which is brought on by excessive carbon dioxide (CO2) loss from hyperventilation. Because the kidneys' response to producing bicarbonate (HCO3-) is delayed in respiratory alkalosis, the patient's HCO3- level remains normal.

The partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) has a below-normal value, which denotes CO2 loss and a respiratory component. There is no metabolic component to this imbalance because the HCO3- level is normal. As a result, the client has respiratory alkalosis.

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​ a 23-year-old man was playing in a pick-up hockey game when an out of control amateur skater fell and struck the lateral side of his left leg. he immediately had pain and difficulty moving his leg and came to the emergency department (ed). in the ed, the patient related that he heard a loud popping sound in his knee and that he felt that his knee could no longer support him standing.

Answers

The likely problem that the patient is suffering from is C. Damage to the medial collateral ligament.

How to illustrate the information?

The information illustrated that the person had pain and difficulty moving his leg and came to the emergency department while playing hockey.

It should be noted that the external force damaging the knee is from the lateral side. This will bring about the loud popping sound in his knee and the knee will no longer support him standing.

Therefore, based on the information illustrated, it should be noted that the correct option is C.

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A 23-year-old man was playing in a pick-up hockey game when an out of control amateur skater fell and struck the lateral side of his left leg. he immediately had pain and difficulty moving his leg and came to the emergency department (ed). in the ed, the patient related that he heard a loud popping sound in his knee and that he felt that his knee could no longer support him standing. What is the likely problem that the patient is suffering from?

a. Damage to the meniscus

b. Damage to the anterior cruciate ligament.

c. Damage to the medial collateral ligament.

d. Damage to the lateral collateral ligament.

a client reports using pain medication and sitting in a dark room on the onset of a migraine headache. in which part of the subjective section of the physical examination should the nurse document this information?

Answers

When a migraine headache starts, a customer says they take painkillers and sit in a dark room. The nurse record this information in relieving factors.

A migraine headache is characterized by intense throbbing pain or a pulsating sensation, typically on one side of the brain. Extreme sensitivity to light and sound as well as nausea and vomiting are frequent side effects. Attacks from migraines can linger for hours or even days, and the agony they cause may be so intense that it makes it difficult to carry out your everyday tasks. The pain may radiate throughout your brain, move from one side of your brain to the other, or originate at the front of your skull. While severe migraines can last up to three days, the average migraine headache lasts roughly four hours. Everybody experiences headaches differently, but two to four per month is a common frequency.

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The baltimore county police are investigating a murder. the chief suspect in the case was spotted by some hikers with a shovel in the woods of gunpowder state park. officer johnson, of the baltimore county police, has sectioned off the area the hikers recalled spotting the suspect digging in the woods and is awaiting the investigative teams arrival. the forensic science division has been called in to help investigate the area. describe the process the investigators would follow when processing the scene. be sure to discuss the steps involved in processing a crime scene cite at least three pieces of evidence that may be found; indicate the proper container that the evidence should be collected in. describe the importance of maintaining the chain of custody for the evidence collected. be sure to use appropriate vocabulary

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The importance of maintaining the chain of custody for the evidence collected is further used for proving court cases in numerous sorts of legitimate procedures.

The prosecution presents the chain of custody documentation in court to set up that the thing of proof is, in reality, linked to the charged crime which was within the defendant's ownership.

In arrange to illustrate a reasonable question of blame, the guard looks for escape clauses or infringement within the chain of guardianship, for case, to show that the question was falsely "put" to form the blamed individual show up blameworthy.

In this case, a chain of custody done by Baltimore County police is separated off the range the hikers reviewed spotting the suspect, investigated the area, shows the correct container that the proof ought to be collected.

This evidence may incorporate DNA tests, photos, and records that prove a declaration or discredit a contention.

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the nurse is caring for a patient who has a dressing over a surgical wound created the night before. the dressing has never been changed. how should the nurse proceed

Answers

The nurse would administer an analgesic 30 to 45 minutes before a dressing change on a surgical wound.

Encourage the use of analgesics prior to dressing changes because doing so can help to greatly lessen the pain that comes with doing so.

For moderate to severe pain, opioids may be necessary; they may be dosed continuously for ongoing pain. If pain cannot be satisfactorily controlled by the client's existing pain medication regimen, contact the client's doctor.

Clients may endure soreness when having to change their clothing. Pain is frequently ignored or may only be partially handled. In order to evaluate whether the pain has changed (better or worsened) and whether the pain treatment modalities are still successful in reducing the client's level of discomfort, pain should be assessed before, during, and after a dressing change has been conducted.

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tentative diagnosis of a patient's condition obtained thru the evaluation of health history and physical examination without the benefit of lab or diagnostic tests.

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When a doctor interacts with a patient, does a physical exam, and describes any recent or impending test results, they create an official record known as an H&P.

What is a history and physical examination?

The most official and comprehensive evaluation of the patient and the issue is the H&P: History and Physical. When a doctor interacts with a patient, does a physical exam, and describes any recent or impending test results, they create an official record known as an H&P.

Which of the following medical record sections provides the results of the physical examination?

Vital signs, laboratory and imaging results, additional diagnostic information, physical exam findings, and a review of other healthcare providers' documentation are just a few examples of the data that can be recorded in the Objective section, which collects objective data gleaned from the patient's encounter.

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two parents who are arguing in their infant’s room, with voices raised and getting louder, start to hit each other. the infant is crying. which action should the staff nurse take next? remove infant

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C. Remove the infant from the room.

The nurse's top concern is safeguarding the infant against harm as the situation worsens. Therefore, the nurse's initial course of action should be to remove the newborn from this circumstance. According to a study, babies will start to react negatively to furious or scowling facial expressions by the time they are 6 months old. Furthermore, infants that are exposed to conflict may experience elevated heart rates, that also triggers the release of stress hormones.

Hormones- Chemicals called hormones function in the body as messenger molecules. They are created in one area of the body and then go to other areas where they assist regulate how cells & organs function. For instance, the pancreatic beta cells produce the hormone insulin.

The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,

Q. Two parents who are arguing in their infant's room, with voices raised and getting louder, start to hit each other. The infant is crying. Which action should the staff nurse take next?

a) Try to reason with both of the parents.

b) Call security to come and break up the fight.

c) Remove the infant from the room.

d) Ask one of the parents to leave the room.

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an expert panel of infectious disease physicians were asked to determine the most accurate clinical criteria to determine if a patient was experiencing septic shock.

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The most accurate clinical criteria to determine if a patient was experiencing septic shock is hypotension followed by MAP and serum lactate.

Septic stun happens due to sepsis and leads to a major diminish in tissue perfusion to organs and tissues. So, in other words, stun (which is where cells are denied oxygen due to the need for perfusion) happens since of an attack by a microorganism (septic).

Persistent hypotension (<90 SBP) that doesn’t react to IV fluids Needs vasopressors (case Norepinephrine) to preserve perfusion (an Outline >65 mmHg) MAP (cruel blood vessel weight).

This number tells us how well crucial organs are being perfused. If it’s lower than 65 mmHg, the organs aren’t being perfused exceptionally well.

Serum Lactate >2 mmol/L Remember from our video on “stages of shock” we talked almost how when cells begin to battle (subsequently not getting sufficient oxygen due to a diminish in tissue perfusion) they will switch from high-impact to an anaerobic digestion system.

The result of an anaerobic digestion system is the buildup of lactic corrosive within the blood. In this manner, due to diminished tissue perfusion, the serum lactate will be lifted.

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a woman who is 10 weeks' pregnant calls the physician’s office reporting "morning sickness" but, when asked about it, tells the nurse that she is nauseated and vomiting all the time and has lost 5 pounds. what interventions would the nurse anticipate for this client?

Answers

Answer:

Intervenous fluid

Explanation:

So that she can some bit of whight

a nurse is obtaining a history from a new client with glaucoma. the client indicates having read about the diagnosis and understanding that this type of glaucoma is due to the degeneration and obstruction of the trabecular meshwork, whose original function is to absorb the aqueous humor. the loss of absorption will lead to an increased resistance, and thus a chronic, painless buildup of pressure in the eye. which type of glaucoma has the client described?

Answers

Glaucoma is a chronic, progressive eye illness caused by damage to the optic nerve, which impairs vision.

What is the main cause of glaucoma?

Glaucoma is a chronic, progressive eye illness caused by damage to the optic nerve, which impairs vision. One of the biggest risk factors is eye pressure. When the drainage system isn't working properly, fluid can build up inside the eye and create severe pressure that damages the optic nerve.

What is the average age at which glaucoma first appears?

Everyone can develop glaucoma, however older people are more frequently affected. It is one of the primary causes of blindness in those over 60.

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an older client asks why vision is not as sharp as it used to be when the eyes are focused forward. what should the nurse realize this client is describing?

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An older client asks why vision is not as sharp as it used to be when the eyes are focused forward. The nurse should realize that this client is describing the Macular degeneration.

Central vision is lost as a result of macular degeneration. Age, smoking cigarettes history, obesity, family background, and gender of the girl are all risk factors with macular degeneration. The eye lenses get cloudy when a person has a cataract. A rise in intraocular pressure known as glaucoma puts pressure on the eye's structures and impairs vision. One eye's sudden loss in vision is caused by a detached retina. The development of blind spots can be the cause of this health issue.

Retina- The tissue layer at the rear of the eyeball that is light-sensitive is called the retina. The retina receives the sharpest images that pass through the lens of the eye. The retina subsequently transforms these images into electric signals, which it then transmits to the brain via the optic nerve.

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Q. An older client asks why vision is not as sharp as it used to be when the eyes are focused forward. What should the nurse realize this client is describing?

A. Cataracts

B. Glaucoma

C. Detached retina

D. Macular degeneration

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