To prepare to take a patient's health history who was confined to a bed, the nurse sat down at a 45° angle to the bed.
When the patient is lying down, communication is made easier by a 45-degree angled chair. It communicates a good relationship and can get in the way of discussion when the caregiver leans at the head or foot of the bed and stares down at the patient.
If a patient is unable to get out of bed, move to another area, or sit in a chair or wheelchair, that person is said to be bedridden. Rest or immobility are not implied by confinement to a bed.
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a nurse is conducting a medication resolution of a new resident of a care facility and notes that the woman has been taking neostigmine. the nurse should recognize that the woman may have a history of what health problem?
Neostigmine is a drug used to treat myasthenia gravis, a rare autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness. As a result, the nurse should recognize that the new resident may have a history of myasthenia gravis and should take this into account when conducting the medication reconciliation.
Medication Resolution of New Resident Revealing History of Neostigmine UseNeostigmine is a medication used to treat myasthenia gravis, a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disorder. Myasthenia gravis is caused by an abnormal response of the immune system in which antibodies form and attack the receptors for the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, resulting in muscle weakness.
Neostigmine is used to increase the amount of acetylcholine available and improve muscle strength. Therefore, if a nurse is conducting a medication review and notes that a new resident is taking neostigmine, it is likely that the resident has a history of myasthenia gravis. It is important for the nurse to understand this person's condition in order to provide appropriate care.
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A 46-year-old man is currently enrolled in a phase III study of a drug for severe diabetic neuropathy. While the study is ongoing, a new drug becomes commercially available that may have equal or greater benefit to the subject. The investigator should do which of the following?Discuss the pros and cons of both the investigational drug and the commercially available drug and then allow the subject to decide whether to withdraw from the research to take the new drug
After weighing the advantages and disadvantages of the investigational drug and the drug that is currently on the market, the subject is given the option of continuing the research or switching to the experimental drug.
What does the term "investigational drug" mean?An investigational drug, often known as an experimental drug, is being tested to discover if it can treat your illness or condition. Clinical studies are being used by scientists to determine the drug's safety and efficacy.
When are experimental medications appropriate for use?Before a therapy IND can be issued, the following four conditions must be satisfied: 1) There is no adequate alternative treatment available; 2) The medicine is meant to treat a serious or immediately life-threatening condition.
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88. The antigen specificity of an adaptive immime response is due to ?
a.Activation of antigen specific lymphocytes
b.Folding of antigen to fit the pathogen
Lysis of only certain pathogens by macrophages
d.Phagocytosis of only certain pathogens by macrophages
e.Production of cytokines by antigen specific macrophages
The antigen specificity of an adaptive immune response is due to the activation of an antigen specific lymphocyte. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Antigen specificity?Antigenic specificity is the ability of the host immune cells to recognize an antigen specifically as a unique molecular entity or a foreign particle and distinguish it from another with the exquisite precision. Antigen specificity in the host immune cells is due to primarily because of the side chain conformations of the antigen molecules.
Adaptive immunity can be defined by two important characteristics which are specificity and memory of the immune cells. Specificity of the immune cell refers to the adaptive immune system's ability to target the specific pathogens, and memory refers to the cell's ability to quickly respond to pathogens to which it has previously been exposed.
The antigen specificity of an adaptive immune response is due to the activation of antigen specific lymphocytes.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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the process of releasing health record documentation originally created by a different provider is called:
The process of releasing health record documentation created by a different provider is called redisclosure.
Redisclosure is the act of redistributing or publishing health information obtained from other sources (such as external entities or providers) and making it part of a patient's medical record or designated data collection center.
A designated set of records is a collection of records maintained by or on behalf of a covered entity that is "used in whole or in part by or by a covered entity to make decisions about individuals.
A group of records that are "received" and come from other health care providers. For example, treating physicians often send selected relief reports to the hospital where the patient is being treated. Similarly, reports collected during the patient's stay are sent to the attending physician to assist with follow-up. patient care. Information from previous donors is often entered into patient records at the receiving institution.
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which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta and is typically acquired most often during the second pregnancy?
Option 4, The transmission of syphilis, hepatitis B, and HIV from infected women to their newborns can result in considerable morbidity and death can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta and is typically acquired most often during the second pregnancy
There are a number of infectious diseases that are known to have the potential to infected mother harm a growing fetus , including toxoplasmosis, cytomegalovirus (CMV), varicella, rubella, and lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV).The most frequent infection seen at birth in fetus is cytomegalovirus (CMV). A congenital infection is what this is. 3 Pregnancy-related CMV infection raises the possibility of congenital CMV in the unborn child.
The complete question is:
which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta and is typically acquired most often during the second pregnancy?
1. cytomegalovirus
2. anthrax
3. Yersinia
4. syphilis
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In the evaluation of a patient with nystagmus, you suspect the main cause is peripheral vestibular dysfunction. You decide to perform caloric testing. Which of the following physical exam findings is expected in a patient with normal vestibular function?cold water in the right ear produces nystagmus in the left eye; if you did warm water it would go to the same side
cold goes to opposite, warm goes to same
Nystagmus in the left eye is caused by cold water in the right ear; warm water would cause it on the other side. Warmth goes to the same as cold, and vice versa.
Your sense of balance and hearing are both mediated by the vestibulocochlear nerve, cranial nerve eight. Although this nerve is not responsible for controlling eye movement, a loss in it might make balance so unstable that nystagmus results. Vestibular dysfunction results from damage to the vestibular system brought on by illness, viral infection, high dosages of some antibiotics, stroke, deterioration of the inner ear's balance function, hits to the head (such as concussions, brain trauma, whiplash), or some other unidentified cause (s).
Thus, we can conclude that cold water in the right ear causes nystagmus in the left eye while warm water would do so on the opposite side. Cold and warmth are equivalent, and vice versa.
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a nurse is obtaining baseline physical data from a 7-year-old patient who is to be started on dextroamphetamine for adhd. after obtaining vital signs, height, and weight, the nurse will prepare the patient for an
A nurse is obtaining baseline physical data from a 7-year-old patient who is to be started on dextroamphetamine for ADHD and after obtaining vital signs, height, and weight, the nurse will prepare the patient for an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Electrocardiography is that the method of manufacturing an electrocardiogram (ECG), a recording of the heart's electrical activity. It's an electrogram of the heart that may be a graph of voltage versus time of the electrical activity of the guts mistreatment electrodes placed on the skin.
ADHD is one in all the foremost common neurodevelopmental disorders of childhood. It's typically 1st diagnosed in childhood and sometimes lasts into adulthood. Kids with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder could have hassle being attentive, dominant impulsive behaviors (may act doltishly regarding what the result can be), or be excessively active.
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the sympathetic division innervates targets with nerves that all originate from the thoracolumbar region. t or f
Whenever the sympathetic division innervates targets with nerves that all originate from the thoracolumbar area, this statement is true.
The sympathetic division innervates what?Segments T1 to L3 of the thoracolumbar spinal cord provide sympathetic innervation. The heart, blood vessels, bronchi, and GI tract are all innervated by sympathetic nerves as part of the "fight-versus-flight" response.
If there is a sympathetic divide targets are innervated by neurons that all come from the thoracolumbar region?The nerves that the sympathetic division uses to innervate its targets all come from the thoracolumbar area. In which plexus does the vagus nerve NOT provide innervation? A preganglionic axon can have one of three outcomes after it connects to a trunk ganglion.
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a 22-year-old client calls the clinic and tells the nurse that they are depressed and have been taking st. john's wort. the client wants to know whether this is a safe herbal remedy to take. what medications will the nurse ask specifically about?
A 22-year-old patient contacts the clinic and informs the nurse that they have been using St. John's wort to treat their depression. The customer is curious about the safety of using this natural medicine. The nurse will inquire explicitly about oral contraceptives while discussing drugs.
The twenty-eight day and twenty-four day packets of oral contraceptives are the two distinct forms available. We'll examine the negative consequences of oral contraceptives in this post. The majority of oral contraceptive side effects are minimal for most women, and many of them are completely undetectable. St. John's wort can change the metabolism of oral contraceptives, which can reduce the efficacy of the contraceptive.
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Place the following events in the correct order.
Odorant molecules bing to receptors on olfactory hair
G protein is activated leading to the formation of cAMP
Ion channels open in the olfactory cell membrane
Influx of sodium or calcium ions, depolarizing the olfactory cell
Receptor potential is transmitted into the brain
The sensory neurons in the nose are the first in this neural code. An electrical signal is started when an odor molecule attaches to a receptor and travels from the sensory neurons to the olfactory bulb.
What happens after an odorant molecule binds to an olfactory cilium and before a nerve impulse enters the orbitofrontal region?A G protein and adenylyl cyclase are activated when an odorant molecule binds to an olfactory receptor protein, producing cAMP.
Which layering in the olfactory bulb is correct?The MOB of most mammals is composed of seven roughly concentric layers, starting from the surface and going in the following order: (1) olfactory nerve layer (ONL), (2) glomerular layer (GL), (3) external.
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a parent expresses concern that a 5-year-old child may develop epilepsy because the child experienced a febrile seizure at age 18 months. what will the nurse tell this parent?
b. "A small percentage of children who have febrile seizures develop epilepsy." will the nurse tell this parent a parent expresses concern that a 5-year-old child may develop epilepsy.
A brain condition that produces seizures is referred to generally as epilepsy. Epilepsy comes in a variety of forms. Seizures can take many distinct forms. First aid for seizures Learn how to assist someone experiencing a seizure. An acquired brain damage, such as a trauma or stroke, or a hereditary condition, such as epilepsy, may cause it. A person who is having a seizure exhibits odd actions, signs, and feelings, sometimes even losing consciousness. Between seizures, minimal symptoms exist.In addition to drugs, surgery, gadgets, and dietary modifications are occasionally used to treat epilepsy.
a parent expresses concern that a 5-year-old child may develop epilepsy because the child experienced a febrile seizure at age 18 months. what will the nurse tell this parent?
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the nurse is aware that brimonidine is used to produce what physiologic effect in clients with ocular hypertension?
The nurse is aware that brimonidine is used to produce reduce aqueous humor production pg. p. 1083-1084 in clients with ocular hypertension.
As a result, the generation of aqueous humor is constrained by topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. Since they have been licensed, brinzolamide and dorzolamide have an initial effectiveness of 15% to 20% for lowering IOP.
For instance, topical and systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitors lessen the amount of aqueous humor generated by the epithelial cells of the ciliary body. For us to function in our daily lives, comedy must be produced. For instance, comedy is commonly used in social settings to lift spirits, defuse tension, and build social ties. Self-report surveys, other-reports (sociometry or behavior observations), and performance testing are the three main ways to evaluate comedy creation.
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the nurse is assessing the patient on mitotane therapy. which assessment finding requires action by the nurse?
When a patient can raise 10 pounds after previously being unable to lift even 5 pounds, the nurse must take action in mitotane therapy.
What assessment results from the list below should the nurse consider relevant to a Cushing's syndrome diagnosis?Serum sodium levels rise and potassium levels fall in a person with Cushing's syndrome. a blood test. Blood glucose levels rising, eosinophil counts falling, and lymphoid tissue disappearing are all signs of Cushing's syndrome.
Which of the following would you expect to see in a Cushing disease patient?A fatty hump between your shoulders, a rounded face, and pink or purple stretch marks on your skin are some of the classic Cushing syndrome symptoms that can be brought on by an excess of cortisol.
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a nurse who is providing care on a pediatric client has conducted a medication reconciliation. in light of the fact that the client takes methylphenidate, the nurse is justified in considering a history of what health problem?
This methylphenidate medication may induce sleeplessness, weight loss, and gastrointestinal problems.
What is methylphenidate ?
Methylphenidate, often known as Ritalin and Concerta, is the most commonly prescribed central nervous system (CNS) stimulant medicine used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and, to a lesser extent, narcolepsy. It is a major treatment for ADHD; it can be taken orally or administered topically, and different formulations have variable durations of action, which typically range from 2-4 hours. Though there is little to no evidence to support its use as an athletic performance enhancer, cognitive enhancer, aphrodisiac, or euphoriant, claims that it can be used for these purposes persist.
Methylphenidate side effects include tachycardia, palpitations, headache, sleeplessness, anxiety, hyperhidrosis, weight loss, reduced appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and stomach pain.
This medication may induce sleeplessness, weight loss, and gastrointestinal problems.
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which assessment finding would the nurse recognize as indicative of possible neglect of a 5 year old child
The nurse recognizes malnutrition and poor cleanliness, hygiene as signs of potential neglect in a 5-year-old child.
What is a prime illustration of hygiene?By maintaining proper personal hygiene and washing one's hair and skin with soapy water on a regular basis, many diseases and ailments can be avoided or under control. The sample for this study associated to poor hygiene can be halted by developing healthy body washing practices. To keep healthy, learn how and when to wash your hands.
Why is cleanliness crucial?Maintaining a clean, healthy exterior requires good personal hygiene. It is essential for preserving equal levels of physical and mental wellness. People without poor personal hygiene give the body the perfect conditions for germs to flourish, making them more susceptible to sickness.
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if a physician wanted to relieve anxiety with a lesser risk of drowsiness, overdose, and slowed breathing, the physician would prescribe:
A doctor might prescribe benzodiazepines if they wished to reduce anxiety with a lower risk of sleepiness, overdose, and delayed breathing.
How does anxiousness feel?Not being able to unwind or feeling tense.Felt as though time was passing more fast or in a horrible manner, awaiting the worst. Feeling that others are looking at you and see how tense you are.
Is there a mental condition called anxiety?Nearly 30% of individuals have an anxiousness disorder at some time in their life, making it among the most prevalent of all mental diseases. However, there are a variety of efficient therapies for anxiety disorders. Most persons who get treatment can live regular, fulfilling lives.
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true or false: diet and physical activity play a role in the development of certain chronic diseases, such as cardiovascular disease and cancer.
It is accurate to say that certain chronic conditions, such as cancer and cardiovascular disease are influenced by nutrition and physical activity.
How is cancer triggered?Cancer being brought on by cells that divide out of control and invade healthy tissue. Cancer is mostly brought along by Dna. The most of DNA mutations that result in cancer occur in areas of DNA called genes. These alterations are sometimes refereed to as genetic changes.
What precisely is cancer?The body's unregulated development of abnormal cells is what causes cancer. Cancer may develop because when body's natural regulator experiences problems. Old cells do not really die; they just keep multiplying uncontrolled to create new, abnormal cells. These extra cells may congregate into tumor-like fat tissue.
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the nurse elicits a positive chvostek sign when tapping on the facial nerve. what action by the nurse is a priority after this assessment is complete?
The nurse should check the patient's calcium level as soon as this evaluation is finished to rule out hypocalcemia.
Define hypocalcemia.When your plasma calcium is too low, you have hypocalcemia, a disorder that is treatable. Hypocalcemia can be brought on by a variety of medical disorders, but it's frequently brought on by excessive levels of calcium or (PTH) in the body.
What primarily contributes to hypocalcemia?PTH or vitamin D problems are the most frequent causes of low serum calcium values. A reduction in plasma ionized calcium due to calcium binding in the circulating blood or calcium deposition in muscles, as can happen with hyperphosphatemia, are two other reasons of hyperkalemia.
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the nurse is caring for inmates in a correctional facility. which is the mode of transmission for the recent outbreak of tuberculosis?
Airborne droplets is the mode of transmission for the recent outbreak of tuberculosis.
What transpires if you contract tuberculosis?TB disease is generally characterized by feelings of weakness or sickness, weight loss, fever, and night sweats. Coughing, chest pain, and the coughing up of blood are additional signs of TB lung disease. Depending on the area affected, TB disease symptoms may appear in other body parts.
Tuberculosis is fatal if untreated. Organ tissue lesions are brought on by the bacterium that causes tuberculosis (TB). Pulmonary tuberculosis, the most typical type of TB, can seriously damage the lungs, resulting in respiratory issues and even death.
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hand washing and routine cleaning are examples of what type of practice? sterile sterile safety safety surgical asepsis surgical asepsis medical asepsis
The medical asepsis are the hand washing and routine cleaning are examples of what type of practice.
Aseptic approach way the use of practices and strategies to save you infection from pathogens.Handwashing might be the maximum crucial aseptic approach worried in stopping the unfold of many disorder agents.
The arms touch quite a few surfaces at some stage in the day. In doing so, they turn out to be infected with microbes from the ones surfacesSanitization. Sanitization refers to cleansing practices and strategies that bodily eliminate microorganisms. These consist of hand washing and cleansing of clients' non-public equipment, clothing, and linens.
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vitamin k intramuscular is prescribed for a neonate. a nurse prepares to administer the medication in which muscle site?
The best treatment involves injecting vitamin K into a baby's leg muscle once.
Research and clinical experience show that vitamin K injections administered at birth are secure and efficient. In New Zealand and many other countries, vitamin K injections have been given to infants for many years without incident.
The injection does not cause any health problems, but in some infants, the injection site may enlarge slightly or hurt for a day or two.
One type of childhood cancer and vitamin K injections may be related, according to a study from the early 1990s. Later research has shown that there is no link between vitamin K and any sort of childhood cancer.
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is the following statement true or false? when conducting a follow-up assessment on a patient with alzheimer disease, the nurse should include an assessment on the primary caregiver as well.
False because early onset is more progressive than late-onset Alzheimer disease; late-onset Alzheimer disease is more common.
As far as dementia goes, Alzheimer's disease is the most prevalent. The disease is gradual, starting with mild memory loss and potentially progressing to the loss of communication and environmental awareness. The brain regions that are responsible for thought, memory, and language are affected by Alzheimer's disease. It can significantly impair a person's capacity to carry out daily tasks.Memory loss that interferes with daily life, such as asking the same questions repeatedly or getting lost in a familiar setting, difficulty managing finances and paying bills. A challenge finishing routine duty at work, at home, or in leisure, reduced or bad judgement, losing things and not being able to go back and find them and mood, attitude, or behavior changes.To know more about alzheimer check the below link:
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a nurse is reviewing the structure and function of the nervous system in preparation for working on a neurological floor. what characteristic of neurons should the nurse identify?
nervous system without coming into touch, neurons can communicate action potentials to one another is characteristic of neurons should the nurse identify
In order to be prepared to work on a neurological floor, a nurse is learning the anatomy and physiology of the nervous system. Without neurons coming into touch, neurons can communicate action potentials to one another. Neurotransmitter is released into the synapse as a result of an action potential that travels the length of the axon. The neuron can connect with other neurons thanks to the action potential and subsequent transmitter release of nervous system.
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when a drug is ordered off-label, what must the nurse be clear about before administering the drug? (mark all that apply.)
When a drug is ordered off-label, the nurse should be clear about why it is administered
The purpose of use. It has the potential for issues.
To ensure the correct patient is receiving the medication, the nurse must first make sure the patient's identity matches both the medication administration record (MAR) and the medication label.
Before delivering the prescribed medication, the nurse must confirm the prescription, and they must also use critical thinking skills to assess the prescribed medication, the client's status and condition in relation to potential contraindications, as well as pertinent data such vital signs.
The task of providing pharmaceuticals is under the purview of nurses, who are responsible for ensuring that the appropriate medication is prepared, dosed, and administered to the appropriate patient at the appropriate time and by the appropriate route. To prevent or lessen the likelihood of administration errors, several hospitals employ a single-dose strategy.
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a nurse is administering a prescribed dose of chlordiazepoxide to a client. the nurse should closely assess the client for what adverse reaction?
Respiratory depression. It occurs when the lungs are unable to properly exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen. The body begins to accumulate carbon dioxide as a result of this malfunction.
How is respiratory depression treated?It is generally effective to administer naloxone in increments of 0.1 to 0.4 mg to reverse respiratory depression; however, since naloxone's duration of action is shorter than that of the respiratory depressant effect of epidural opioids, a continuous infusion of naloxone (0.5 to 5 g/kg/hour) may be required.
Asthmatic respiratory depression?Respiratory distress is totally demonstrated by the sense of "not being able to breathe," as opposed to usual asthma symptoms, some of which you experience more than you see. It is frequently linked to inadequate asthma management or a combination of variables,
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the nurse instructs the client taking medication for erectile dysfunction to call the health care provider if which adverse effect occurs after taking the medication?
After taking the medication to cure the erectile dysfunction the client should call the health care provider if priapism is observed.
As the nurse is instructing the client about taking the medication for the erectile dysfunction.
The nurse should also tell the client to contact the health care provider as soon as possible in the case if Priapism is observed.
It is a condition of the prolonged erection of the reproductive organ which is the sign that the medication has shown some adverse effects and a proper service of healthcare provider is required.
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which manifestation would the nurse describe for the parent of a 4 year old who asks to determine whether their child is insecure
Stress is the manifestation which the nurse would describe for the parent of a 4 year old who asks to determine whether their child is insecure.
Childhood stress may be present in any setting that needs the kid to adapt or modification. Stress could also be caused by positive changes, like beginning a brand new activity, however it's most ordinarily connected with negative changes like ill health or death within the family.
A child could have insecurity for a range of reasons, explains Dr. Taylor, together with "growing up during a family within which they did not feel safe, loved, or valued." He adds that some children with insecurity could have "parents who were angry, threatening, abusive."
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a client in her twenties has told the nurse that she will be going on a safari trip for her honeymoon and that she has been prescribed antimalarial prophylaxis. the nurse should follow up with what education?
A client in their early twenties who has informed the nurse that she would be taking antimalarial prophylaxis and going on a safari vacation for her honeymoon needs follow-up instruction from the nurse to persuade the client to use dependable contraception.
If the patient is taking the medication, they should notify their doctor immediately away if they develop significant chest discomfort, headaches, eye issues, or leg pain. These signs might indicate several dangerous illnesses, such as a heart attack, pulmonary embolism, stroke, liver, or gallbladder problems.
In the majority of malaria-endemic areas, atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone), doxycycline, & mefloquine are the medications of choice for malaria prophylaxis.
Mefloquine can be taken safely in the third and second trimesters of pregnancy, whereas chloroquine (Aralen) is safe to use throughout the whole pregnancy.
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which statement indicates that a new graduate nurse understands central venous pressure (cvp) measurement when used on a client?
The pressure in the thoracic vena cava just below the right atrium is known as central venous pressure, or CVP.
What does having a high CVP mean?Elevated CVP is a sign of fluid retention or dysfunctional cardiac contractility. Low central venous pressure, on the other hand, is a sign of volume loss or diminished venous tone.
Does heart failure have a high CVP?While CVP may be normal in left heart failure and pulmonary edema [19], an increased CVP may indicate right heart dysfunction or blockage to right ventricular outflow, which would cause blood to pool in the right atrium.
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many mutations in receptor kinases that lead to cancer allow the receptor to dimerize and become activated, even in the absence of signaling molecules. an example is a mutant form of the egf receptor kinase called her2/neu. an antibody that prevents dimerization of her2/neu receptor kinases is being tested for its effectiveness in preventing cancer. at which stage does this drug work?
An antibody that prevents dimerization of Her2/neu receptor kinases would prevent the receptor from becoming activated.
A protein involved in normal cell growth. HER2/neu may be produced in excess by some types of cancer cells, such as breast, ovarian, bladder, pancreatic, stomach, and esophageal cancers. This can cause cancer cells to grow faster and spread to other parts of the body. Checking her HER2/neu levels in some types of cancer cells can help plan treatment. Also called c-erbB-2, HER2, human EGF receptor 2, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
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