A mall manager would like to draw a simple random sample of 20 people from a population of 250 elements. On the first selection, the probability of a particular element being selected is:a. .004b. .05c. .08d. 1.00

Answers

Answer 1

On the first selection, the probability of a particular element being selected is .004, option A is correct.

The mall manager wants to draw a simple random sample of 20 people from a population of 250 elements. In a simple random sample, each element in the population has an equal chance of being selected for the sample. The probability of selecting any particular element in a simple random sample of size n from a population of size N is given by:

P(selecting a particular element) = 1 ÷ N

In this case, the population size is N = 250 and the sample size is n = 20. Therefore, the probability of a particular element being selected on the first selection is:

P(selecting a particular element) = 1 ÷ 250 = 0.004

So the answer is (a) 0.004.

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Related Questions

The following are correct EXCEPT...
Oracles against foreign nations function to emphasize God's sovereignty over the nations.
Zephaniah's historical background is similar to that of Habakkuk and Nahum.
Zephaniah's focus is on the Day of the Lord and his message is primarily directed to Judah.
Like the Book of Jonah, Zephaniah consists of extensive prophetic oracles against Nineveh.

Answers

The following statement is incorrect: Like the Book of Jonah, Zephaniah consists of extensive prophetic oracles against Nineveh.

While Zephaniah does contain oracles against foreign nations, it primarily focuses on the Day of the Lord and his message directed to Judah. The Book of Jonah, on the other hand, focuses more on Nineveh and God's mercy towards it.

The Book of Zephaniah primarily focuses on the impending "Day of the Lord," which refers to a future time of divine judgment and restoration. Zephaniah delivers messages of judgment against Judah for their sins, and also includes oracles against foreign nations such as Philistia, Moab, Ammon, Ethiopia, and Assyria.

However, the prophecies against Nineveh, the capital city of Assyria, are not a significant part of Zephaniah's message. In fact, Nineveh is only mentioned once in Zephaniah 2:13-15 in the context of its eventual desolation.

On the other hand, the Book of Jonah focuses on the prophet Jonah who is sent by God to deliver a message of repentance to Nineveh, the capital city of Assyria. Unlike Zephaniah, the Book of Jonah emphasizes God's mercy towards Nineveh, as the people of Nineveh, including their king, heed Jonah's warning and repent of their sins, leading to their salvation from destruction. T

he book also highlights Jonah's reluctance to deliver the message, his disobedience, and his subsequent punishment by God, as well as the theme of God's sovereignty and compassion towards all nations, including non-Israelite nations like Nineveh.

Therefore, while both Zephaniah and Jonah are prophetic books in the Old Testament, they have distinct themes, with Zephaniah focusing on the Day of the Lord and delivering messages primarily to Judah, and Jonah emphasizing God's mercy towards Nineveh and the prophet's response to his divine mission.

The statement erroneously equates the two books in terms of their content, which is not accurate.

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A psychotherapist instructs Nolan to relax, close his eyes, and state aloud whatever thoughts come to mind no matter how trivial or absurd. The therapist is using a technique known as

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Explanation:Free association is a technique used in psychoanalytic therapy where the patient is instructed to verbalize any thoughts, feelings, or images that come to mind, regardless of how trivial or unrelated they may seem.

The therapist typically asks the patient to relax, close their eyes, and allow their mind to wander, while the therapist listens attentively for clues to the patient's unconscious conflicts and desires. The goal of free association is to help the patient gain insight into their unconscious processes and gain a better understanding of their emotions and behavior. This technique was developed by Sigmund Freud, the founder of psychoanalysis.

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You are driving through a busy neighborhood and you observe many children playing outside. Describe how you would apply the four steps of the IPDE process to this situation.

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Identify, Predict, Decide, and Execute is the acronym for IPDE. Off-road driving should also employ this tactic. Determine any items or situations that could be problematic for you while driving. Make an educated guess as to what might happen when you come across the thing or condition.

In the IPDE process, a driver can spot a potentially hazardous object in the center of the road and then forecast what might happen if one or more vehicles strike it: there might be an accident, or the object might seriously harm the vehicle. PDE truly stands for the four safe driving phases of identification, prediction, decision-making, and execution.

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Question 8An administrative process of measuring and analyzing results in relation to specific goals, objectives, aims or targets isChoose one answer. a. record keeping b. daily activity reports c. coding d. evaluation

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The correct answer is d. evaluation. Evaluation is an administrative process that involves measuring and analyzing results to determine if they align with specific goals, objectives, aims, or targets.

Through evaluation, organizations can assess their performance and identify areas for improvement or adjustment. In order to evaluate the effectiveness of an organisation, programme, policy, or project, a variety of data gathering and analysis approaches must be used. Evaluation is a complicated and dynamic process. Performance measurement is a continuous procedure that uses pre-selected performance metrics to track and report on a program's accomplishments. However, programme assessment makes use of measurement and analysis to respond to particular queries on how effectively a programme is producing its intended results and why. Determining a performance standard, assessing company activity results, and comparing them to the standard constitute evaluation. Benchmarking is a particular type of evaluation where the performance criterion is based on the superior performance of another firm.

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the school psychologist is a big believer that students must have a positive self-concept before they can reach their true potential at school. which perspective is this psychologist likely following? the school psychologist is a big believer that students must have a positive self-concept before they can reach their true potential at school. which perspective is this psychologist likely following? social-cognitive trait psychoanalytic behavioral humanistic

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The psychologist's belief that students must have a positive self-concept before they can reach their true potential at school is likely following the humanistic perspective.

This perspective emphasizes the importance of individual experiences, free will, and self-actualization in achieving personal growth and fulfillment. Humanistic psychologists believe that individuals have an innate drive to reach their full potential and that their self-concept, or their perception of themselves, plays a critical role in their motivation, behavior, and overall well-being.

Therefore, the school psychologist's emphasis on the importance of a positive self-concept aligns with the humanistic perspective.

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during years where the amount of money collected by the federal government for social security exceeds the amount paid out as benefits, the remainder is placed into ______________________.

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During years where the amount of money collected by the federal government for social security exceeds the amount paid out as benefits, the remainder is placed into the Social Security  Trust Fund, where it is invested in special issue U.S.

The excess money collected by the federal government for Social Security is placed into a trust fund called the Social Security Trust Fund. This fund is made up of two accounts: the Old-Age and Survivors Insurance (OASI) account and the Disability Insurance (DI) account. The OASI account provides benefits to retired and surviving beneficiaries, while the DI account provides benefits to disabled beneficiaries.

When the Social Security program collects more money in payroll taxes than it pays out in benefits, the excess money is invested in special issue U.S. Treasury bonds. These bonds are essentially IOUs from the government to the Social Security Trust Fund, promising to pay back the money with interest. The interest rate on these bonds is based on the market rate at the time they are issued.

The Social Security Trust Fund uses the money from the special issue bonds to pay out benefits when the program's expenses exceed its revenue. This can happen when the number of beneficiaries increases, or when the cost of living adjustments (COLA) for beneficiaries are higher than anticipated.

It is important to note that the Social Security Trust Fund is projected to be depleted in the coming decades, as the number of beneficiaries continues to increase and the ratio of workers to beneficiaries decreases. This means that the program will not be able to pay out full benefits to all eligible individuals unless changes are made to the program's funding or benefits structure.

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one of the best ways to give meaning to new ideas is through comparison and contrast, true or false?

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Answer:

True. Comparison and contrast are effective ways to give meaning to new ideas, as they help to relate new concepts to familiar ones and to highlight similarities and differences between different ideas or phenomena. By comparing and contrasting new ideas with familiar ones, individuals can more easily understand and contextualize the new ideas, and they can also identify areas of overlap or divergence between different concepts. Comparison and contrast are commonly used in many fields, including literature, art, science, and philosophy, as they allow for nuanced and detailed analysis of complex ideas or phenomena.

The world's population is expected to climb to some 9.8 billion by ______.

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The world's population is expected to climb to some 9.8 billion by 2050.

According to projections from the United Nations, the world's population is expected to continue to grow in the coming decades, reaching approximately 9.8 billion people by 2050. This growth is largely driven by increasing life expectancies, particularly in developing countries, and high fertility rates in many parts of the world.

While population growth can have positive effects, such as stimulating economic growth and innovation, it can also lead to significant challenges, including increased pressure on resources, environmental degradation, and social and political instability.

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The world's population is expected to climb to some 9.8 billion by the year 2050.

Population is the term typically used to refer to the number of people in a single area. Governments conduct a census to quantify the size of a resident population within a given jurisdiction. The term is also applied to animals, microorganisms, and plants, and has specific uses within such fields as ecology and genetics. In ecology, a population is a group of organisms of the same species who inhabit the same particular geographical area and are capable of interbreeding. The area of a sexual population is the area where inter-breeding is possible between any pair within the area and more probable than cross-breeding with individuals from other areas. In ecology, the population of a certain species in a certain area can be estimated using the Lincoln index to calculate the total population of an area based on the number of individuals observed.

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What do members of Congress do to develop broad public support for their bills?

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The following things are done by members of Congress do to develop broad public support for their bills are as follows-

Work with organizations that can help get media attention and grassroots lobbying.

- get media coverage

- Work with grassroots initiatives and stakeholders

- Robbie Washington Insider

- Timing - recognize current events and associate them with auspicious events

Most laws, whether permanent or temporary, general or specific, public or private, take the form of bills. The letters "H.R." for "House" are followed by a number that identifies the bill at all stages of Congress. If both the House and Senate pass a bill in the same fashion, the president will have a chance to implement it.

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What occurs in the five steps of the cycle of interpersonal violence?
1) Prelude to conflict - Preceptions of past unresolved conflict and episodes of violence
2) Triggering Event - For the person abused, triggers fear, for the abuser, triggers aggression
3) Initiation of Conflict - Generally though competing and destructive messages
4) Differentiation Phase - Escalating verbal abuse; attack-withdraw pattern - may escalate to violence
5) Resolution Phase - Conflict is not resolved; issues are dropped or suppressed. Sometimes ended by a 3rd party

Answers

The five steps of the cycle of interpersonal violence are Prelude to conflict, Triggering event, Initiation of conflict, Differentiation phase, and Resolution phase.

In the Prelude to Conflict, there are perceptions of past unresolved conflicts and episodes of violence. This can set the stage for future conflict. In the triggering event, there is a specific event that triggers fear in the person being abused or aggression in the abuser. This can be a small thing or a major incident. In the Initiation of conflict, there are competing and destructive messages being exchanged between the two parties. This can be verbal or physical. In the Differentiation phase, there is escalating verbal abuse and an attack-withdraw pattern. This can escalate to violence if left unchecked. In the Resolution phase, the conflict is not resolved and issues are often dropped or suppressed. Sometimes a third party is needed to end the conflict. It's important to recognize the cycle of interpersonal violence and take steps to intervene before it escalates to physical violence. According to affective events theory, affective events can trigger emotions, which can influence fluctuations in satisfaction levels and also trigger spontaneous behaviours.

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you are an anthropologist who has studied early hominin bones, and you argue, based on the finds, that this species was both bipedal and exhibited a high degree of sexual dimorphism in body size. what are the implications of your argument?

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If early hominins were both bipedal and exhibited a high degree of sexual dimorphism in body size, there are several implications of this argument.

Firstly, bipedalism and sexual dimorphism in body size could suggest that early hominins lived in a social structure where there were distinct gender roles, with males possibly being involved in more physical tasks such as hunting and defense, while females focused on gathering and childcare. This could have contributed to the development of social hierarchies and potentially even the formation of early societies.

Sexual dimorphism in body size could have been an advantage in terms of reproductive success. Larger males may have been better suited for competing for mates, while females may have been attracted to larger males due to their perceived physical prowess and ability to provide resources for offspring.

Lastly, bipedalism and sexual dimorphism in body size may have played a role in the evolution of human intelligence and cognitive abilities. Bipedalism freed up the hands for tool use and allowed for the development of complex tools and technology. Sexual dimorphism in body size could have led to the development of more complex social behaviors and communication, as larger males may have needed to establish dominance and communicate with other members of their group.

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Question23
A medical surveillance program must be provided to workers at hazardous waste sites by the
a. worker's health insurance
b. OSHA
c. Federal government
d. employer

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A medical surveillance program must be provided to workers at hazardous waste sites by the employer. Option d is correct.

According to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), employers are responsible for providing a medical surveillance program to workers who are exposed to hazardous materials or working in hazardous waste sites. This program includes regular medical exams and monitoring of employees' health to detect any adverse effects from exposure to hazardous materials.

Employers are also responsible for providing necessary training and personal protective equipment to their employees. The goal of this program is to ensure the safety and well-being of workers and to prevent any long-term health effects caused by exposure to hazardous materials. Failure to comply with OSHA regulations regarding medical surveillance programs can result in fines and legal action against employers. Hence Option d is correct.

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The Tragedy of the Commons suggests that people and states have a general set of incentives that encourage them to limit their consumption of public resources.A. TrueB. False

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B. False. The Tragedy of the Commons suggests that people and states have a general set of incentives that encourage them to overconsume common resources, leading to their depletion or degradation.

“The Tragedy of the Commons,” is an irrefutable argument for the superior efficiency of private property rights with respect to land and resource uses and, therefore, is an irrefutable justification for privatization. It refers to a situation in which individuals with access to common resources act in their own interest and, in doing so, ultimately deplete the resource. The same concept is sometimes called the "tragedy of the fishers" because fishing too many fish before or during breeding could cause stocks to plummet. The problem can also result in under-investment, and ultimately total depletion of the resource. As the demand for the resource overwhelms the supply, every individual who consumes an additional unit directly harms others—and themselves too—who can no longer enjoy the benefits. Generally, the resource of interest is easily available to all individuals without barriers (i.e. the "commons").

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The pattern of delegation throughout an organization determines the extent to which the organization is:
a.
functional or customer based.
b.
location or product based.
c.
specialized or rotated.
d.
centralized or decentralized.
e.
using a wide span or narrow span.

Answers

The pattern of delegation throughout an organization determines the extent to which the organization is centralized or decentralized. The right answer is d.

The downward transfer of power from a manager to a subordinate is called delegation. Today, the majority of organisations urge managers to distribute power in order to provide them the most flexibility possible to meet client needs. Managers that don't delegate leave their staff underutilised because they handle everything themselves.

The success of a management depends on their ability to delegate. The degree to which an organisation is centralised or decentralised is determined by the overall pattern of authority throughout that organisation. A centralised organisation deliberately aims to concentrate power at the top. In a decentralised organisation, management intentionally works to distribute power to the lowest levels of the hierarchy.

The correct answer is option d.

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Question 13 Marks: 1 The voluntary federal-state program designed to ensue a safe and clean milk supply is commonly referred to as theChoose one answer. a. IMS b. FDAVP c. PHSVFSP d. VFS

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The voluntary federal-state program designed to ensure a safe and clean milk supply is commonly referred to as the IMS (Interstate Milk Shippers) program. So the correct option is A.

The program was established in 1982 by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the National Conference on Interstate Milk Shipments to provide a standardized program for milk inspection and grading across state lines. The IMS program includes regulations and guidelines for milk production, processing, packaging, and transportation, as well as testing for contaminants such as bacteria, antibiotics, and chemicals.

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If you move to Virginia from another state, you have up to ____ days to obtain a new license

Answers

Answer: 30

Explanation:

Assigning part of your work, and the authority required to do that work, to someone else is called:
a.
responsibility.
b.
relegation.
c.
authorization.
d.
delegation.
e.
accountability.

Answers

Assigning part of your work, and the authority required to do that work, to someone else is called delegation. The right answer is d.

When a management gives duties to other team members, it is called delegation. The three components of delegation are accountability, authority, and responsibility. You may effectively delegate using a variety of technologies, as well as by showing your staff how to perform particular duties.

When managers utilize their power to delegate tasks to coworkers or direct reports, they are engaging in the practise of delegation. As the higher-level strategic planning for which you are accountable requires time and effort, delegation of duties is crucial. The three fundamental components of delegation, referred to as the elements of delegation, are accountability, responsibility, and authority.

The correct answer is option d.

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Your answer: d. delegation. Delegation involves assigning part of your work and the authority required to do that work to someone else while still maintaining responsibility for the overall outcome.

Delegation is the assignment of authority to another person (normally from a manager to a subordinate) to carry out specific activities. It is the process of distributing and entrusting work to another person,[1] and therefore one of the core concepts of management leadership. The process involves managers deciding which work they should do themselves and which work should be delegated to others for completion. From a managerial standpoint, delegation involves shifting project responsibility to team members, giving them the opportunity to finalize the work product effectively, with minimal intervention. The opposite of effective delegation is micromanagement, where a manager provides too much input, direction, and review of delegated work. Delegation empowers a subordinate to make decisions. It is a shifting of decision-making authority as well as responsibility for the results from one organisational level to another lower one. However, a certain level of accountability for the outcome of the work does remain with the person who delegated the work to begin with.

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Describe how you might teach the concept of honest to a child. Would your program teach a child to be honest? Why or why not?

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Answer:

Here are a few steps that can be taken to teach the concept of honesty to a child:

Define honesty: Begin by explaining to the child what it means to be honest. Use age-appropriate language to explain that honesty means telling the truth, even if it is difficult.

Model honesty: Children learn by example, so it is important to model honesty in your own behavior. Be truthful in your interactions with the child and others.

Reward honesty: When the child tells the truth, make sure to acknowledge and praise their honesty. This positive reinforcement helps to reinforce the importance of honesty.

Discuss consequences: Talk to the child about the consequences of lying, and how it can lead to a loss of trust and hurt relationships.

Encourage problem-solving: Encourage the child to find honest ways to solve problems or deal with difficult situations, instead of resorting to lying.

Regarding the question of whether the program would teach a child to be honest, the answer is yes. Honesty is an important value that contributes to healthy relationships and a positive community. While it is ultimately up to the child to make choices about honesty, a program can create a supportive and positive environment that encourages honesty and integrity.

Explanation:

What name has Equality given to Liberty? Why?

Answers

Answer: Equality gave Liberty the name "The Golden One".

Explanation: Liberty was given the name "The Golden One" due to her fearlessness in her eyes, and was given the name to shine forth from many other women.

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in the encyclical on social concern, what does the church say are the root caused of structures of sin?

Answers

In the encyclical on social concern, the Church identifies the root causes of structures of sin as rooted in personal sin, which then leads to social sin.

In the encyclical on social concern, the church identifies several root causes of structures of sin, including the pursuit of profit at the expense of workers, the concentration of economic and political power in the hands of a few, and the failure to respect the dignity and rights of every human person. The church emphasizes the importance of addressing these root causes in order to create a more just and equitable society. These structures are perpetuated by attitudes such as selfishness, greed, and the desire for power. The Church lays stress on the need for individual conversion and social transformation to address these issues and promote a more just society.

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When evaluating a study conducted by someone else, what basic principles should you look for in their study

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When evaluating a study conducted by someone else, you should look for the following basic principles in their study: Clear research question, Appropriate research design, Ethical considerations, Validity and reliability, Data analysis, Clear and coherent results, and Sound conclusions.

1. Clear research question: Ensure that the study has a well-defined and focused research question.

2. Appropriate research design: Check if the study's design is suitable to answer the research question, considering factors such as the study type, sample size, and data collection methods.

3. Ethical considerations: Verify if the study has addressed ethical issues, including informed consent, confidentiality, and protection of participants.

4. Validity and reliability: Examine the validity and reliability of the measurements and data collection instruments used in the study.

5. Data analysis: Assess the appropriateness and rigor of the data analysis techniques employed, ensuring they align with the study's research question and design.

6. Clear and coherent results: Look for well-presented results that directly address the research question.

7. Sound conclusions: Evaluate if the conclusions drawn from the study are well-grounded in the results and are logically connected to the research question.

By focusing on these basic principles, you can better evaluate the quality and rigor of someone else's study.

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What were the results of The Long Beach, California, AIDS Community Demonstration Project?

Answers

In the 1990s, a community-based research project called the Long Beach AIDS Community Demonstration Project was carried out to address the expanding HIV/AIDS crisis in the Long Beach, California, region.

The objective of the project was to determine whether community education and mobilization could increase HIV testing and prevention among populations at risk.

The project was a collaboration between community organizations, health professionals, and researchers. It promoted HIV testing and prevention through a variety of methods, such as peer education, media campaigns, and community events.

The project's outcomes demonstrated that community mobilization and education can increase HIV prevention and testing among populations at risk. The project found that people who took part in the community-led interventions were more likely than those who didn't to get tested for HIV, use condoms regularly, and use services related to HIV.

Overall, the Long Beach AIDS Community Demonstration Project was a successful example of how community-based research and collaboration can help address public health issues like the HIV/AIDS epidemic and produce positive health outcomes.

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a prosthetist designs, measures, fits, and adjusts artificial limbs for amputees and devices for people with musculoskeletal or neurological conditions.

Answers

A prosthetist is a healthcare professional who specializes in designing, measuring, fitting, and adjusting artificial limbs for amputees and devices for people with musculoskeletal or neurological conditions. They work closely with patients to assess their needs and create custom prosthetics that are tailored to their specific requirements.

What is a prosthetist designs?

A prosthetist designs, measures, fits, and adjusts artificial limbs for amputees and devices for people with musculoskeletal or neurological conditions. In this process, the prosthetist:

1. Consults with patients and evaluates their needs based on their medical history and specific conditions.
2. Designs customized artificial limbs or devices, taking into account factors such as patient comfort, functionality, and aesthetics.
3. Measures the patient's residual limb or affected body part to ensure a proper fit of the prosthetic device.
4. Creates a mold or digital scan of the patient's limb to build the custom device.
5. Fabricates or orders the necessary components and materials for the artificial limb or device.
6. Assembles the prosthetic device and ensures it meets the patient's needs and specifications.
7. Fits the artificial limb or device to the patient, making any necessary adjustments for optimal comfort and function.
8. Instructs patients on how to properly use and care for their prosthetic device.
9. Monitors the patient's progress and makes any necessary adjustments or modifications to the device as needed.

Overall, a prosthetist plays a crucial role in helping amputees and individuals with musculoskeletal or neurological conditions regain their mobility and independence.    

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what was the impact of the 2013-2014 bullying intervention program that was implemented in new jersey? group of answer choices there did not appear to be any benefits to implementing the intervention program. schools showed a 20% reduction in disciplinary reports for peer conflict. schools showed a 30% reduction in disciplinary reports for peer conflict. schools showed a 50% reduction in disciplinary reports for peer conflict.

Answers

The impact of the 2013-2014 bullying intervention program implemented in New Jersey was: Schools showed a 50% reduction in disciplinary reports for peer conflict. The correct option is D.

Under bullying intervention program , the schools were required to establish and enforce policies that clearly defined bullying and harassment, outlined reporting procedures, and specified consequences for engaging in such behaviors.

Under this program, schools were required to promptly investigate reported incidents of bullying and take appropriate action to address them. This involved conducting thorough investigations, documenting findings, and implementing disciplinary measures if necessary.

Thus, the ideal selection is option D.

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The complete question might be:

what was the impact of the 2013-2014 bullying intervention program that was implemented in new jersey? group of answer choices

A. there did not appear to be any benefits to implementing the intervention program.

B. schools showed a 20% reduction in disciplinary reports for peer conflict.

C. schools showed a 30% reduction in disciplinary reports for peer conflict.

D. schools showed a 50% reduction in disciplinary reports for peer conflict.

a culture within a culture, based on ethnicity, class, region, or some other variable is called?

Answers

A subculture is a culture inside a culture that is defined by race, class, area, or some other element.It contributes to the preservation of cultural diversity and social identity.

A subculture is a distinct community inside a broader culture that shares ideas, values, conventions, practices, and artifacts that differ from the prevailing culture. Ethnicity, social status, gender, age, religion, and occupation can all be used to define subcultures.

Subcultures give its members a sense of identity and belonging, and they frequently establish their own language, symbols, and practices. Depending on their values and behaviors, subcultures can have a positive or bad impact on society.

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michael, accused of assault, was found incompetent to stand trial 16 years ago. since that time, he has been held in a state mental facility. this is likely in violation of .

Answers

16 years ago, Michael, who was charged with assault, was deemed unable to stand trial. He has been housed in a state psychiatric hospital ever since. This probably contravenes Jackson v. Indiana (1972).

Describe Jackson v. Indiana case.

The Supreme Court concluded in Jackson v. Indiana (1972) that the government may hold dangerous offenders who may not be able to stand trial.

The U.S. Supreme Court ruled in Jackson v. Indiana (1972) that states may not imprison criminal defendants for an unlimited period of time based alone on their inability to stand trial. The Court ordered that the commitment period be restricted based on the prospect of restoration, but it did not specify any time frames.

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jaime has just pled guilty to cocaine possession. at first she claimed that the drugs weren't hers but figured the judge might be lenient if he knew that she had fought with cocaine addiction since she was 14 years old. her parents are in the public spotlight and the publicity was just too much for her to handle so she left home when she was 16, certain that she could make it on her own. after living on the streets addicted to anything she could get her hands on, she finally went back home to seek help from her parents who put her in rehab about 6 months ago. jaime was sentenced to a $2,000 fine, 300 hours of community service, and 2 months of intensive outpatient drug treatment. even though she was going to get help, jamie felt like her sentence was a waste of time. jaime has relapsed and she knows that her probation officer is going to violate her probation for it, but she tells him anyway. he suggests that they try treatment again but inpatient instead of outpatient treatment this time around. afterward, she will likely participate in what to help give her probation more structure?

Answers

The probation officer would advise Jamie's parents to adhere to the treatment recommendations for drug-related offenders as it provides a specific opportunity to reduce drug abuse and its associated criminal behaviour.

Emerging neuroscience has the potential to alter traditional sanction-oriented public safety approaches by providing novel therapeutic strategies against addiction that could be used in the criminal justice system.

We evaluate relevant neuroscientific research and empirically supported addiction treatment techniques that, if implemented in the criminal justice system, could improve public health and reduce crime.

Jamie was had to pay a $2,000 fine, do 300 hours of community service, and go through a demanding 2-month outpatient drug treatment programme. Even though she was going to get help, Jamie felt that her punishment was unnecessary.

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____________ helps to codify the organization's culture and behavior, from strategic decision making to day-to-day operations.
A.) ITIL guiding principle
B.) ITIL service value chain
C.) Continual improvement
D.) ITIL guiding practice

Answers

The correct answer is A) ITIL guiding principle. ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) is a framework of best practices for IT service management.

ITIL guiding principles are the core values and beliefs that guide an organization in decision making and behavior. They help to codify the organization's culture and behavior, from strategic decision making to day-to-day operations. There are seven ITIL guiding principles, which include focus on value, start where you are, progress iteratively with feedback, collaborate and promote visibility, think and work holistically, keep it simple and practical, and optimize and automate.

By following these principles, an organization can ensure that its IT services are aligned with business goals and objectives, and that they are delivered in a consistent and efficient manner.

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A student is close to mastering a new language skill, but the student needs more practice and assistance before performing the skill independently. According to Vygotsky, this gap between what a student can and cannot do without help is referred to as ________.

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According to Vygotsky, this gap between what a student can and cannot do without help is referred to as the "zone of proximal development". This refers to the range of tasks that a student can accomplish with the guidance and support of a more knowledgeable other, such as a teacher or peer.

As the student gains more experience and practice, they gradually move towards performing the skill independently.Lev Vygotsky was a Soviet psychologist who proposed the concept of the "zone of proximal development" (ZPD) in the field of education. The ZPD refers to the range of abilities that a learner can perform with guidance and support, but not yet independently. Vygotsky believed that learning is a social process and that children learn best when they are challenged to do something just beyond their current level of competence, with the help of a more skilled tutor or peer. By working in this zone, learners can develop new skills and knowledge that they can eventually transfer to other tasks.

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True or False: The evaluative criterion of feasibility is concerned with how well the policy has worked and the policy outcomes that occur.

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The statement The evaluative criterion of feasibility is concerned with how well the policy has worked and the policy outcomes that occur is false as The evaluative criterion of feasibility is not concerned with how well the policy has worked or the outcomes that occur.

Instead, feasibility refers to whether a policy is practical and implementable in the real world. It considers factors such as the availability of resources, the political climate, and the level of public support or opposition.

In other words, a policy can be considered feasible if it is possible to implement it given the available resources and constraints, and if it is likely to be supported by key stakeholders and the broader public. A policy that is not feasible may be difficult or impossible to implement, even if it is well-designed and has the potential to achieve its intended outcomes.

Other evaluative criteria for policy include effectiveness (whether the policy achieves its intended outcomes), efficiency (whether the policy achieves its outcomes in a cost-effective manner), and equity (whether the policy distributes benefits and burdens fairly among different groups in society).

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