(378-21) Conductors larger than that for which the wireway is designed shall be permitted to be installed in any wireway.(True/False)

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Answer 1

false. According to NEC 378.21, conductors larger than the maximum size permitted by the wireway shall not be installed in the wireway.

This is because conductors that are too large can cause overheating and damage to the wireway, as well as potentially create a fire hazard.According to NEC 378.21, conductors larger than the maximum size permitted by the wireway shall not be installed in the wireway It is important to follow the manufacturer's instructions and guidelines for wireway installation and ensure that the conductors being installed are within the maximum size limits specified. Additionally, it is important to consider the ampacity and temperature ratings of the conductors to ensure they are appropriate for the intended application. Conductors that are too small may also create a hazard by overheating and causing a fire. Therefore, it is essential to choose the appropriate conductor size and follow all applicable codes and standards to ensure safe and reliable electrical installations.

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Question 50 Marks: 1 The suitability of soil for the subsurface disposal of sewage and other wastewater can be determined by a study of soil characteristics and theChoose one answer. a. soil survey b. soil percolation test c. rate of sewage flow d. amount of rainfall

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The suitability of soil for the subsurface disposal of sewage and other wastewater can be determined by a study of soil characteristics and the soil percolation test.

The suitability of soil for subsurface disposal of sewage and other wastewater can be determined by conducting a soil percolation test, which involves observing how quickly water drains through the soil. This test helps to determine the rate at which wastewater can be absorbed by the soil without causing pollution or contamination.

A soil survey may also be conducted to assess the overall suitability of the soil in the area, but the percolation test is the primary method for determining the soil's ability to handle wastewater disposal. The rate of sewage flow and the amount of rainfall in the area may also be considered, but they are not the primary factors in determining the suitability of the soil.

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an otherwise opaque star is surrounded by a slightly cooler atmosphere. which type of spectrum do you see? a bright line emission spectrum. a continuous spectrum. i will not see any of these types of spectra. a dark line absorption spectrum.

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Opaque star is surrounded by a slightly cooler atmosphere, then we would see a dark line absorption spectrum. This is because the cooler gas absorbs certain wavelengths of light from the star's continuous spectrum, resulting in dark lines where those wavelengths are missing.

The dark lines in the absorption spectrum allow us to identify the elements present in the star's atmosphere. The cooler atmosphere surrounding the otherwise opaque star absorbs specific wavelengths of light from the continuous spectrum emitted by the star, creating dark lines in the observed spectrum. An absorption spectrum shows the range of electromagnetic energy that the plant has absorbed. This is dependent on the plant's cellular and molecular structure. The electromagnetic radiation spectrum that is most effective for photosynthesis is depicted by an action spectrum.  

The chlorophyll absorption spectrum is monitored by the action spectrum of photosynthesis. The action potential can tell us about the wavelengths that are most effective for photosynthesis, while the absorption spectrum indicates how much of each wavelength chlorophyll will absorb.

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consider a cart initially pushed against a spring as shown. it is then released and accelerates away. consider a system of the cart. which of the following describe the system? your response has been hidden for privacy. click show response below to see it, or click change response if you want to replace your current response with a new one. a. it is closed and isolated. b. it is closed but not isolated. c. it is not closed but is isolated. d. it is not closed or isolated.

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The system you described, where a cart is initially pushed against a spring and then released, can be classified as option B: it is closed but not isolated.

This is because the system's energy (spring potential energy and cart's kinetic energy) and mass are conserved, but it is still influenced by external forces such as the spring force and potential friction.

spring potential is the potential energy stored in spring when it is stretched or deformed. It is equal to force multiplied by displacement. This energy is stored in the spring by virtue of its position. It is the work done to stretch the spring.

When spring is stretched, it undergoes displacement. It comes to its equilibrium position when force is removed. So, it exerts an equal and opposite force When it is stretched. Work is done by this force that is stored in the form of potential energy.

Since potential energy = force × displacement

and, force = spring constant × displacement

So, potential energy = spring constant × displacement²

Thus, PE = K × x²

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The most likely means of connecting two pressure zone is through a?

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Answer:

Pressure-reducing valve  

A diffraction grating has 45,000 slits/cm. What is the distance between adjacent slits?.

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The distance between adjacent slits in this diffraction grating is approximately 2.22 × 10^-3 meters or 2.22 micrometers.

The distance between adjacent slits in a diffraction grating can be found using the formula:

d = 1/N

where d is the distance between adjacent slits and N is the number of slits per unit length. In this case, N = 45,000 slits/cm. Converting to slits/m, we have:

N = 45,000 slits/cm x (1 m/100 cm) = 450 slits/m

Substituting into the formula, we get:

d = 1/N = 1/450 slits/m ≈ 2.22 × 10^-3 m/slit

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An average male weighs approximately 84 kg. If the man is standing on one leg, what normal force is being produced by the ground upwards on the leg.​

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Assuming that the man is standing still on a flat, horizontal surface and neglecting air resistance, the normal force produced by the ground upwards on the leg would be equal in magnitude to the weight of the man, which is given as approximately 84 kg.

Therefore, the normal force being produced by the ground upwards on the leg would be approximately 84 kg multiplied by the acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s^2), which gives a value of approximately 823.44 N (Newtons).

So the normal force being produced by the ground upwards on the leg is approximately 823.44 N.

W = 824.04 N is the answer.

Jeff was struggling with his agggressive behavior. Throughout high school he often found himself in fights. Five years after high school he became an Extreme Sports contender. He channeled his agression and is happily married with a calmer personality outside the ring.

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Any action intended to hurt, harm, or cause suffering to another living thing or group of beings is considered to be aggressive.

What causes harm?

Specifically, acts that injure someone physically. action that harms psychological health, such as that which instills apprehension, concern, or anguish.When you hurt your brother, you also hurt him. One way to damage someone is to hurt them physically.

Distress: What is it?

People who are distressed could also believe that they are unable to handle or cope with alterations brought on by everyday activities or medical conditions like cancer. It is unfavourable, unhealthy, and discouraging. Stressors events that trigger the stress reaction in our bodies. A stressor is anything that creates stress.

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You want to walk down your icy driveway without sliding.
Part A
If the incline of the driveway is 23 â from the horizontal, what must the minimum coefficient of static friction be between your shoes and the ice?

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The minimum coefficient of static friction needed between your shoes and the ice to prevent sliding down the driveway is approximately 0.424.

To determine the minimum coefficient of static friction needed to prevent sliding down the icy driveway, we need to use the formula:

μ_s = tanθ

where μ_s is the coefficient of static friction and θ is the angle of incline in radians.

First, we need to convert the angle from degrees to radians:

θ = 23° = (23/180)π rad = 0.4014 rad

Now we can plug in the values:

μ_s = tan(0.4014) ≈ 0.424

Therefore, the minimum coefficient of static friction needed between your shoes and the ice to prevent sliding down the driveway is approximately 0.424.

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a voltage output occurs at the secondary only at the instant a switch the primary circuit is opened or closed

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It's important to note that the voltage output at the secondary of a transformer is not necessarily limited to the instant when the switch in the primary circuit is opened or closed. Once the magnetic flux in the core of the transformer has changed, it will continue to induce an EMF in the secondary coil as long as the flux is changing.

This is why transformers are commonly used to step up or step-down voltages in AC power systems.

When a switch in the primary circuit of a transformer is opened or closed, it causes a change in the magnetic flux in the core of the transformer. This change in magnetic flux induces an electromotive force (EMF) in the secondary coil, which produces a voltage output at the secondary.

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What type of transformer is being described when a voltage output occurs at the secondary only at the instant a switch in the primary circuit is opened or closed?

What is the ampacity of four current-carrying No. 10 THHN conductors installed in a raceway or cable?

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The ampacity of four current-carrying No. 10 THHN conductors installed in a raceway or cable will depend on the temperature rating of the conductor and the ambient temperature of the installation location.

In general, the ampacity of conductors refers to their ability to carry electrical current without overheating or causing damage. It is typically determined by industry standards and regulations based on factors such as wire gauge, insulation material, and installation conditions. To determine the ampacity for your specific installation, you will need to consult the appropriate industry standards and tables, such as the National Electric Code (NEC), which provides ampacity ratings for various types of conductors and installations. Additionally, the type and size of the raceway or cable used in the installation can also impact the overall ampacity of the system.


The ampacity of four No. 10 THHN conductors installed in a raceway or cable is 30 amperes each. This is because the ampacity of No. 10 THHN conductors is typically 30 amperes, as per the National Electrical Code (NEC) guidelines.

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the lowest level of drinking water constituent that can be measured reliably in an approved laboratory is the

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The lowest stage of ingesting water constituent that may be reliably measured in an permitted laboratory is called the method detection limit (MDL).

The MDL is the minimum concentration of a particular contaminant that may be as it should be detected and quantified using a selected analytical method. This restrict is decided via a sequence of laboratory experiments that establish the bottom awareness of a contaminant that may be detected with a high degree of certainty.

The MDL is an important parameter in water exceptional testing, as it provides a basis for assessing the accuracy and precision of analytical strategies, and enables to make certain that water trying out outcomes are dependable and consistent.

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(240) A department store ( continuous load) feeder supplies a lighting load of 103 ampere. The minimum size overcurrent protection device permitted for this feeder is _____ ampere.

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A department store ( continuous load) feeder supplies a lighting load of 103 ampere. The minimum size overcurrent protection device permitted for this feeder is 150 ampere.

In the event that the base size overcurrent security gadget allowed for a retail chain feeder providing a constant lighting heap of 103 amps is 150 amps, it wouldn't be consistent with the NEC rules. According to NEC, the overcurrent assurance gadget for consistent burdens ought to be evaluated somewhere around 125% of the ceaseless burden, which for this situation would be:

Least size = 125% x 103 amps

Least size = 128.75 amps

Consequently, a base size overcurrent insurance gadget of 150 amps wouldn't be satisfactory for shielding the circuit from over-burdening or short-circuiting, and it would represent a security risk. It is critical to adhere to the NEC rules to guarantee the wellbeing of the electrical framework and the structure tenants.

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4. A coil rotates at 60 revolutions per second in a field of 2.0*10^-2 T. If the coil has a cross sectional area of 20. cm2, and has 1000 turns, what is the amplitude in V of the emf of the coil.

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The emf amplitude of the rotating coil with 60 Hz frequency, 1000 turns, 20 cm2 area, and 2.0*10^-2 T field is 24 V.


The magnetic flux through the coil can be calculated as the product of the magnetic field, the cross-sectional area of the coil, and the number of turns in the coil:

Φ = B * A * N

where Φ is the magnetic flux, B is the magnetic field, A is the cross-sectional area, and N is the number of turns in the coil.

In this problem, we are given that the coil rotates at 60 revolutions per second in a field of 2.0*10^-2 T. This means that the magnetic flux through the coil changes at a rate of:

dΦ/dt = B * A * N * dθ/dt

where dθ/dt is the angular velocity of the coil in radians per second. Since the coil rotates at 60 revolutions per second, we can convert this to radians per second by multiplying by 2π:

dθ/dt = 60 * 2π = 376.99 rad/s

Substituting the given values, we get:

dΦ/dt = (2.0*10^-2 T) * (20 cm^2) * (1000 turns) * (376.99 rad/s) = 301.6 V/s

The emf induced in the coil is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux, so:

emf = -dΦ/dt = -301.6 V/s

The negative sign indicates that the direction of the induced emf is opposite to the direction of the change in magnetic flux. Through a process known as electromagnetic induction, a rotating coil may produce an electrical current. This is due to the fact that a conductor, like a coil, undergoes a change in magnetic flux when it travels through a magnetic field. A current may start to flow as a result of the electromotive force (EMF) that this change in flux creates in the conductor.


Therefore, the amplitude of the emf of the coil is 301.6 volts.

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The magnetic field at point P in the sketch for question A5:

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The magnetic field at point P in the sketch for question A5 can be represented by a vector.

Indicating the direction and strength of the magnetic field at that specific location. The vector will be tangent to the magnetic field lines and will point in the direction that a compass needle would align itself if placed at point P. A magnetic field is a vector field that describes the magnetic influence on moving electric charges, electric currents, and magnetic materials. A moving charge in a magnetic field experiences a force perpendicular to its own velocity and to the magnetic field.

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(Table 300-5) UF cable is used to supply power to a 120 volt 15 ampere GFCI protected circuit. If the cable is installed outdoors under the driveway of a one-family dwelling, the minimum cover requirement is _____ inches.

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The minimum cover requirement for UF cable installed outdoors under the driveway of a one-family dwelling to supply power to a 120 volt 15 ampere GFCI protected circuit is 24 inches according to Table 300-5.

This ensures that the cable is adequately protected from damage and potential hazards.
The minimum cover requirement for UF cable. For a UF cable used to supply power to a 120 volt 15 ampere GFCI protected circuit, when installed outdoors under the driveway of a one-family dwelling, the minimum cover requirement according to Table 300-5 is 24 inches.
The minimum cover requirement for UF cable supplying power to a 120 volt 15 ampere GFCI protected circuit, when installed outdoors under the driveway of a one-family dwelling, is 24 inches.

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Radiation of a given wavelength causes electrons to be emitted from the surface of metal 1 but not from the surface of metal 2. Why could this be?

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The phenomenon described is known as the photoelectric effect. It takes place whilst a beam of mild (radiation) of a certain frequency or energy (wavelength) strikes a metal surface and causes electrons to be emitted from it.

The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon wherein electrons are emitted from a fabric whilst it's far uncovered to electromagnetic radiation, along with light. This effect was first determined by using Heinrich Hertz in 1887 and changed into later defined via Albert Einstein in 1905, for which he become presented the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921.

According to Einstein's clarification, mild consists of particles known as photons, which bring energy. whilst a photon strikes an atom in the cloth, it transfers its power to an electron, that could then be emitted from the material if the strength of the photon is extra than the binding power of the electron to the material. The emitted electrons are referred to as photoelectrons.

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(368-12(2)) In general, the voltage limitation between conductors in a surface metal raceway shall not exceed _____ volts unless the metal has a thickness listed for higher voltage.

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In general, the voltage limitation between conductors in a surface metal raceway shall not exceed 600 volts unless the metal has a thickness listed for higher voltage.
In general, the voltage limitation between conductors in a surface metal raceway shall not exceed _____ volts unless the metal has a thickness listed for higher voltage.

The voltage limitation between conductors in a surface metal raceway shall not exceed 600 volts unless the metal has a thickness listed for higher voltage.

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What is the wavelength of a radio wave traveling in a vacuum that has a frequency of 7.80x10^7Hz?

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The wavelength of the radio wave with a frequency of 7.80×10⁷ Hz is 3.846 m.

The wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional to each other. The frequency of the wave gives the number of oscillations per unit of time.

The wavelength is defined as the distance between crests and troughs and the unit of wavelength is a meter.

From the given,

frequency (ν) = 7.80×10⁷ Hz

wavelength (λ) =?

frequency (ν) = c / λ, where c is the velocity of light and λ is the wavelength.

λ = c/ν

  = (3×10⁸ m/s) / (7.80×10⁷ Hz)

  = 3.846 m

Thus, the wavelength of the radio wave is 3.846m.

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A loudspeaker at the origin emits a 100 Hz tone on a day when the speed of sound is 340 m/s. The phase difference between two points on the x-axis is 5.3 rad . What is the distance between these two points?

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A loudspeaker at the origin emits a 100 Hz tone on a day when the speed of sound is 340 m/s . The distance between these two phases are 1.91m

Elaborating:

v= f × wavelength

where v = speed of sound  and f = frequency

therefore wavelength  = v/f  = (340)/140 = (17/7)m

Phase angle = (2 × π/wavelength)×shift

shift = phase angle × (wavelength/2×π) = 5.1 × ((17/7)/2×π) = 1.971m

distance between these two points = 1.971m

What does phase difference mean?

The difference in the phase angle between the two waves is called the phase difference. Way contrast is the distinction in the way navigated by the two waves. Path difference and phase difference are directly related. They are straightforwardly relative to one another.

What is an angle of phase?

The stage point is the trait of an intermittent wave. Working in numerous contexts is equivalent. A wave has two characteristics in phasors: Dimension and phase A periodic wave angular component is referred to as the phase angle. It's a complicated thing.

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Question 56 Marks: 1 The concentration resulting from a continuous emission of a pollutant is directly proportional to wind speed.Choose one answer. a. True b. False

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True. The concentration of a pollutant resulting from a continuous emission is directly proportional to wind speed.

This means that as wind speed increases, the concentration of the pollutant in the air also increases.The concentration of a pollutant in the atmosphere is determined by the balance between the emission of the pollutant and its dispersion (by wind and convection). As wind speed increases, the dispersion of the pollutant is increased, resulting in a decrease of the concentration of the pollutant in the atmosphere. Therefore, the concentration of a pollutant is inversely proportional to the wind speed.Conversely, lower wind speed will cause the pollutant to be dispersed more slowly and over a smaller area, resulting in a higher concentration.

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What size 75 degree C conductors are required for a 600 ampere service that has a calculated demand load of 550 amperre?

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To determine the size of 75 degree C conductors required for a 600 ampere service with a calculated demand load of 550 amperes, you need to use the NEC ampacity tables. According to Table 310.16, the minimum required conductor size for a 600 ampere service with a 75 degree C temperature rating is 500 kcmil.

However, since the calculated demand load is only 550 amperes, a 500 kcmil conductor may be oversized for the application. To determine the appropriate conductor size for the demand load, you would need to perform a load calculation using the NEC guidelines. Once you have determined the appropriate conductor size, you can refer to Table 310.16 to confirm that the selected conductor size is sufficient for the application.
the appropriate size of 75°C conductors for a 600-ampere service with a calculated demand load of 550 amperes, you should consult the National Electrical Code (NEC) Table 310.15(B)(16). According to this table, you will need 600 MCM conductors to handle the 550-ampere demand load safely and efficiently.

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A loop conductor rotating in a constant magnetic field creates an electric current. true or false

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True. A loop conductor rotating in a constant magnetic field creates an electric current is true.

Valid. At the point when a circle transmitter is pivoted in a consistent attractive field, it makes an electric flow. This peculiarity is known as electromagnetic acceptance and was first found by Michael Faraday in 1831. As per Faraday's law of electromagnetic enlistment, the attractive field going through a circle channel changes as the transmitter pivots, and this adjustment of transition prompts an electromotive power (EMF) in the conduit, bringing about an electric flow.

The heading of the prompted not entirely set in stone by the course of the adjustment of attractive transition. Consequently, a turning circle conveyor in a steady attractive field produces an exchanging flow (AC), and this rule is the premise of numerous electrical generators, engines, and different gadgets that utilization electromagnetic enlistment.

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a metal frame is moving near a current carrying wire as shown. what is the direction of the induced current in the frame and net magnetic force on the frame? assume no other source of magnetic field.

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The direction of the force can be determined by using the right-hand rule, where the thumb represents the direction of motion, the fingers represent the direction of the magnetic field, and the palm represents the direction of the force.

Since the direction of the induced current is opposite to the current in the wire, the net magnetic force on the frame is attractive, pulling the frame towards the wire.

Based on your question, when a metal frame is moving near a current-carrying wire, the direction of the induced current in the frame and the net magnetic force on the frame can be determined using the right-hand rule.
If the current in the wire flows upward, point your right thumb in that direction. Then, curl your fingers in the direction of the metal frame's movement. Your palm faces the direction of the induced magnetic field.
The induced current in the frame will flow in a direction that opposes the change in the magnetic field, as per Lenz's Law. To find the direction of the induced current, use the right-hand rule again with your thumb pointing in the direction of the induced magnetic field. Your fingers will curl in the direction of the induced current.
The net magnetic force on the frame depends on the direction of the induced current. If the frame moves towards the current-carrying wire, the induced current will create a magnetic force opposing the movement. If the frame moves away from the wire, the induced current will create a magnetic force attracting the frame. The exact direction of the net magnetic force depends on the specific configuration and the relative motion of the frame and wire.

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(310) On a 4 wire-3-phase wye circuit, where the major portion of the load consists of electrical discharge lighting, data processing equipment , or other harmonic current inducting loads, the neutral conductor shall be counted when applying Section 310-15(b)(2) adjustment factors.(True/False)

Answers

Whether the statement regarding a 4 wire-3-phase wye circuit with harmonic current-inducing loads and the application of Section 310-15 b 2 adjustment factors is true or false. The equipment grounding conductor is considered to be a current-carrying conductor Your answer: True

The statement is true. In a 4 wire 3 phase wye circuit where the major portion of the load consists of electrical discharge lighting, data processing equipment, or other harmonic current-inducing loads, the neutral conductor should be counted when applying Section 310 15 b 2 adjustment factors. This is because harmonic currents can cause additional heating in the neutral conductor, and the adjustment factors account for potential heat-related issues. On a four-wire, three-phase wye circuit where the major portion of the load consists of nonlinear loads there are harmonic currents present in the neutral conductor and the neutral shall be considered to be a current-carrying conductor.

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As net filtration pressure increases, the GFR ______. Multiple choice question. doesn't change increases decreases

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As net filtration pressure increases, the GFR increases.

GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate) is the rate at which blood is filtered through the kidneys. Net filtration pressure is the sum of forces that promote or oppose filtration in the glomerulus of the kidney.

The formula for GFR is GFR = Kf x net filtration pressure, where Kf is the filtration coefficient. An increase in net filtration pressure will increase the GFR, while a decrease in net filtration pressure will decrease the GFR. This is because an increase in net filtration pressure will result in a greater force pushing fluid out of the glomerulus and into the Bowman's capsule, leading to an increased rate of filtration.

Conversely, a decrease in net filtration pressure will result in a weaker force pushing fluid out of the glomerulus, leading to a decreased rate of filtration. Therefore, as net filtration pressure increases, the GFR increases.

The GFR (glomerular filtration rate) is the amount of fluid filtered by the glomeruli per unit time. The net filtration pressure is the pressure gradient that drives fluid filtration across the glomerular capillaries. It is determined by the balance between the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries and the opposing forces of the osmotic and hydrostatic pressures in the Bowman's capsule.

When the net filtration pressure increases, it leads to an increase in the GFR. This is because a higher pressure gradient across the glomerular capillaries favors the movement of fluid and solutes out of the blood and into the Bowman's capsule, leading to an increase in filtration. Conversely, a decrease in net filtration pressure would lead to a decrease in GFR.

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what are tides? group of answer choices the regular daily rises and falls in sea level caused by the gravitational attraction of the moon on earth the regular weekly rises and falls in sea level caused by the gravitational attraction of the moon on earth the regular weekly rises and falls in sea level caused by the gravitational attraction of the moon and sun on earth the regular daily rises and falls in sea level caused by the gravitational attraction of the sun on earth the regular daily rises and falls in sea level

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The regular daily rises and falls in sea level, also known as tides, are caused by the gravitational attraction of the moon on Earth. This gravitational force pulls on the water in the ocean, creating a bulge of water on the side of the Earth facing the moon, and a second bulge on the opposite side.

As the Earth rotates, different parts of the planet experience these bulges, causing the regular daily tides. While the sun also has a gravitational pull on Earth, it is not as strong as the moon's gravitational attraction and therefore has a lesser effect on the tides.Greater-than-normal tides are produced by the combined gravitational attraction of the sun & moon.The tides are unusually high during this occasion when the sun & moon are in alignment.

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the triple alpha processgroup of answer choicescontrols the pulsations in cepheid variable stars.is the nuclear fusion of hydrogen to helium in massive stars.is the process that produces the neutrinos we receive from the sun.requires a temperature of about 5,000,000 k to operate.occurs during helium flash.

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The triple alpha process is a nuclear fusion process that occurs during helium flash and is responsible for the production of helium in massive stars. It requires a temperature of about 5,000,000 K to operate and produces the neutrinos we receive from the sun.

These not directly related to the pulsations in cepheid variable stars, which are controlled by other factors such as the star's mass and composition. The triple alpha process is the nuclear fusion of hydrogen to helium in massive stars. This process requires a temperature of about 5,000,000 K to operate and occurs during helium flash. It is not directly related to the pulsations in Cepheid variable stars or the production of neutrinos we receive from the sun.

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Calculate the acceleration of a ball that starts from rest, rolls down a ramp, and gains a speed of 30m/s in 4.0 seconds.

Answers

The  acceleration of the ball as it rolls down the ramp and gains a speed of 30 m/s in 4.0 seconds is 7.5 m/s^2.

The acceleration of the ball can be calculated using the following formula:

a = (v_f - v_i) / t

where "a" is the acceleration, "v_f" is the final velocity, "v_i" is the initial velocity, and "t" is the  time.

In this case, the initial velocity "v_i" is zero since the ball starts from rest, and the final velocity "v_f" is 30 m/s. The time "t" is 4.0 seconds. So we have:

a = (30 m/s - 0 m/s) / 4.0 s
a = 7.5 m/s^2

Therefore, the acceleration of the ball as it rolls down the ramp and gains a speed of 30 m/s in 4.0 seconds is 7.5 m/s^2.

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Question 28 Marks: 1 Radon is detected in a home through measurment ofChoose one answer. a. geiger rays b. beta particles c. alpha particles d. UV rays

Answers

The correct answer is c. alpha particles. Radon is a radioactive gas that can be found in homes and buildings. It is detected through the measurement of alpha particles, which are emitted by the decay of radon atoms.

This measurement is usually done using a device called a radon detector, which can provide an accurate reading of the radon levels in a home. It is important to regularly test for radon in order to ensure that the levels are safe for occupants.

Radon is detected in a home through the measurement of alpha particles.

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an incubator is used to keep chicken eggs warm. the air temperature inside the incubator is at 38oc that leads to a heat transfer coefficient of 2 w/m2 k. the initial temperature of the egg is 20oc. assume the egg to be spherical with a volume of 60 cm3 , density of 1035 kg/m3 , specific heat capacity of 3350 j/kg-k and thermal conductivity of 0.62 w/mk. a. calculate the temperature of the center of the egg after 30 minutes (10 points) b. if the environment inside the incubator is modified to have a heat transfer coefficient of 104 w/m2 k, what is the temperature of the egg after 30 minutes?

Answers

The temperature of the center of the egg after 30 minutes with the new heat transfer coefficient is: 20°C + 3.6°C = 23.6°C.

a. To calculate the temperature of the center of the egg after 30 minutes, we need to use the following formula:

q = (4/3)πr^3 ρc ΔT

where q is the amount of heat transferred, r is the radius of the egg, ρ is the density of the egg, c is the specific heat capacity of the egg, and ΔT is the temperature difference between the initial temperature of the egg and the final temperature.

First, we need to calculate the radius of the egg using its volume:

V = (4/3)πr^3

60 cm^3 = (4/3)πr^3

r = 1.87 cm

Next, we need to calculate the amount of heat transferred:

q = (4/3)π(1.87 cm)^3 (1035 kg/m^3) (3350 J/kg-K) (38°C - 20°C)

q = 219,977 J

Finally, we can calculate the final temperature of the center of the egg using the following formula:

q = (4/3)πr^3 ρc ΔT

ΔT = q / ((4/3)πr^3 ρc)

ΔT = 219,977 J / ((4/3)π(1.87 cm)^3 (1035 kg/m^3) (3350 J/kg-K))

ΔT = 19.6°C

Therefore, the temperature of the center of the egg after 30 minutes is:

20°C + 19.6°C = 39.6°C

b. If the heat transfer coefficient is increased to 104 W/m^2 K, we can use the same formula as above to calculate the temperature of the center of the egg after 30 minutes. However, we need to use the new heat transfer coefficient in the formula:

q = (4/3)πr^3 ρc ΔT = hAΔT

where h is the new heat transfer coefficient and A is the surface area of the egg.

We can calculate the surface area of the egg using its radius:

A = 4πr^2

A = 44.1 cm^2

Now, we can calculate the amount of heat transferred:

q = hAΔT = 104 W/m^2 K (0.00441 m^2) (38°C - 20°C)

q = 4,046 J

Finally, we can calculate the final temperature of the center of the egg:

q = (4/3)πr^3 ρc ΔT

ΔT = q / ((4/3)πr^3 ρc)

ΔT = 4,046 J / ((4/3)π(0.0187 m)^3 (1035 kg/m^3) (3350 J/kg-K))

ΔT = 3.6°C

Therefore, the temperature of the center of the egg after 30 minutes with the new heat transfer coefficient is: 20°C + 3.6°C = 23.6°C.

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