2.3. Face brick differs from building brick in that it is generally A. more resistant to severe weathering.
B. harder and more durable. C. more uniform in size and color.
D. available in a variety of sizes.

Answers

Answer 1

Face brick differs from building brick in that it is generally C. more uniform in size and color.

answer - The correct answer is C. Face brick differs from building brick in that it is generally more uniform in size and color. Face brick is specifically designed to be aesthetically pleasing and used for facing buildings, whereas building brick is used for structural purposes. Face brick is also typically made from higher quality clay and fired at higher temperatures to ensure consistent color and durability. However, it may not necessarily be more resistant to severe weathering or harder than building brick, and may not always be available in a variety of sizes. Face bricks are specifically manufactured for their appearance and are used in visible parts of construction, whereas building bricks prioritize structural integrity.

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Related Questions

Select all the options that correctly describe the electron configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^4

Answers

Option(A) and option(B) are the options that are correctly describe the electronic configuration 1s²2s²2p⁴, that is oxygen and N⁻ atoms.

In a modern periodic table which is organized by increasing atomic number. The atomic number is refer as the number of electrons present in the ground state of atom. Thus, the electronic configuration can be used to identify the atoms or ions. The electronic configuration is used to describe the distribution of electrons in different energy level around the nucleus. We have an electronic configuration is written as 1s²2s²2p⁴.

The atomic number of oxygen(O) atom is 8, and contains 8 electrons. So, electron configuration of oxygen atom is 1s²2s²2p⁴. The atomic number of Nitrogen(N) is 7, and contains 7 electrons. So, electron configuration of Nitrogen atom is 1s²2s²2p³. But for N⁻ the electronic configuration is addition of one electron in electronic configuration of N. That is 1s²2s²2p⁴. The electronic configuration of O²⁻ is written by 1s²2s²2p⁶.

Hence, required answer are option(A) and (B).

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Complete question:

Select all the options that correctly describe the electron configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^4

A) Oxygen

B) [tex]N^{ -}[/tex]

C) [tex]O^{2 -}[/tex]

What factors will help carbocation formation and therefore increase the rate of an Sn1 reaction?

Answers

Increasing the concentration of the substrate can also increase the rate of carbocation formation and subsequently the rate of the Sn1 reaction.

To help carbocation formation and increase the rate of an Sn1 reaction, consider the following factors:
1. Substrate structure: More substituted carbocations (3° > 2° > 1°) are more stable, and their formation is favored. This stability increases the rate of an Sn1 reaction.
2. Leaving group: A good leaving group (one that is stable when it departs) increases the likelihood of carbocation formation and the rate of an Sn1 reaction.
3. Solvent: Polar protic solvents stabilize carbocations through solvation, which can help in carbocation formation and increase the Sn1 reaction rate.
4. Temperature: Increasing temperature can help overcome the energy barrier for carbocation formation, resulting in a faster Sn1 reaction rate.
By optimizing these factors, you can promote carbocation formation and increase the rate of an Sn1 reaction.

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Chemical Agents inMicrobial Control
•Occur in the liquid, gaseous, or solid state
•Range from disinfectants and antiseptics to sterilants and preservatives
•____ _____: chemicals dissolved in pure water as the solvent
•_______:chemicals dissolved in pure alcohol or water-alcohol mixtures

Answers

Aqueous solutions: chemicals dissolved in pure water as the solvent

• Tinctures: chemicals dissolved in pure alcohol or water-alcohol mixtures.

Aqueous solutions and tinctures are two common types of chemical agents used in microbial control. Aqueous solutions are often used as disinfectants and antiseptics, while tinctures are more commonly used as antiseptics due to their ability to dissolve in both water and alcohol.

The effectiveness of these chemical agents in controlling microbial growth depends on a variety of factors, including the concentration of the agent, the length of exposure time, and the type of microbe being targeted.

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Starting with a 2n=32 cellStarting with a 2n=32 cell, at the end of meiosis II there will befour cells, each n=32two cells, each n=32two cells, each 2n=16four cells each 2n=16four cells, each n=16

Answers

Starting with a 2n=32 cell, at the end of meiosis II there will be four cells, each n=16.

Starting with a 2n=32 cell, meiosis will result in the formation of four cells at the end of meiosis II. In meiosis I, the chromosome number is reduced by half from 2n to n. So, the initial 2n=32 cell will have two sets of 16 chromosomes. During meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes will separate, resulting in two haploid cells, each with n=16 chromosomes.

In meiosis II, the sister chromatids will separate, resulting in the formation of four cells. Since each cell now has only one copy of each chromosome, the chromosome number remains n=16. Therefore, the answer is four cells, each n=16.

It is important to note that meiosis results in genetic diversity due to crossing over during meiosis I and random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis II. This genetic variation is important for evolution and the survival of species. Additionally, errors during meiosis can lead to chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome, which occurs when there is an extra copy of chromosome 21.

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Assuming the solution of ascorbic acid and vinegar have the same pH, which would you predict would be more effective in preventing browning? Why?

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Assuming the solution of ascorbic acid and vinegar have the same pH, I would predict that ascorbic acid would be more effective in preventing browning.

The reason for this is because ascorbic acid, also known as vitamin C, is an antioxidant that can directly react with the compounds responsible for browning (such as polyphenols) and neutralize them, thereby preventing the browning process. While vinegar is an acid that can help lower the pH of the solution, making it less favorable for browning reactions to occur, it does not have the same antioxidant properties as ascorbic acid, which allows it to directly inhibit the browning process.

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After the change was made at time t1, the partial pressure of SO3 increased while the pressure of )2 decreased. Explain

Answers

Based on the information provided, it seems that a chemical reaction occurred at time t1 that involved the gases SO3 and O2. The change in partial pressure of these gases indicates that a shift occurred in the equilibrium of the reaction.

One possible explanation for the increase in partial pressure of SO3 is that the reaction was exothermic and favored the production of SO3 at the temperature and pressure conditions present. As the reaction proceeded, more SO3 was formed and the partial pressure increased.  At the same time, the decrease in partial pressure of O2 suggests that it was consumed in the reaction to form SO3. This decrease could occur if the reaction was consuming O2 faster than it was being supplied, or if the equilibrium of the reaction favored the consumption of O2 over the production of SO3.

Overall, the change in partial pressures indicates that the chemical reaction caused a shift in the equilibrium of the system towards the production of SO3.

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When testing a distribution system for chlorine residual, you should?
a. Test samples from several different points
b. Test a sample from one point several times
c. Have a sample volume of at least 100 mL which is taken back to the laboratory
d. Use the ortho-tolidine method

Answers

a. Test samples from several different points. This is because chlorine residual can vary at different points in the system due to factors such as distance from the treatment plant and water flow.

When testing a distribution system for chlorine residuals, you should test samples from several different points. This is because chlorine residual can vary at different points in the system due to factors such as distance from the treatment plant and water flow. It is important to get an accurate representation of the chlorine residual throughout the system.

Additionally, it is recommended to test a sample from each point multiple times to ensure accuracy and consistency. The sample volume should be at least 100 mL and can be tested on-site using test kits or taken back to the laboratory. The ortho-toluidine method is one of several methods available for testing chlorine residual, but the specific method used may depend on factors such as regulatory requirements and equipment availability.

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Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCL) solution is available with _____ available chlorine.
a.) 2 to 5%
b.) 5 to 20%
c.) 25 to 50%
d.) 50 to 70%

Answers

Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCL) solution is available with 5 to 20% available chlorine. The correct answer is option b.

Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCL) solution is a commonly used disinfectant in various industries, including healthcare, food processing, and water treatment. The available chlorine concentration in the solution is an important parameter that determines its efficacy as a disinfectant. The answer to the question is (b) 5 to 20% available chlorine.

Sodium hypochlorite solutions with lower available chlorine concentrations (2 to 5%) are typically used for household cleaning and disinfection, while solutions with higher concentrations (50 to 70%) are used for industrial applications, such as water treatment. Solutions with 5 to 20% available chlorine are commonly used for disinfection in healthcare settings, such as hospitals and clinics.

It is important to note that the concentration of sodium hypochlorite solutions can vary between different brands and products. It is crucial to follow the manufacturer's instructions for dilution and use to ensure proper disinfection and safety. Also, it is important to handle sodium hypochlorite solutions with caution, as they can be corrosive and harmful to skin and eyes.

Therefore, option b is correct.

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How many moles of O atoms are in 25.7 g of CaSO4?A) 0.189 mol D) 1.14 × 1023 molB) 0.755 mol E) 4.55 × 1023 molC) 4.00 mol

Answers

we have 0.755 mol of O atoms in 25.7 g of CaSO₄. The correct answer is option B) 0.755 mol.

To determine the number of moles of O atoms in 25.7 g of CaSO₄, we need to first find the molar mass of CaSO₄ and then use the given mass to calculate the moles of the compound. Finally, we will find the moles of O atoms within the compound.
The molar mass of CaSO₄ can be found by adding the molar masses of its constituent elements: Ca, S, and O. The molar masses are as follows:
Ca = 40.08 g/mol
S = 32.07 g/mol
O = 16.00 g/mol
The formula of CaSO₄ contains one Ca atom, one S atom, and four O atoms. Therefore, the molar mass of CaSO₄ is:
(1 × 40.08) + (1 × 32.07) + (4 × 16.00) = 40.08 + 32.07 + 64.00 = 136.15 g/mol
Now we can find the moles of CaSO₄ in 25.7 g:
moles of CaSO₄ = (mass of CaSO₄) / (molar mass of CaSO₄) = 25.7 g / 136.15 g/mol = 0.1887 mol
Since there are 4 moles of O atoms in each mole of CaSO₄, we can now calculate the moles of O atoms:
moles of O atoms = (moles of CaSO₄) × (4 moles of O atoms per mole of CaSO₄) = 0.1887 mol × 4 = 0.7548 mol
Rounded to three significant figures, we have 0.755 mol of O atoms in 25.7 g of CaSO₄. The correct answer is option B) 0.755 mol.

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Question 61
The DPD test is commonly used for the determination of:
a. Ozone
b. Quaternary: ammonium
c. Iodine
d. Chlorine or bromine

Answers

The correct answer is d. Chlorine or bromine. The DPD test, which stands for N,N-diethyl-p-phenylenediamine, is a commonly used method for determining the concentration of free chlorine or bromine in water samples.

It works by using DPD to react with the chlorine or bromine, producing a pink color that can be measured using a spectrophotometer or colorimeter. This test is often used in water treatment facilities to monitor disinfection levels and ensure safe drinking water.


The DPD test is commonly used for the determination of:
d. Chlorine or bromine.

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At -32.7 °C, a gas takes up 0.750 mL. What temperature, in °C, would be needed to reduce the volume to half that amount?

Answers

We can solve this problem using the combined gas law, which relates the initial and final conditions of a gas sample undergoing a change in temperature, pressure, and volume.

The combined gas law formula is given as:

P1 * V1 / T1 = P2 * V2 / T2

Where:
P1 = Initial pressure
V1 = Initial volume
T1 = Initial temperature
P2 = Final pressure
V2 = Final volume
T2 = Final temperature

Given:
Initial volume, V1 = 0.750 mL
Final volume, V2 = 0.750 mL / 2 = 0.375 mL
Initial temperature, T1 = -32.7 °C

Let's denote the final temperature, T2, as the unknown value we are trying to find.

We can rearrange the formula to solve for T2:

T2 = (P2 * V2 * T1) / (P1 * V1)

We need to determine the final pressure, P2, in order to use this formula. However, the problem statement does not provide information about pressure. Without knowing the pressure, we are unable to determine the exact temperature needed to reduce the volume to half of the initial amount. Additional information, such as the pressure, is required to solve this problem.

Explain, in terms of the reaction rates, why the concentrations of the reactants and products remain constant in this system.

Answers

Explanation:

In a chemical reaction, the rates at which reactants are converted into products depend on various factors, including temperature, pressure, and concentration of the reactants. When the concentrations of reactants and products remain constant in a system, it typically indicates that the forward and reverse reaction rates are equal, resulting in a state of chemical equilibrium.

At equilibrium, the concentrations of reactants and products do not change over time, because the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are balanced. This occurs when the rate of the forward reaction, which converts reactants into products, is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction, which converts products back into reactants. As a result, the concentrations of both reactants and products remain constant.

The concept of Le Chatelier's principle can help explain why concentrations of reactants and products remain constant at equilibrium. According to Le Chatelier's principle, when a system at equilibrium is subjected to a change in temperature, pressure, or concentration, the system will adjust in a way that opposes the change. For example, if the concentration of a reactant is increased, the system will shift towards the side with fewer moles of reactant in order to restore the equilibrium. Similarly, if the concentration of a product is increased, the system will shift towards the side with fewer moles of product.

As a result of these shifts, the rates of the forward and reverse reactions will be adjusted to restore equilibrium, and the concentrations of reactants and products will remain constant. If the concentration of a reactant or product decreases, the system will shift in the opposite direction to restore equilibrium. This dynamic balancing of the forward and reverse reaction rates is what allows the concentrations of reactants and products to remain constant at equilibrium in a closed system.

What is the molecular mass of nicotine, C10H14N2?A) 27.03 amu D) 81.12 amuB) 148.22 amu E) 162.23 amuC) 149.13 amu

Answers

The correct answer is E) 162.23 amu. The molecular mass of nicotine, [tex]C_{10} H_{14} N_{2}[/tex] can be calculated by adding the atomic masses of all its constituent atoms:

(10 x atomic mass of C) + (14 x atomic mass of H) + (2 x atomic mass of N)

= (10 x 12.011) + (14 x 1.008) + (2 x 14.007)

= 162.23 amu

The molecular mass of a compound is the sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms in a molecule. In the case of nicotine, its molecular mass is calculated by adding the atomic masses of each of its atoms, which are as follows:

10 carbon atoms: 10 x 12.01 amu = 120.1 amu

14 hydrogen atoms: 14 x 1.01 amu = 14.14 amu

2 nitrogen atoms: 2 x 14.01 amu = 28.02 amu

Therefore, the molecular mass of nicotine ([tex]C_{10} H_{14} N_{2}[/tex]) is:

Molecular mass = 120.1 amu + 14.14 amu + 28.02 amu = 162.26 amu (rounded to two decimal places)

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Why use benzil rather than benzoin?

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Benzil and benzoin are both organic compounds that contain two carbonyl groups (C=O) and are commonly used as starting materials for various organic syntheses.

However, benzil is often preferred over benzoin for certain reactions due to its higher reactivity and ease of handling.

One reason for using benzil over benzoin is that benzil is a more electrophilic compound than benzoin, meaning that it is more prone to undergo nucleophilic addition reactions. This makes benzil a better substrate for reactions such as Grignard reactions and Wittig reactions, which require the formation of a carbon-carbon bond through the addition of a nucleophile to a carbonyl group.

Another reason for using benzil is that it is a crystalline solid with a well-defined melting point, which makes it easier to handle and purify than benzoin. Benzoin, on the other hand, is a viscous liquid that can be difficult to handle and purify.

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How many carbon dioxide molecules must be added to RuBP to make a single molecule of glucose? - 2- 10- 4- 8- 6

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To make a single molecule of glucose, 6 molecules of carbon dioxide must be added to RuBP (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate) during the process of photosynthesis.

The process of forming glucose in the chloroplast during photosynthesis is called the Calvin cycle. Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate RuBP, is a five carboned ring, carbon dioxide is added to it to make a glucose molecule at the end of the photosynthesis.

These molecules are subsequently transformed into glucose through a series of further processes. Six molecules of carbon dioxide must be fixed to RuBP by the Calvin cycle in order to produce 12 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate, which are then transformed into two molecules of glucose.

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write in word equation When zinc (Zn) is reacted with a solution of copper (II) sulfate (CuSO4), copper (Cu) and a solution of zinc sulfate (ZnSO4) is formed

Answers

The word equation for the given reaction is:

Zinc + Copper (II) Sulfate → Copper + Zinc Sulfate

The chemical interaction between zinc (Zn) and a solution of copper (II) sulfate is described by the word equation that is presented. In this reaction, the copper ions from the copper sulfate solution are reduced, which means they gain electrons, while the zinc metal is oxidized, which means it loses electrons.

Copper (Cu) and zinc sulfate are the two products that are produced as a result of the reaction. Zinc sulfate is a white crystalline solid that is soluble in water, whereas copper is a reddish-brown metal that is solid at normal temperatures.

The stoichiometry of the reaction—that is, the proportion of reactants to products in terms of the number of moles—is revealed by the coefficients in the balanced equation.

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how much heat in joules is needed to heat up 57.1 grams of ice at 0 celsius to 66 oc? use the formula sheet for any information you might need g

Answers

The amount of heat in joules needed to heat up 57.1 grams of ice at 0 Celsius to 66 Celsius is 34857 J.

To calculate the amount of heat in joules needed to heat up 57.1 grams of ice at 0 Celsius to 66 Celsius, we can use the following formula:

q = m x c x ΔT

Where:
q = amount of heat (in joules)
m = mass of the substance (in grams)
c = specific heat capacity of the substance (in J/g°C)
ΔT = change in temperature (in °C)

First, we need to calculate the amount of heat needed to melt the ice:

q1 = m x ΔHf

Where:
ΔHf = heat of fusion of ice (334 J/g)

q1 = 57.1 g x 334 J/g = 19039.4 J

Next, we need to calculate the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of the water from 0°C to 66°C:

q2 = m x c x ΔT

Where:
c = specific heat capacity of water (4.184 J/g°C)

ΔT = 66°C - 0°C = 66°C

q2 = 57.1 g x 4.184 J/g°C x 66°C = 15817.6 J

Finally, we add the two amounts of heat together to get the total amount of heat needed:

q = q1 + q2
q = 19039.4 J + 15817.6 J
q = 34857 J

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explain the mathematical relationship between mass,volume, and density

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The three-dimensional area that the closed surface encloses is known as the volume. Mass divided by volume equals density. Density and volume have a clear inverse relationship. In other words, any change in volume will cause a change in density, and vice versa.

On a density graph, what is the connection between mass and volume?

The change in y split by the change in x is the formula for a straight line's slope. Slope is equal to the mass divided by volume since the x and y axes are both equal to mass and volume, respectively. As a result, density is equal to the slope of a mass vs volume graph.

Density=Mass/Volume is a common formula used to describe the mathematical connection between mass and density.

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suppose you are collecting a gas over water at 23 oc and obtain a pressure reading of 797.6 mm hg. if the vapor pressure of water is 21.1 mm hg at the collection temperature, what is the pressure of the collected gas?

Answers

The vapour pressure of water is 21.1 mm hg at the collection temperature,776.5 mmHg is the pressure of the collected gas.

A liquid's vapour pressure drops as the temperature drops.The link between vapour pressure and temperature is described by the Clausius-Clapeyron equation. The vapour pressure of a substance is exactly proportional to the temperature and this relationship is linear, according to the Clausius-Clapeyron equation.

To find the pressure of the collected gas, we need to subtract the vapor pressure of water at the collection temperature from the total pressure reading.
Total pressure reading = 797.6 mmHg
Vapor pressure of water at 23°C = 21.1 mmHg
Pressure of collected gas = Total pressure reading - Vapor pressure of water
Pressure of collected gas = 797.6 mmHg - 21.1 mmHg
Pressure of collected gas = 776.5 mmHg
Therefore, the pressure of the collected gas is 776.5 mmHg.

The boiling point rises as the chain length does, and the relationship between boiling point and vapour pressure is opposite.

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What is the term for the minimum amount of energy to remove an electron from a neutral atom in the gaseous state?

Answers

The term for the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from a neutral atom in the gaseous state is called ionization energy.

Ionization energy is an essential concept in chemistry and is often used to compare and contrast elements based on their reactivity. In general, ionization energy increases from left to right across a period and decreases from top to bottom within a group in the periodic table. This trend occurs because the nuclear charge and electron shielding play a significant role in determining the ease of removing an electron from an atom. Elements with high ionization energies, such as noble gases, are less reactive, while elements with low ionization energies, like alkali metals, are more reactive.

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How many moles of Cl atoms are there in 65.2 g CHCl3?A) 0.548 mol B) 1.09 mol C) 3.30 × 1023 mol D) 1.64 mol E) 3.00mol

Answers

To determine the number of moles of Cl atoms in 65.2 g CHCl₃, we first need to calculate the molar mass of CHCl3:

Molar mass of CHCl₃ = (1 x 12.01 g/mol) + (1 x 1.01 g/mol) + (3 x 35.45 g/mol)

= 119.38 g/mol

Next, we need to determine the number of moles of CHCl₃:

n = m/M = 65.2 g/119.38 g/mol = 0.5467 mol

Finally, we can calculate the number of moles of Cl atoms by multiplying the number of moles of CHCl3 by the number of Cl atoms in each molecule of CHCl₃ (which is 1):

n(Cl) = 0.5467 mol x 1 = 0.5467 mol

Therefore, there are 0.5467 moles of Cl atoms in 65.2 g CHCl₃. Rounded to three significant figures, the answer is A) 0.548 mol.

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What are the two conditions to consider when deciding if a chemical reaction is spontaneous?

Answers

The two conditions to consider when deciding if a chemical reaction is spontaneous are: Enthalpy (ΔH): This is the measure of the heat energy that is released or absorbed during a chemical reaction.

A negative value of enthalpy (ΔH < 0) indicates that the reaction releases heat energy and is exothermic, while a positive value of enthalpy (ΔH > 0) indicates that the reaction absorbs heat energy and is endothermic. A spontaneous reaction typically involves a decrease in enthalpy (ΔH < 0), as this means that the reaction releases heat energy and becomes more stable.

Entropy (ΔS): This is the measure of the disorder or randomness of a system. A positive value of entropy (ΔS > 0) indicates that the system becomes more disordered or random, while a negative value of entropy (ΔS < 0) indicates that the system becomes more ordered or less random. A spontaneous reaction typically involves an increase in entropy (ΔS > 0), as this means that the reaction becomes more disordered and more favorable from a thermodynamic perspective.

Together, the two conditions of enthalpy and entropy are summarized by the Gibbs free energy (ΔG), which is the measure of the overall spontaneity of a reaction. If ΔG is negative, the reaction is spontaneous, while if ΔG is positive, the reaction is non-spontaneous.

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2.6. A mortar mixture of portland cement, sand, and water, but no hydrated lime, would probably produce a mortar with A. greater strength and workability.
B. insufficient bonding strength. C. little resistance to moisture penetration.
D. insufficient water retention.

Answers

B. insufficient bonding strength.

Hydrated lime is often added to mortar mixes to improve bonding strength between the bricks or stones being used. Without hydrated lime, the mortar may not bond well to the building materials, resulting in a weaker overall structure. While the absence of hydrated lime may slightly increase the strength and workability of the mortar, it is not worth sacrificing bonding strength.

The mortar may also have little resistance to moisture penetration without the addition of hydrated lime. Insufficient water retention may also be a possibility, but it is not as significant a concern as inadequate bonding strength.

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Question 105
The Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL) is the highest concentration of a contaminant that is allowable in a water system.
a. True
b. False

Answers

It is true that the Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL) is the highest concentration of a contaminant that is allowable in a water system. So, option(a) is right one.

The EPA has drinking water regulations for more than 90 pollutants. MCL is the maximum contaminant level allowed in drinking water. Once the MCLG is defined, the EPA sets the applicable standards. MCL is the maximum allowable pollutant level in water supplied to all public water users.

Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL), which sets a limit value for the concentration of pollutants in drinking water. The MCL for arsenic in drinking water is 10 parts per billion (ppb). So it is clear from the above discussion that the statement is true.

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What is the average mass of one Ca atom?A) 40.08 amu D) 2.41 x 10-21 amuB) 40.08 g E) 2.41x1025 gC) 40.08 g/mol

Answers

The average mass of one Ca atom is  approximately 40.08 amu. The correct answer is option A.

The average mass of one calcium (Ca) atom can be found using the atomic mass unit (amu) as the unit of measurement. The atomic mass of calcium is approximately 40.08 amu. This value is derived from the weighted average of the naturally occurring isotopes of calcium. It's important to note that amu is used to represent the mass of individual atoms, while grams (g) and grams per mole (g/mol) are used for larger quantities of substances.

In this case, the correct answer is A) 40.08 amu. This value represents the mass of one calcium atom, and it helps scientists determine and compare the masses of different elements and compounds. The other options, such as grams and grams per mole, are not appropriate units for measuring the mass of a single atom.

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Question 5
When collecting bacteriological samples that have been chlorinated, what chemical is used to dechlorinate the water?
a. sodium sulfate
b. sodium thiosulfate
c. sodium bisulfate
d. sodium bisulfite

Answers

When collecting bacteriological samples that have been chlorinated, sodium thiosulfate is used to dechlorinate the water. Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.

Chlorination is the process of the addition of Chlorine in water to destroy parasites, viruses, and bacteria present in the water that might cause illness and disease.

Dechlorination is the process of removal of chlorine from disinfected water before discharging it into the environment. This is done in order to remove the odor of chlorine and to make water more suitable for introduction into the environment. This is done by dechlorinating agents such as sulfur dioxide, sodium thiosulfate, etc.

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Question 29
The first emission standards for automobiles dealt with emission of?
a. Nitrogen oxide
b. Sulfur dioxide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. hydrocarbons

Answers

The first emission standards for automobiles dealt with the emission of hydrocarbons. These are organic compounds that contain only hydrogen and carbon atoms and are major components of gasoline and other fossil fuels used in vehicles. The correct alternative is d. hydrocarbons.

Here are some additional points on the other options:

Nitrogen oxide (NOx) is a common air pollutant produced by combustion engines and can contribute to the formation of smog and acid rain. NOx emissions have been regulated in automobiles since the 1960s.Sulfur dioxide (SO2) is a byproduct of burning fossil fuels that contain sulfur, such as coal and oil. It can contribute to acid rain and respiratory problems. SO2 emissions from automobiles are typically low, but they can be significant in heavy-duty diesel vehicles.Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas that contributes to climate change. While automobiles do emit CO2, it was not initially targeted by emission standards as it was not considered a harmful pollutant at the time. However, in recent years, efforts have been made to reduce CO2 emissions from vehicles.

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The underground pipe fitting connecting the inlet pipe to a fire hydrant is called the?
a) Auxiliary Pipe
b) Bury
c) Hydrant Riser
d) Fire Line

Answers

The underground pipe fitting connecting the inlet pipe to a fire hydrant is called the Hydrant Riser.

Fire hydrants with a variety of valves and connection points are seen in many places. In the event of a fire breakout, firefighters locate the fire hydrants, connect their hoses and then pump a large volume of pressurized water to put out the fire. A special pentagonal wrench is used to remove the valve cover of the hydrant. Then after attaching the hoses, the firefighters open the valve for the water to flow.

They usually have a connection point to hook up a fire hose and a nut or bolt to turn on which will start the flow. Every fire hydrant is essentially just an attachment to the main water line. Underneath that connects the hydrant valve through a pipe called a riser. However, normal hydrants don’t change the water pressure or flow in any way. They function as valves so firefighters can utilize the already present pressure in the water pipes. While all of this may sound simple the internal mechanics of a fire hydrant are a little more complex and can vary by region.

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when zinc metal is placed in hcl, bubbling due to formation of hydrogen gas is observed. therefore, which is more reactive: zn or h2?

Answers

Answer:zinc

Explanation:zinc is more reactive than hydrogen

Chlorine gas is considered to be 100% pure, bleach is approximately 5 1/4% pure, while HTH dry powder chlorine is set at ___ % purity.
a.) 20%
b.) 45%
c.) 65%
d.) 80%

Answers

HTH dry powder chlorine is set at 65% purity. So, the correct answer is c.) 65%.

To maintain your pool clean, clear, and prepared for summertime enjoyment, it sanitises, manages algae, clarifies, softens pool water, even prevents stain and scale. sanitizer and shock therapy combined. eliminates algae and germs. softens, clarifies, and guards against scale and stains. Water that is clearly flashing blue in 24 hours. HTH is a potent chlorinating agent with a chlorine concentration of more than 30%. This substance is frequently used to disinfect swimming pools. Hence, HTH dry powder chlorine is set at 65% purity. So, the correct answer is c.) 65%.

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