22) in comparing all three major muscle types, which one of the following statements best describes the differences between them?

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Answer 1

In comparing all three major muscle types, cardiac muscle can be stimulated only by nerves, whereas smooth and skeletal muscle contract spontaneously statement best describe the differences between them.

What are muscle types?

The three different forms of muscle tissue are skeletal, smooth, and cardiac. Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart's walls, where they can be seen as being striped (or striated) and controlled by an involuntary process. Except for the heart, smooth muscle fibres are found in the walls of hollow visceral organs (such as the liver, pancreas, and intestines), are spindle-shaped, and are similarly controlled involuntarily. Muscles that are connected to the bone contain skeletal muscle fibres. They appear striated and are controlled voluntarily.

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Answer 2

In comparing all three major muscle types, cardiac muscle can be stimulated only by nerves, whereas smooth and skeletal muscle contract spontaneously statement best describe the differences between them.

What are muscle types?

The three different forms of muscle tissue are skeletal, smooth, and cardiac. Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart's walls, where they can be seen as being striped (or striated) and controlled by an involuntary process. Except for the heart, smooth muscle fibres are found in the walls of hollow visceral organs (such as the liver, pancreas, and intestines), are spindle-shaped, and are similarly controlled involuntarily. Muscles that are connected to the bone contain skeletal muscle fibres. They appear striated and are controlled voluntarily.

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Related Questions

tumour-derived csf2/granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor controls myeloid cell accumulation and progression of gliomas

Answers

Myeloid cells are attracted to and polarized to pro-invasive, immunosuppressive phenotypes by substances released by malignant tumors.

In the glioblastoma (GBM) tumor microenvironment, brain-resident microglia and peripheral macrophages build up and cause immunosuppression, which promotes tumor growth. It is debatable which CSFs are responsible for the increase of myeloid cells in gliomas, however macrophage colony stimulating factors (CSFs) regulate their recruitment during the course of peripheral malignancy.

Five human glioma cell lines and TCGA datasets were used to analyze the expression of CSF2 (encoding granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor). In vitro and in vivo experiments were performed to examine the effects of stable CSF2 knockdown in glioma cells and antibodies that neutralize CSF2 or its receptor, CSF2R.

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In which of the following ways do vaccines promote public health? Reduce the number of fatalities due to infection Prevent cancer development following infection with an oncogenic virus Contribute to herd immunity Prevent Type I diabetes (T1D)

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Option C, Contribute to herd immunity the following ways do vaccines promote public health.

Vaccines, When a sufficient number of people are immunized against a disease and have produced protective health antibodies against upcoming infection, herd immunity can also be attained. Vaccines build immunity without resulting in disease or other negative side effects on health, in contrast to the natural health infection technique. The incidence and spread of the illness are reduced as the population becomes more immune. Indirect protection from illness is provided by immunizations for others.

The complete Question is:

In which of the following ways do vaccines promote public health?

A) Reduce the number of fatalities due to infection.

B) Prevent cancer development following infection with an oncogenic virus

C) Contribute to herd immunity

D) Prevent Type I diabetes (T1D)

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When the sponsor-investigator holds the IND for an investigational drug he or she is responsible for annual reporting of which one of the following to FDA?
IND report

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When the sponsor-investigator holds the IND for an investigational drug he or she is responsible for annual reporting of progress report to FDA.

Located under the Department of Health and Human Services, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA or USFDA) is a federal organization. The FDA is in charge of ensuring the safety of food, tobacco, caffeine, dietary supplements, prescription and over-the-counter medications, vaccines, biopharmaceuticals, blood transfusions, medical devices, electromagnetic radiation emitting devices (ERED), cosmetics, animal foods & feed, and veterinary products in order to protect and advance public health.

The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C) is the FDA's major area of enforcement, although the organization also upholds related regulations and other laws, most notably Section 361 of the Public Health Service Act.

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howard has congenital generalized hypertrichosis, an x-linked dominant condition that produces dense hair on the face and upper body. he can pass this trait

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Sean has congenital widespread hyperpigmentation, an X-linked dominant illness, which causes him to have an abundance of hair on his face and upper chest. Without a doubt, he can pass this trait on to a girl but not a son.

Congenital hypertrichosis systemic has a dominant type of inheritance and is related to chromosome Xq24-27.1. A woman with hirsutism who has this gene has a 50% chance of passing it on to her offspring. Unlike his son, a man with this disease cannot pass it on to his daughter.

An uncommon congenital skin condition that manifests at birth is X-linked congenital generalized hypertrichosis. In males, it is defined by excessive body hair growth, whereas in females, it is modest and asymmetrical.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Jude is a man who is emotionally and sexually attracted to both men and women, although he tends to date only one person at a time and prefers monogamous relationships. Jude is ____

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Jude is a man who is emotionally and sexually attracted to both men and women, although he tends to date only one person at a time and prefers monogamous relationships. Jude is bisexual.

What do you mean by a monogamous relationship?

Monogamy is a relationship that involves just one partner at a time as opposed to several. Although it's typically both, a monogamous relationship can be either sexual or emotional. Monogamy is common in contemporary partnerships. However, some people struggle to maintain their monogamy even when they only want to be with one partner. Alternatively, compared to the different varieties of non-monogamy, only one partner at a time.

Jude is a man who is emotionally and sexually attracted to both men and women, although he tends to date only one person at a time and prefers monogamous relationships. Jude is bisexual.

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which of the following principles states that a biologically based characteristic that contributes to the survival of a species will be more likely to be pass in genes?

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According to Charles Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection, organisms that possess heritable traits that enable them to better adapt to their environment compared with other members of their species will be more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass more of their genes on to the next generation.

Evolution is the gradual change in the hereditary characteristics of biological populations over many generations. These characteristics are the results of genes that are transferred from parent to offspring during reproduction, as demonstrated in. Genetic recombination and mutation are the usual causes of variation within a population. Evolution takes place when this variety is subjected to processes like genetic drift and natural selection, which lead to some traits becoming more or less prevalent within a population. Heritable traits emerge over multiple generations in response to shifting evolutionary factors that determine whether a trait is prevalent or rare within a population.

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the external acoustic meatus ends at the the external acoustic meatus ends at the tympanic membrane. vestibule. cochlea. auditory ossicles. pinna.

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The tympanic membrane is also referred to as the eardrum. It distinguishes between the inner and outer ear.

Explain about the tympanic membrane?

In response to sound waves passing through it, the tympanic membrane vibrates. The vibrations then reach the tiny bones in the middle ear. Following that, the middle ear bones convey the vibrating impulses to the inner ear.

When the tympanic membrane tears, a link between the middle ear and the external auditory canal might form. This condition is known as tympanic membrane perforation. An infection, trauma, or sudden changes in pressure can all cause the rapid development of otalgia, otorrhea, tinnitus, and vertigo.

A burst eardrum (tympanic membrane perforation) is a hole or tear in the fragile tissue separating the ear canal from the middle ear (eardrum). Eardrum ruptures can result in hearing loss.

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Can you have two communities with different species richness but the same species evenness? If your answer is yes, please give an example to illustrate what this would look like in two made-up communities. If no, please explain why not.

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Answer:

No

Explanation:

Two locations with the same richness do not necessarily have the same species evenness.

For example, both communities in figure 9.2. b have three different trees species and thus a species richness of three. However, there is a dominant species (represented by six individuals) in community #1.

what is the explanation foe the effect on the pH changes on the
conformations of poly Glu and poly Lys?why does the transition occur over such a narrow range of pH?

Answers

The folding of poly Glu and poly Lys amino acids have a direct effect on the pH due to the resulting helices and beta sheet's secondary structure of the protein, which is caused by the side chains of these amino acids.

What is the secondary structure of proteins?

The secondary structure of proteins refers to the repeated arrangement organization in  the tridimensional space of the amino acids in the protein chain, which depends on the side chains of these residues.

The secondary structure of proteins can be a type of alpha helix, beta sheet, and coiled coil arrangement structure, which have a direct effect on the pH of the surrounding media.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the secondary structure of proteins is based on the repeated organization of amino acid residues in the linear sequence, which affects the pH of the media.

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A researcher hypothesizes that plant Ieaf cells express fewer genes in the middle of the night compared to right before the sun rises She tests her hypothesis by introducing DNase into the cells at both timnes. She finds that DNA Is cut ruch more right before the sun rises and that more mRNA is present in the cells at that time. The best interpretation of these results Is that only post-translational modification contributes to gene regulation between the two night periods chromatin regulation is a crucial component f plant gene regulation overnight plants do not change gene expression between the two night periods

Answers

The best interpretation of these results Is that, key element of plant gene control is through chromatin regulation.

All eukaryotes include chromatin that is crammed into nucleosomes; the majority of the chromatin protein component is made up of members of the histone family of proteins. Since histone proteins have a positive charge, they can get close to Deoxyribonucleic acid.

Core histones include three and four molecules of hydrogen, which are found on the inner of the nucleosome and bind to Deoxyribonucleic acid before other histones. The chromatin architecture blocks transcription factors, polymerases, and other nuclear proteins from accessing Deoxyribonucleic acid when it is substantially condensed.

A sequence of developmental transitions are involved in fruit production, and the fruit set process is crucial in determining crop yield.

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label the cross-section of the spinal cord by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

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A region of gray matter that resembles a butterfly is surrounded by white matter in a cross-section of the spinal cord.

The cervical, upper abdomen, lumbar, & sacral regions are the four divisions of the spinal cord. Visual distinctions can be detected between the various chord areas.

The spinal cord may be split into four sections based on its rostrocaudal location: cervical, thorax, lumbar, and sacral. Two of these are distinguished by an upper (cervical) as well as a lower (lumbar) expansion.

The spinal cord extends the central nervous system (CNS), which is composed of the spine and the brain. The spinal cord leaves where it begins at the base of the brain stem in the lower back, where it tapers sufficiently to create a cone referred to as the conus medullaris.

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which of the following is not a function of the kidneys? group of answer choices bile production excretion of excess ions release of erythropoietin activation of vitamin d

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The primary job of the kidneys, which are the key excretory organs, is to eliminate urea through the urine.

Nephrons make up the kidneys. The kidneys are the main excretory organs, and one of their main jobs is to eliminate urea from the body through the urine. Nephrons make up the kidneys. Option A: When there is a change in blood volume, the osmoreceptors become active and release vasopressin or ADH. The kidney's role in maintaining healthy blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and pH levels in the body. One kidney is located on each side of the body in humans. There are millions of tiny structures in each of these kidneys.

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which of the following signal transduction proteins typically functions by forming dimers after binding to a signal molecule?

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Signal transduction proteins that functions by forming dimers after binding to a signal molecule is : receptor tyrosine kinases.

What is signal transduction pathway and their functions?

Signal transduction pathway involves binding of extracellular signaling molecules and ligands to receptors on the cell surface or inside the cell that triggers events inside the cell, to invoke response. The response can then alter the metabolism, shape, and gene expression of cell.

The 3 steps of signal transduction are :

Reception: cell detects signaling molecule from the outside of the cell. .Transduction: When signaling molecule binds to the receptor, it changes the receptor protein in some way. Response: the signal triggers a specific cellular response.

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Why do electric fish need to force electric charges to move.

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The neurological system of the electric fish, which is extremely specialized, allows it to coordinate the activity of disc-shaped, electricity-producing cells crammed into a specialized electric organ, which is how the animal produces powerful electric currents.

How does the electric fish work?

Each electrocyte has nerve fibers that connect one side of it, but not the other. Positively charged sodium ions (Na⁺) stream into the cell upon the arrival of a signal. This ion movement creates a momentary potential gradient within the cell, which leads to an electrical discharge.

The neurological system of the electric eel, which is extremely specialized, allows it to coordinate the activity of disc-shaped, electricity-producing cells crammed into a specialized electric organ, which is how the animal produces powerful electric currents.

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combines with hydrogen in the mitochondria, and the rate of its use can be used as an indicator of exercise intensity.

Answers

Oxygen combines with hydrogen in the mitochondria, and the rate of its use can be used as an indicator of exercise intensity. The correct option is C.

What is exercise intensity?

Exercise intensity is a subjective measure of how difficult physical activity feels to you while you're doing it. Your perceived exertion level may be different from what someone else feels doing the same exercise.

Increased intensity in a workout, whether aerobic or anaerobic, increases energy expenditure, improves insulin sensitivity, raises lactate threshold, and much more.

Weight loss can become more efficient and effective, while athletic performance improves.

The rate at which oxygen combines with hydrogen in the mitochondria can be used as an indicator of exercise intensity.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:

A. Glucose

B. Protein

C. Oxygen

D. Carbon dioxide

compare and contrast these three technologies (microarrays, whole genome sequencing, exome sequencing)

Answers

Whole exome sequencing and whole genome sequencing are two techniques that are increasingly employed in research and healthcare to detect genetic variants.

Microarray is a hybridization-based technology, whereas whole genome sequencing is a sequencing-based method. Microarray detects the presence of a pre-defined collection of sequences, whereas whole genome sequencing finds every sequence in a genome. Compared to microarray, whole genome sequencing is more expensive. The term "whole genome" refers to all of the genetic data present in a sample or an individual. The exome, which is made up of exons, is the part of the genome that codes for proteins.

DNA analysis. research DNA-protein interactions, examine specific regions of interest with whole-exome and targeted sequencing, or analyze the complete genome.

High-Throughput Sequencing, Methylation Sequencing, RNA Sequencing

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sort the following enzyme according to whether they are used in glycolysis, gluconeogenesis or both. glucose-6- phosphatase, triosephosphate isomerase,hexokinase, pyruvate carboxylase, pyruvate kinase

Answers

Glycolysis only: heokinase & pyruvate kinase

Glycolysis and gluconeogenesis: triosephosphate isomerase

Gluconeogenesis only: pyruvate carboxylase & glucose 6-phosphate

In contrast to gluconeogenesis, which is crucial for sustaining blood glucose levels during hunger, glycolysis is a catabolic process of glucose hydrolysis required for energy and biosynthetic intermediates.

When blood sugar levels fall, the liver breaks down glycogen, whereas the liver and kidneys produce glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like lactic acid, glycerol, and amino acids.

Two pyruvate molecules are created during glycolysis, the initial stage of the breakdown of glucose.

Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells undergo glycolysis in the cytoplasm.

Gluconeogenesis is the opposite of glycolysis, where two pyruvate molecules combine to generate a glucose molecule.

Aldolases A and C are primarily involved in glycolysis, while aldolase B is involved in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis. The various isozymes have various catalytic roles.

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cells within the tissues of adult organisms are constantly being replaced, yet the tissues remain the same size. Which description BEST explain this?
the rate of cell death is lowerthan the rate of cell division
the rate of cell death and cell division are equal
the rate of cell death is grater than the fate of cell division
the rate of cell death is more predictable than the rate of cell division

Answers

Best description to explain cells within the tissues of adult organisms are constantly being replaced, yet the tissues remain the same size is

b. the rate of cell death and cell division are equal.

In general , the presence of cell organelles namely, lysosomes it is concluded that cells have a life span and death as seen in a living entity. This is well known that cell age, deteriorate, get damaged and die through a process known as apoptosis.

Hence, Apoptosis is an active, programmed process of autonomous cellular replacement that avoids eliciting inflammation. Necrosis has been characterized as passive, accidental cell death resulting from environmental disturbance.

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Both Aristotle and Linnaeus classified all living things as plants or animals. Today, scientists use
a classification system that involves three domains, six kingdoms, and millions of species. Write
an expository essay explaining why this has changed so much. ?

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Both  Aristotle and Linnaeus classified all living things as plants or animals, but later scientists used a classification system that involved three domains and six kingdoms, and this happened due to the categorization of the same characters in a single group.

What are the benefits of the classification?

Initially, there were no concise criteria for classification, so classification was done on a broad scale, but later, due to scientific advancement, the classification became precise, and animals with similar characteristics and genes were classified, and millions of species were divided.

Hence, both Aristotle and Linnaeus classified all living things as plants or animals, but later scientists used a classification system that involved three domains and six kingdoms, and this happened due to the categorization of the same characters in a single group.

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Match each product with the cell or region that secretes or contains it. A. enzymes B. HCl C. HCO3 - D. mucus E. more than one of these brush border

Answers

Each product has a cell or area where its enzymes are secreted. They give the body structure and absorb nutrients from food.

About a cell, write:

the tiniest cellular unit that can sustain life by itself and makes up all living things and physiological tissue. The cell membrane, nucleus, and cytoplasm are the three basic components of a cell.

What types of cells are there?

A single cell can exist as an independent entity, similar to how bacteria and protozoans do. Specialized cell groupings are organised into tissues and organs in multicellular species such as higher plants and animals. There are two different types of cells: microbiological cells and eukaryotes.

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Which statement explains a potential benefit of being a naturally polyploid organism, such as a banana or an amphibian? (1 point) O Natural polyploidy may decrease the rate of mitosis in cells. O Natural polyploidy may protect a cell from harmful mutations. O Natural polyploidy may increase an organism's size. O Natural polyploidy may protect a cell from gene duplicity.​

Answers

The statement that explains a potential benefit of being a naturally polyploid organism is that Natural polyploidy may protect a cell from harmful mutations. That is option B.

What is naturally polyploid organism?

A naturally polyploid organism is the type of organism that has three or more complete chromosome sets.

Chromosomes are those genetic materials of the cell that houses the hereditary information of the whole organism.

Organisms that are naturally polyploids has the benefit of being protected against harmful mutations because the organism inherits multiple copies of each chromosome and hence multiple copies of each gene.

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all organisms face trade-offs that arise from the constraints that they face. one example of a constraint: energy spent on one task cannot be spent on another. which of the following best illustrates a realistic life-history trade-off? produce lots of large offspring or produce a small number of tiny offspring grow for a short time and get big or grow for a long time and stay small invest in growth and survival or invest in reproductive output provide lots of parental care to many offspring or provide little parental care to tew offspring

Answers

When an increase in one life history trait (enhancing fitness) is paired with a reduction in another life history characteristic (reducing fitness), the fitness advantage from increasing trait 1 is balanced against a fitness cost from lowering  trade-offs

Prior research has indicated that most living creatures' evolutionary histories are riddled with compromises.

Fecundity is the ability to have children. It can also describe an individual organism's reproduction rate. The availability of resources and the presence of possible partners can both impact fecundity. Many animal species have adapted by having a high fecundity.

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categorize each of the following as characteristics of influenza virus, chickenpox virus, or measles virus.

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Chickenpox virus  is characteristic of influenza virus and is an airborne disease

Chickenpox is a highly contagious disease caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV). It can cause an itchy, blistering rash, among other symptoms. The rash that first appears on the chest, and then in back, and face, then spreads all over the body. After a person has chickenpox, the virus remains in the body permanently, but quietly. About one-third of people who get chickenpox later develop a disease known as shingles or shingles. Influenza A virus causes influenza in birds and some mammals and is the only species in the alpha influenza virus genus in the family Orthomyxoviridae. Although the disease is rare, strains of all subtypes of influenza A virus have been isolated from wild birds. A 5-day inhaler of oseltamivir or zanamivir is usually prescribed for the treatment of influenza, but a single dose of intravenous peramivir or a single dose of oral baloxavir is usually prescribed. Oseltamivir treatment is given to hospitalized patients, and in some patients he may be on treatment for more than 5 days.

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opioid receptors are are all metabotropic. have multiple subunits. are found on all neurons in the limbic system. each exclusively bind to a single endogenous opioid typ

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Opioid receptors are the type of transmembrane receptors that: have multiple subunit.

Opioid receptors are the G protein coupled receptors (GPCRs). They are present in the cell bodies and axons of the nerve cells. They are also expressed by some  neuroendocrine organs. The receptor further has three types: mu, delta, and kappa.

GPCRs are the seven transmembrane proteins that span the cell membrane seven times. They are the largest family of receptors. This is the reason they are also known by the name serpentine receptors. There are three subunit of GPCRs: α, β and  γ. The example of GPCRs are: rhodopsin (family A), secretin (family B), glutamate (family C), adhesion and Frizzled/Taste2.

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which of the following immunological tests would allow the specific identification of a microorganism directly in infected tissues?
A) fluorescent antibody (FA)
B) radioimmunoassay (RIA)
C) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (EIA)
D) agglutination

Answers

The immunological test that would allow the specific identification of a microorganism directly in infected tissues is: (A) fluorescent antibody (FA).

Microorganisms are the small living creatures that cannot be seen through unaided eyes. They are present in varying environments. The example of microorganisms are: bacteria, virus, fungi, protozoans, etc. They are usually pathogenic to the human body. However some are useful as well.

FA is the antibody tagged with a fluorescent label. The fluorescent label is also called fluorophore. It can be used for direct detection because the fluorescence produced it will help in detecting the path of the antibody inside the body.

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kim works as a dog trainer. she wants to apply thewhich of these is not a characteristic of a population? methods of science inquiry to improve her professional skills. which of the following tasks can she achieve most successfully by applying science inquiry?

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Explaining the behavior of dogs, and testing any explanation with observations or an experiment.

Explain about the Behavior of Dogs?

The two most prevalent dog behaviour issues are aggression and scavenging.

If the problem is brand-new and out of the ordinary for your dog's routine, you should first think about taking your canine companion to the doctor to rule out any health issues.

It's also crucial to keep in mind that some behaviours that some owners regard to be serious problems are in fact minor for others. For instance, while some dog owners love it, others would never allow their dog to lie in their bed. Some people prefer that their pets not bark. The door-bell notification is appreciated by other owners.

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compare and ocnstrast the action of neurotransmitters in developing bot hexcitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (local potentials) in the receptive segment

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The potential of the neuron is brought closer to its firing threshold by excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP) by the action of neurotransmitters.

A straightforward rule separates postsynaptic excitation from inhibition, notwithstanding the complexity of the specifics of postsynaptic action: The reversal potential of an EPSP is higher than the action potential threshold, but the reversal potential of an IPSP is lower. The charge across the membrane is altered by inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSP) to be farther from the firing threshold. Postsynaptic potentials can be summed in both time and space. Action potentials, which can be either excitatory or inhibitory, are electrical currents that move between neurons to transmit information. While inhibitory currents lessen the likelihood that information will be transferred between neurons, excitatory currents cause information to be sent between neurons through an action potential.

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Imagine you are a grape farmer you grow black grapes one day you notice that one of the grape vines that is growing in your arbor which has always produced balck grapes is now growing white grapes which of the following is probabl not invpled in the explaination of these observations

Answers

The explanation of the grape vines producing white grapes instead of black grapes is likely not related to supernatural forces. Although it is possible that a miracle could have occurred, this is an unlikely explanation. Instead, there are a variety of more likely explanations for this phenomenon.

These include genetic mutation, cross-pollination with a neighboring white grapevine, and nutrient deficiencies in the soil. Genetic mutation is when a gene in the grapevine randomly changes, causing a mutation such as the production of white grapes instead of black grapes.

Cross-pollination occurs when the pollen from a neighboring white grapevine pollinates the black grapevine, resulting in the production of white grapes. Lastly, nutrient deficiencies can cause grapevines to produce white grapes instead of black grapes, as certain nutrients are essential for producing darker grapes.

The most likely explanation for the grapevine producing white grapes instead of black grapes is one of the above explanations. Therefore, supernatural forces are not likely involved in the explanation.

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sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when an individual has two recessive alleles. scientists have discovered that some people who are carriers of one allele for sickle-cell anemia are protected against malaria. deduce which genotype would be the most advantageous to protect people against malaria without causing sickle-cell anemia.

Answers

Answer:

Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder that is caused by having two recessive alleles for the disorder. This means that an individual who has two copies of the recessive allele will develop the disorder, while an individual who has one copy of the recessive allele and one copy of the healthy allele will be a carrier for the disorder, but will not develop it.

Scientists have discovered that some people who are carriers of one allele for sickle-cell anemia are protected against malaria. This means that having one copy of the recessive allele confers some protective benefit against malaria, without causing sickle-cell anemia. Therefore, the genotype that would be the most advantageous to protect people against malaria without causing sickle-cell anemia is one that contains one copy of the recessive allele for sickle-cell anemia, and one copy of the healthy allele. This genotype would allow the individual to be protected against malaria, without developing sickle-cell anemia.

researchers have found that mixtures of phospholipids placed in water or salt solutions tend to spontaneously form:

Answers

According to research, phospholipid mixes in salt or water solutions tend to form small spherical units that resemble living cells.

Researchers have found that mixtures of phospholipids placed in water or salt solutions tend to spontaneously form small spherical units that resemble living cells. The idea of "punctuated equilibrium" suggests that species will show little to no evolutionary change throughout their history.

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in this letter kennedy restates khrushchevs proposals. does kennedy include everything khrushchev proposed? if not, why might have he left something out? An airplane has stopped to re-fuel. Fuel is being added to the airplane's tanks at a constant rate. After 13 minutes, the airplane has 32,882 gallons of fuel. After 31 minutes, the airplane has 34,902.5 gallons of fuel. Write a function in f(t) form that describes the amount of fuel in the plane at time t. ______ penetration testing is usually used when a specific system or network segment ... wants the pen tester to focus on a particular aspect of the target. When members of Congress wait until there is a crisis before taking action in addressing problems in the bureaucracy, they are engaged in: Interchangeableparts became widelyused during the Second IndustrialRevolution. What was the primarybenefit of this development?A. Repairs were easier to make.B. The whole machine had to be replaced.C. Fewer people were needed in the factory.D. Production slowed down. TRUE/FALSE. hospitals can be classified in many ways which of the followinf is an example of classification by type of service which one of the following was one of the most influential financial derivatives in causing the crisis of september 2008?a. capital gains b. credit default swaps c. foreclosures d. subprime mortgages The following age structure diagrams were created for various counties in the United States from 2000 census data. Which of the following statements best describes the pattern seen in age structure diagram C? a food worker has nausea and diarrhea the night before she is scheduled to work the opening shift. if she feels better in the morning, what should she do? describe one reason that the framers chose to use the electoral college as the method to elect the president. Where did the scientists who contributed to our scientific knowledge live? afecreen inc. has an average of 85 working days in a quarter. the company conducts quality checks to assess the performance of its employees. the employees who perform well may receive a bonus after 70 days or 100 days, but the average interval between the completion of tasks and the receiving of bonus is 85 days. in the context of reinforcement theory of motivation, which of the following intermittent reinforcement schedules does this scenario best illustrate? suppose you see two men. one is sitting with a highly attractive woman. the other is with an unattractive woman. generalizing from research presented in aronson Which action is a change of state?A. NeutralizationB. ShreddingC. SublimationD. Breaking Question:list the countries today that still have governments similar to those that existed in early Ancient Greece. The difference between the meaure of two comlementary angle i 14. Find the meaure of both angle what information process must the legal counsel of smithville hospital perform to prepare for a lawsuit against the hospital? 6. a client experiences panic attacks when confronted with riding in elevators, the therapists teaching the client ways to relax while incrementally exposing the client to getting on the elevator this technique is called: the figure above shows the graph of f the derivative of the function f the domain of f is the set a 90.0 g mass is attached to the bottom of a vertical spring and set vibrating. assume that the maximum speed of the mass is 25.0 cm/s and the period is 0.450 s.