10b + 18 < 2(4b+2)
Need held

Question

Which list of integers is in order from greatest to least?

a) -11, -18, -33, 9, 24

b) -33, 24, -18, -11, 9

c) 24, 9, -33, -24, -11

d) 24, 9, -11, -24, -33

Answer:

d) 24, 9, -11, -24, -33

Step-by-step explanation:

The question asked us which list of integers is in order from greatest to least. This means, we should arrange the integers in descending order from the highest to the least or lowest number.

24< 9< -11< -24 < -33

Hence, from the greatest to the least =

24, 9, -11, -24, -33

Option d), is correct.

Answer:

j=4

Step-by-step explanation:

5j+15=12j-13

Answer: j = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

5j + 15 = 12j - 13

5j = 12j - 28                  Subtract 15 from both sides        

-7j = -28                        Subtract 12j from both sides

j = 4                               Divide -7 from both sides

Answer:

multiplication property

Step-by-step explanation:

The multiplication property states that the product of any number and zero is zero. It doesn't matter what the number is, when you multiply it to zero, you get zero as the answer. So: 2 x 0 = 0.

3x and 4x are like terms. Add them together and you get 7x.

2 and -1 are like terms. Add them together and you get 1.

3x+2+4x-1

7x+1 is your final answer

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

it says that if he makes an a, he will take advanced math, and if he does that he'll join the math team, so since henry made an a, he is gonna take advanced math and join the team.

Answer:

The answer is A) Henry will take Calculus

Step-by-step explanation:

If he made an A in math class, then he would take advanced math next year, which would be Calculus. then he will join the math team, which would be next.

Hope this helps :)

There are 24 hours in a day and so 15 hours is 15÷24=58 of a day. Since the rig drills 60 feet underground in a day, in 58 of a day it will drill

(58 days)×(60feetday)=3008 feet.

So the rig will have drilled 3008=37.5 feet underground in 15 hours.

The rig drills 60 feet underground per day so to find how long it has been running to go 143.6 feet underground, we need to calculate

(143.6 feet)÷(60feetday)=143.660 days.

This is about 2.4 days. Alternatively, it is 57.44 hours

We know that the rig drills at a constant rate, so there is a proportional relationship between the two quantities d, the height to which the drill has dug, and t, the number of days the drill runs. It drills at -60 feet per day, so we can represent this relationship with the equation:

–60t=d

Since 15 hours is 1524=58 days, we can use the equation to find d:  

–60⋅58=d

Since the depth is the same whether we think of it as a positive depth below the surface or a negative height above the surface, we can find this value by multiplying 60⋅58=37.5  and then noting that the sign must be negative if we are representing positions below the surface of the earth by negative numbers. So d=–37.5 and the drill will be at height -37.5 feet after 15 hours.

Likewise, if we know the drill has dug to -143.6 feet, we can use the equation again, this time to find t:  

−60t=−143.6

so t=(−143.6)÷(−60). Since the amount of time would be the same if we were working with positive feet below the surface of the earth and a drill rate of 60 feet per day below the earth surface, we can find this value by dividing 143.6÷60, which is about 2.4 days.

Answer:

[tex]x\le \:-\frac{20}{21}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]-3\left(9x+20\right)\ge \:15x-20\\\\\mathrm{Expand\:}-3\left(9x+20\right):\quad -27x-60\\-27x-60\ge \:15x-20\\\\\mathrm{Add\:}60\mathrm{\:to\:both\:sides}\\-27x-60+60\ge \:15x-20+60\\\\\mathrm{Simplify}\\-27x\ge \:15x+40\\\\\mathrm{Subtract\:}15x\mathrm{\:from\:both\:sides}\\-27x-15x\ge \:15x+40-15x\\\\\mathrm{Simplify}\\-42x\ge \:40\\\\\mathrm{Multiply\:both\:sides\:by\:-1\:\left(reverse\:the\:inequality\right)}\\\left(-42x\right)\left(-1\right)\le \:40\left(-1\right)[/tex]

[tex]Simplify\\42x\le \:-40\\\\\mathrm{Divide\:both\:sides\:by\:}42\\\frac{42x}{42}\le \frac{-40}{42}\\\\Simplify\\x\le \:-\frac{20}{21}[/tex]

Answer:

Translation of MATH to M'A'T'H' by 5 units to the left.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the figure attached,

Quadrilateral MATH has been transformed to the image M'A'T'H'.

Shape and size of MATH is not altered in this transformation, only translation has been done.

We take a point A(4, 3) which has been translated to A'(-1, 3).

Rule followed for the translation,

(x, y) → (x-5, y)

Translation by 5 units to the left.

Answer:

lol the number of comments got maxed out

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Sjhdhdnjsuemshusushdj

Step-by-step explanation:

now yte don't do this because then you will be reported and people really want to learn and STEAL THESE ANSWERS pop it's time for my class brb but don't do this if you don't know the answer don't put it in or you will, be reported. Time for P.E and sorry.

Answer:

t = -1

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]2t + 1 = 3t - 1 + 3[/tex]

Collect like terms and simplify

[tex]2t - 3t = - 1 + 3 - 1 \\ - t = 1[/tex]

Divide through by -1

[tex] \frac{ - t}{ - 1} = \frac{ 1}{ - 1} \\ t = - 1[/tex]

Answer:

t = - 2

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{2t + 1}{3} = \frac{(3t-1) + 3}{4}[/tex]

First we need to cross multiply to get rid of the division to make it easier to solve.

Multiply 2t+1 by 4 and (3t-1) + 3 by 3

4 ( 2t + 1 ) = 3 ( ( 3t - 1 ) + 3 ) On the right we need to combine terms.

4 ( 2t + 1 ) = 3 ( 3t - 1 + 3 )

4 ( 2t + 1 ) = 3 ( 3t + 2 )   Multiply

4 * 2t + 4 * 1 = 3 * 3t + 3 * 2     Remember order of operations. Multiplication comes before addition and subtraction.

4 * 2t + 4 * 1 = 3 * 3t + 3 * 2

8t + 4 = 9t + 6      Subtract 8t from each side

8t - 8t + 4 = 9t - 8t + 6

4 = t + 6       Subtract 6 from each side

4 - 6 = t + 6 - 6

4 - 6 = t

- 2 = t

Answer:

5 more games.

Step-by-step explanation:

117 - 52 = 65.

65 / 13 = 5.

Answer:

2x+1= 8

2x= 8-1

2x= 7

x= 7/2

x= 3.5

hope this helps uh

Answer:

The answer is a.

Bai found the correct quotient and checked his work using multiplication correctly.

Step-by-step explanation:

I know this cuz I did the test on edge :))

Anyways plz give me the brainliest!!

Answer:

ITS A

Step-by-step explanation:

i did it on edge 2020

pls give Brainliest.

Answer:

t = 1.15 seconds.

Step-by-step explanation:

The pumpkin is dropped from the height of = 64 feet.

Now we have to find the time taken to reach the pumpkin on ground. Use the below formula to find the time taken.

H = ½ gt^2

H = height

g = 9.8 (always contant )

t = time taken.

Now insert all the values in the formula.

H = ½ gt^2

64 = ½ ×9.8× t^2

(64×2) / 9.8 = t^2

t = 1.15 seconds.

Answer: 49 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:0.32

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is -4. The answer just is multiplied by 2.

Answer:

708480

Step-by-step explanation:

You follow the order of BEDMAS. There are brackets in this equation, meaning we have to focus on what is inside the brackets first. The next step is Exponents. So you multiply 2.05 by 10^5.

This would give you 205000.

You then multiply this number by the number on the outside of the brackets which is 3.456.

This would give you 708480. (You can get these answers by using a calculator).

Don't forgot to follow the order of BEDMAS or whatever law of operations you were taught (BIDMAS/BIMDAS etc)

Answer:

1.3 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

if 3/4 cups of sugar are needed for every 2 1/4 cups of flour then for 4 cups of flour: (3/4*4)/(9/4) =1.3 cups of sugar

if 1 cup of sugar for every 3 cups of flour then

x=4/3=1.3

Answer:

6 1/10

Step-by-step explanation:

0.1 is 1/10 of 100. So the answer is 6 1/10

Hope This Helps :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Construction: To copy angle CAB.

i. On angle CAB, with center A and any radius; draw an arc to intersect CA at E and AB at F.

ii. Place a divider at EF to copy the angle.

iii. Draw a separate straight line MN of approximate length to AB.

iv. Mark point P on MN. Place the divider with radius EF at P to mark Q.

v. Draw a line LM from M through Q.

vi. Therefore, angle CAB would be equal to angle LMN.

Answer:

Las reglas para escribir un número en forma estándar es que primero escribes un número entre 1 y 10, luego escribes × 10 (a la potencia de un número). En una calculadora, generalmente ingresa un número en forma estándar de la siguiente manera: Escriba el primer número (el que está entre 1 y 10). Presione EXP

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

They subtracted 2x from both sides.

Step-by-step explanation:

They removed 2x from each side because in order to find x it will have to be removed on one side. Since 2x - 2x = 0 it is 2x is out of the equation for the right side and on the left side -2x -(-4x) = -6x which means that there is one x variable left in the equation thus making it solvable.

Answer: Subtract

Step-by-step explanation: Make your denominator equal using the concept of LCM, then subtract the numerators accordingly. Rewrite each fraction to its equivilent fraction with a denominator equal to the LCM=30, then you need to subtract the numberators, but make sure to reduce your answer to the lowest possible term. I hope this helps.

Answer:

when you find the common denominators you find the LCM.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the first part be x. Then,

the second part will be (10000-x).

So, According to question,

(10% of x) + { 7% of (10000-x)} = 805

(10/100*x) +{7/100*(10000-x)} = 805

(x/10) + (70000-7x/100) = 805

Then,

We will take the lcm of 10 and 100 which is 100 and then add both the fractions.

Solution:

10x + 70000-7x/ 100 = 805

3x + 70000/100 = 805

3x + 70000 = 805*100

3x + 70000 = 80500

3x = 80500-70000

3x = 10500

x = 10500/3

x = 3500

So the first part is 3500.Then,

the second part will be (10000-3500)

= 6500

HOPE IT WILL HELP YÔÛ.♥️♥️

Answer:

the paper is 54.79 cm .

Step-by-step explanation:

34.85 * 2 = 69.7 ( two pieces of paper altogether )

69.7 - 14.91 = 54.79 ( when got cut )

Step-by-step explanation:

1. We can see that the two vertical lines are parallel. Since one angle is 80º, then the other side should be 100º, since the straight line is 180º.

2. If the angle on the right is 80º, then that means the angle with y and 40º add up to 100º.

3. 100º - 40º = 60º.

Our final answer: y = 60º

I hope this helps!

Answer:  -2, -1, -1, 0, -1, 1, -2, -1, -1, 0

Step-by-step explanation:

When you are looking at the problem

" -2, -1, -1, 0, -1, 1, -2, … Find the next 3 numbers in the sequence above. Describe the pattern."

you want to observe the pattern, now For example

1, 2, -1, -4 .. and so on

so there is a pattern here if looked at hard enough it goes 1 - 2 = -1 - -3 = -4

when you find the pattern it gets really easy.

Hope this helped!