You have two very good friends, Ann and Bob. They work for you on different projects. This week, they worked with you on a project that attained $3, 000 in profits (that is after paying all costs, including their wages). Happy with this result, you decide to distribute these profits. You decided to take $1, 000 for you (that is one third of the profits). You are the only owner, so you have no obligation to distribute profits, but you want to do it anyways. You anticipate that any favoritism may lead to a problem. But, at the same time, an equal split may also lead to wrong conclusions (for example, Ann may think that she is a better friend than Bob, so with an equal split of the remaining $2, 000 she may doubt it). With all that in mind, you come up with an idea (which later you realized it is called the Nash demand game). You tell them the following: "Ann and Bob, I want to share the $3, 000 of profits we had this week. I will take just one third of it ($1, 000). To split the remaining $2, 000, I will ask both of you to separately write in a paper how much money out of the $2, 000 you want. If the demands are compatible, that is, if they add up to $2, 000 or less, then I will assign to each of you what you demanded. However, if the demands add up to something greater than $2, 000, each of you will get zero."a) Describe all the Nash equilibria of this game.b) What do you think would be the result of the game you proposed (in "real life")?

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Answer 1

a) The Nash equilibria of this game are the pairs of strategies for Ann and Bob, such that neither of them has an incentive to change their demand, given the other's demand.

b) The result of the game will depend on how Ann and Bob evaluate their relationship with each other and with the person who proposed the game.

How do you evaluated this result?

a) The Nash equilibria of this game are the pairs of strategies for Ann and Bob, such that neither of them has an incentive to change their demand, given the other's demand.

In this game, each player's strategy is their demand for the amount of money they want to receive.

One possible Nash equilibrium is for both Ann and Bob to demand $1,000 each, which would result in a split of the remaining $2,000 equally.

Another possible Nash equilibrium is for one of them to demand $2,000 and the other to demand $0, which would result in the first player receiving all of the remaining $2,000.

b) The result of the game will depend on how Ann and Bob evaluate their relationship with each other and with the person who proposed the game. If they trust each other and have similar preferences, they may both demand an equal split of the remaining $2,000, resulting in a fair distribution.

However, if they have different preferences or if they do not trust each other, they may both demand a larger share of the profits, resulting in no distribution. It is also possible that one of them may demand a larger share than the other, leading to an unequal split of the profits.

Ultimately, the result of the game will depend on the individual preferences and beliefs of Ann and Bob, and how they perceive the proposed distribution scheme.

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Related Questions

an increase in quantity demanded refers to: multiple choice a leftward movement along the demand curve. a rightward movement along the demand curve. a rightward shift of the demand curve. a leftward shift of the demand curve.

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An increase in quantity demanded refers to a movement along the demand curve, specifically a rightward movement. This indicates that consumers are choosing to purchase more of a good or service at a given price level.

This is because quantity demanded refers to the specific amount of a product or service that consumers are willing and able to purchase at a given price, while demand refers to the overall willingness and ability of consumers to purchase a product or service at various prices.

Therefore, an increase in quantity demanded does not necessarily mean that there is a change in overall demand (which would result in a shift of the demand curve), but rather a change in the specific quantity demanded at a particular price point.

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Question 6 1 pts Suppose that during a recession labour costs fall by 66.67% and are expected to stay at that level for a long time, while the rental cost of capital stays the same. Draw the firm's ou tput expansion path before and after the recession. Assume that the firm has downward sloping strictly convex isoquants. (Draw several isoquants and isocosts). Put labour on the horizontal axis. • New isocosts will have slope equal to four times the slope of the original isocosts. • The firm will hire more labour and less capital to produce the same amount of output. • Output expansion path will shift/tilt to the left

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The output expansion path shows the optimal combinations of labor and capital that a firm would use to produce different levels of output while minimizing the cost of production.

If the labor costs fall by 66.67% during a recession while the rental cost of capital stays the same, then the isocost lines would rotate around the point where they intersect with the vertical axis, which represents the cost of capital.

Before the recession, the firm's isocost lines would have a certain slope, say, 1, as shown in the graph below:

The firm would choose the combination of labor and capital that lies on the highest isoquant that is tangent to the isocost line at that level of output. The optimal combination of labor and capital would change as the firm moves along the output expansion path, from point A to point B to point C.

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the amount of output of a production relative to the amount ofresources invested is known assupply demandnash equilibrium self actualizatiomproductivity

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The term that describes the amount of output produced in relation to the resources invested is known as productivity. It is a key factor in determining a company's profitability and competitiveness.

A high level of productivity means that a company can produce more goods or services using fewer resources, which can lead to higher profits and a lower cost structure. In contrast, low productivity can result in waste, inefficiency, and higher costs.

Improving productivity requires a focus on optimizing processes, reducing waste, and investing in technology and human resources. By doing so, companies can achieve their goals of increased output, profitability, and success.

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students who are interested in fitness-, health-, or therapy-related careers can increase their professional marketability by _____.

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Students who are interested in fitness-, health-, or therapy-related careers can increase their professional marketability by obtaining relevant certifications, pursuing higher education, and gaining practical experience in their chosen field.

Obtaining relevant certifications: Certifications are valuable credentials that demonstrate a student's expertise and competency in a specific field. There are numerous certifications available in the fitness, health, and therapy industries, ranging from personal training and group fitness certifications to nutrition, yoga, or physical therapy certifications, among others.

Obtaining relevant certifications can not only enhance a student's knowledge and skills, but also make them more marketable to potential employers or clients.

Certifications can be obtained through reputable organizations that offer industry-recognized certifications and often require passing exams, completing educational requirements, and meeting other criteria.

Pursuing higher education: Pursuing higher education can also be a significant step in increasing professional marketability. Depending on the chosen career path, obtaining a bachelor's or master's degree in a relevant field can open up more opportunities and provide a deeper understanding of the industry.

For example, students interested in therapy-related careers, such as occupational therapy, physical therapy, or speech-language pathology, typically need to obtain a higher education degree and fulfill licensing requirements to practice professionally.

Higher education can provide students with advanced knowledge, research opportunities, and specialized training, which can enhance their qualifications and competitiveness in the job market.

Gaining practical experience: Practical experience is another key factor in increasing professional marketability. Students can gain practical experience through internships, volunteer work, part-time or full-time jobs, or other hands-on opportunities in their chosen field.

Practical experience allows students to apply their theoretical knowledge, develop relevant skills, and build a professional network. It also demonstrates to potential employers or clients that they have real-world experience and are capable of performing the duties and responsibilities of their chosen career.

Practical experience can be gained through various avenues, such as internships at fitness centers, health clinics, or therapy practices, working as a personal trainer or fitness instructor, or volunteering at community health programs.

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What does it mean to have diminishing returns to labor in production?

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The diminishing-return to labor in production means that when you increase amount of one input in a production process while keeping other inputs constant.

The diminishing returns to labor in production suggests that initially, increasing the amount of labor used in production may lead to higher output, but at some point, the additional output produced by each additional unit of labor may start to decrease.

This is due to factors such as diminishing marginal productivity, resource constraints, and inefficiencies that can arise when there is an excessive amount of labor input relative to other inputs.

It is an important concept in economics and production management, because it helps businesses understand the trade-offs associated with labor utilization and make informed decisions about optimal input levels.

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Coffee and donuts are complements. If Dunkin Donuts raises the price of donuts, what happens to the demand curve for coffee? a. There is no change in the demand curve b. The demand curve shifts left c. There is a movement along the demand curve to a lower quantity demanded d. The demand curve shifts right

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If Dunkin Donuts raises the price of donuts, the demand curve for coffee would experience a movement along the demand curve to a lower quantity demanded.

This is because coffee and donuts are complements, meaning they are often consumed together. If the price of donuts increases, people may be less willing to purchase them, which would decrease the demand for coffee as well. However, the overall demand for coffee may not necessarily decrease significantly, as it can also be consumed on its own or with other complementary goods.
b. The demand curve shifts left

Since coffee and donuts are complements, an increase in the price of donuts will lead to a decrease in the demand for coffee. As a result, the demand curve for coffee will shift to the left, representing a lower quantity demanded at each price level.

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Management of Care
Assignment, Delegation and Supervision
Delegation and Supervision: Tasks for Assistive Personnel (RM FUND 9.0 Ch 6)

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Delegation and supervision of tasks for assistive personnel is an important aspect of nursing practice. It involves assigning tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) such as nursing assistants or certified nursing assistants, under the direction and supervision of a registered nurse (RN) or licensed practical nurse (LPN).

The RN or LPN is responsible for determining which tasks can be delegated to UAP based on their education, training, and scope of practice. They must also assess the patient's condition and the complexity of the task before delegating it to UAP. Tasks that require critical thinking, assessment, or interpretation of data should not be delegated to UAP.

The RN or LPN should provide clear instructions and expectations for UAP regarding the task to be performed. They must also ensure that UAP have the necessary knowledge, skills, and equipment to safely perform the task. Supervision of UAP during task performance is essential to ensure that the task is performed correctly and safely.

If the UAP encounters any problems or complications during task performance, they should report them to the RN or LPN immediately. The RN or LPN is responsible for monitoring the UAP's performance and providing feedback and support as needed.

It is important for the RN or LPN to document the delegation and supervision of tasks for UAP in the patient's medical record. This documentation should include the task delegated, the name of the UAP who performed the task, and any problems or complications encountered during task performance.

Overall, delegation and supervision of tasks for assistive personnel is an important component of nursing practice that requires clear communication, assessment, education, and documentation.

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If you needed to put a new roof on your house and didn’t have the money in an emergency fund to pay for it, which home loan type would make the most sense?

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If you needed to put a new roof on your house and didn’t have the money in an emergency fund to pay for it, a home equity loan or home equity line of credit (HELOC) might make the most sense.

What are these loans?

These loan types allow you to borrow against the equity in your home, which is the difference between the value of your home and the amount you owe on your mortgage.

A home equity loan provides a lump sum of money that you can repay over a fixed period of time with a fixed interest rate. On the other hand, a HELOC works more like a credit card, where you have access to a line of credit that you can draw from as needed, and you only pay interest on the amount you borrow.

It's important to note that using your home equity as collateral can be risky, as you're essentially putting your home up as security for the loan.

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Firm X, operating in a perfectly competitive market, can sell as much or as little as it wants at the market price. The firm’s total cost function is TC = 600 + 8Q + 6Q 2 and MC = 8 + 12Q.a. At a market price of $140 per unit, what is the firm’s profit maximizing quantity? What is their profit?

Answers

The firm's profit at the profit-maximizing quantity of 11 units  is $320.

To find the firm's profit-maximizing quantity, we need to equate the market price with the marginal cost (MC). Given the market price of $140 per unit and the MC equation MC = 8 + 12Q, we have:

140 = 8 + 12Q

Now, solve for Q:

132 = 12Q
Q = 11

So, the profit-maximizing quantity is 11 units.

To calculate the firm's profit, we first find the total revenue (TR) by multiplying the market price by the quantity:

TR = P * Q
TR = 140 * 11
TR = 1540

Now, find the total cost (TC) using the provided TC function:

TC = 600 + 8Q + 6Q^2
TC = 600 + 8(11) + 6(11)^2
TC = 600 + 88 + 726
TC = 1414

Finally, calculate the profit:

Profit = TR - TC
Profit = 1540 - 1414
Profit = 126

So, the firm's profit at the profit-maximizing quantity of 11 units is $126.

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Find out at least 5 invisible factors of cost of quality for a logistics company and discuss how these factors can have an impact on the performance of a logistics company. You can choose a logistics company and find out the desired details for your answer.

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Here are five invisible factors of cost of quality for logistics companies:Customer satisfaction: Logistics companies need to meet their customers' expectations in terms of delivery times, product quality, and customer service. Dissatisfied customers may not return, and this can result in a loss of business and reputatio

Employee training: Logistics companies need to train their employees in the latest technology, safety procedures, and regulations. This training can be costly, but it is necessary to ensure that the employees can perform their jobs efficiently and safely Equipment maintenance: Logistics companies need to maintain their equipment, such as trucks, forklifts, and warehouse machinery. Proper maintenance can reduce downtime, prevent accidents, and extend the life of the equipment. Supplier quality: Logistics companies rely on suppliers to provide them with raw materials, components, and finished products.

Poor quality from suppliers can lead to delays, rework, and customer dissatisfaction. Risk management: Logistics companies need to manage risks, such as natural disasters, accidents, and theft. These risks can result in a loss of product, damage to equipment, and liability issues.
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What is this monopolist's total profit equal to? Select one: cross out a FGAB CROSS Out Ob. OFBD Cross out О с OECD Od. EFBC Cross out cross out Oe. None of the above

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In a monopoly, a single firm controls the entire market, allowing them to set prices and maximize profits.

How to determine monopolist's total profit

To determine a monopolist's total profit, we need to consider the following:

1. FGAB: This could refer to a specific area on a graph related to the monopolist's revenue and cost curves. Generally, the profit-maximizing quantity is determined where marginal cost (MC) equals marginal revenue (MR).

2. OFBD: This might represent another area on a graph, possibly comparing various revenue and cost curves to identify the monopolist's total profit.

3. OECD: This abbreviation typically refers to the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development. In this context, it may not be directly relevant to calculating the monopolist's profit.

4. EFBC: Similar to FGAB and OFBD, EFBC could represent another area on a graph comparing different curves for revenue and cost.

To calculate the monopolist's total profit, we need to find the difference between total revenue and total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity. The total profit cannot be accurately determined without more information on the specific monopolist's situation.

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T/F: A tenant may remove trade fixtures provided he can do so without causing material injury to the real property to which it is affixed.

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False. A tenant may remove trade fixtures provided he can do so without causing material injury to the real property to which it is affixed is untrue.

As long as the trade fixture was something the tenant installed on the property, it is legal for the renter to remove it.  Removal is permitted as long as the property is left in the same state as when the renter first moved in and there is no damage to the building.  As a result, if the renter installs a ceiling fan over their desk, they are free to take it down.

Trade fixtures are items of property that are affixed to a structure or piece of land to allow the tenant to operate. For instance, a business that leases space in a mall may install display counters there to advertise products for sale. Then, this display counter would function as one of the store's many trade fixtures. In addition to his personal property, the renter is allowed to take part of the trade fixtures with him when he eventually vacates the space.

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using the complex ad/as model, from an initial long-run equilibrium, if aggregate demand grows more quickly than long-run and short-run aggregate supply, then the federal reserve would most likely

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Using the AD/AS model, if aggregate demand grows more quickly than long-run and short-run aggregate supply from an initial long-run equilibrium, then the economy would experience an inflationary gap in the short-run.

In response, the Federal Reserve would most likely implement contractionary monetary policy by increasing interest rates, reducing the money supply, and slowing down the growth of aggregate demand. This would cause the short-run aggregate supply to increase and eventually shift the economy towards a new long-run equilibrium with lower inflation and higher unemployment levels.
Hi! Using the complex AD/AS model, from an initial long-run equilibrium, if aggregate demand grows more quickly than long-run and short-run aggregate supply, then the Federal Reserve would most likely respond by implementing contractionary monetary policies, such as raising interest rates or reducing the money supply, to counteract inflationary pressures and restore the economy to its long-run equilibrium.

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a clause that requires the borrower to maintain a minimum level of working capital until the loan is repaid is known as

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A working capital maintenance clause is a clause in a loan agreement that requires the borrower to maintain a minimum level of working capital until the loan is repaid.

This clause is used to protect the bank's interests and ensure that the borrower has sufficient funds to repay the loan. Essentially, it requires the borrower to maintain a certain amount of liquidity, or cash on hand, at all times throughout the loan term.

This is important to the bank because it ensures that the borrower has the funds to make their loan payments, even in the event of unexpected expenses or losses.

Working capital maintenance clauses are typically used in commercial loans, but may also be included in personal loan agreements.

The clause will specify the minimum amount of working capital that must be maintained, and any additional terms or conditions that must be met. For example, the clause may include a requirement that the borrower must maintain a certain level of profitability or generate a certain amount of revenue. The borrower must also provide regular reports to the lender to prove that they are in compliance with the clause.

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A firm's profit function is (q) = R(q)-Cla)= 1809 – (865+ 200 + 1002 What is the positive output level that maximizes the firm's profit (or minimizes its loss)? What is the firm's revenue, variable cost, and profit? Should it operate or shut down in the short run? The output level at which the firm's profit is maximized is q = (Enter your response as a whole number.) At this level of output, the firm's revenue (R) is $ (Enter your response as a whole number.) At the profit-maximizing level of output, the firm's variable cost (VC) is S. (Enter your response as a whole number.) Profit (x) is $(Enter your response as a whole number and include a minus sign if necessary.) The firm should produce in the short run

Answers

The firm should produce at the output level of q = 0.6324. Its revenue is $1362.66, variable cost is $766.75, and profit is $595.91. Since the profit is positive, the firm should operate in the short run.

To find the output level that maximizes the firm's profit, we need to take the derivative of the profit function and set it equal to zero.

Profit function: P(q) = R(q) - C(q)

where R(q) is the revenue function and C(q) is the cost function.

Given: P(q) = 1809 - (865q + 200q + 1002)

Simplifying: P(q) = -865q + 607

Taking the derivative of P(q) with respect to q:

P'(q) = -865

Setting P'(q) = 0:

-865 = 0

There is no value of q that satisfies this equation, which means that the profit function has no maximum.

However, we can still calculate the revenue, variable cost, and profit at different levels of output. To find the profit-maximizing level of output, we can calculate the marginal cost function and set it equal to the marginal revenue function. If the resulting value is positive, then the firm should produce at that level of output.

Marginal cost (MC) function:

MC(q) = C'(q) = 865 + 200 = 1065

Marginal revenue (MR) function:

MR(q) = R'(q) = 1809 - 2*865q = 79 - 1730q

Setting MC(q) = MR(q):

1065 = 79 - 1730q

Solving for q:

q = 0.6324

Since the resulting value is positive, the firm should produce at this level of output.

Revenue at q = 0.6324:

R(q) = 1809 - 8650.6324 = $1362.66

Variable cost at q = 0.6324:

VC(q) = 10650.6324 + 200*0.6324 = $766.75

Profit at q = 0.6324:

P(q) = 1362.66 - 766.75 = $595.91

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The firm should produce at the output level of q = 0.6324. Its revenue is $1362.66, variable cost is $766.75, and profit is $595.91. Since the profit is positive, the firm should operate in the short run.

To find the output level that maximizes the firm's profit, we need to take the derivative of the profit function and set it equal to zero.

Profit function: P(q) = R(q) - C(q)

where R(q) is the revenue function and C(q) is the cost function.

Given: P(q) = 1809 - (865q + 200q + 1002)

Simplifying: P(q) = -865q + 607

Taking the derivative of P(q) with respect to q:

P'(q) = -865

Setting P'(q) = 0:

-865 = 0

There is no value of q that satisfies this equation, which means that the profit function has no maximum. However, we can still calculate the revenue, variable cost, and profit at different levels of output. To find the profit-maximizing level of output, we can calculate the marginal cost function and set it equal to the marginal revenue function. If the resulting value is positive, then the firm should produce at that level of output.

Marginal cost (MC) function:

MC(q) = C'(q) = 865 + 200 = 1065

Marginal revenue (MR) function:

MR(q) = R'(q) = 1809 - 2*865q = 79 - 1730q

Setting MC(q) = MR(q):

1065 = 79 - 1730q

Solving for q:

q = 0.6324

Since the resulting value is positive, the firm should produce at this level of output.

Revenue at q = 0.6324:

R(q) = 1809 - 8650.6324 = $1362.66

Variable cost at q = 0.6324:

VC(q) = 10650.6324 + 200*0.6324 = $766.75

Profit at q = 0.6324:

P(q) = 1362.66 - 766.75 = $595.91

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needles, inc. has five of its ten products at the end of the product life cycle. to maintain its market share, the firm must at least find ways to

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Needles, Inc. must find ways to either extend the life cycle of their current products or introduce new products to their product line to maintain their market share.

To extend the life cycle of their current products, the company can implement strategies such as reducing the price of the product, offering promotions or discounts, improving the product's design, or repositioning the product to appeal to a different target market.

Additionally, introducing new products to their product line can help the company maintain their market share by offering consumers more options and staying ahead of competitors. Needles, Inc. should conduct market research to determine which strategies would be most effective for their products and implement them accordingly.

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One goal of the regulatory reforms that followed the 2007-2009 financial crisis was to address the "too-big-to-fail" problem associated with large institutions. How did the reforms try to address the problems? Why might they not be sufficient?The reforms may not be sufficient because:Requires systemically important financial institutions (SIFIs) to have living willsLimits the FDIC's guarantee powersSubjects large institutions to regular stress testsInvestors may sense the government is unwilling to let these large institutions fail.

Answers

This problem refers to the notion that some institutions were considered so large and interconnected that their failure could have catastrophic consequences for the entire financial system.

To address this, the reforms implemented several measures, including requiring systemically important financial institutions (SIFIs) to have living wills, limiting the FDIC's guarantee powers, subjecting large institutions to regular stress tests, and increasing capital and liquidity requirements. While these reforms were intended to mitigate the risks posed by large institutions, they may not be sufficient to fully address the "too-big-to-fail" problem. For example, investors may still sense that the government is unwilling to let these institutions fail, leading them to take on excessive risks.

Additionally, some critics argue that the living wills required by the reforms are not detailed enough to provide a clear plan for how to handle a large institution's failure. Ultimately, it remains to be seen whether these regulatory reforms will be enough to prevent another financial crisis.
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4. the case mentions that white rarely takes trade discounts, which are typically 1/10, made 30. dose this seems like a wise financial move? explain.

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The decision of White to rarely take trade discounts may not be a wise financial move from a purely financial perspective, as trade discounts are typically offered as an incentive for prompt payment of invoices. By not taking the trade discounts, White is essentially paying a higher effective interest rate on the amount owed to the supplier, as they are delaying payment for 30 days without any additional benefit.

However, there may be other factors that are influencing White's decision not to take trade discounts. For example, White may have ample cash reserves and prefer to maintain a positive cash balance, even if it means paying a slightly higher cost for goods and services. Additionally, White may have negotiated other terms with the supplier, such as a longer payment period or better pricing on future orders, that offset the cost of not taking the trade discount. Overall, while the decision not to take trade discounts may not be the most financially optimal move, it may be a strategic decision based on a variety of factors and considerations.

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What type of retail store has a narrow and deep product assortment with knowledgeable staff?

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A specialty store is a kind of retail establishment with an expert staff and a limited yet rich product selection.

In contrast to merchants who sell a variety of consumer goods categories, specialty retail stores concentrate on a small number of product categories. Instead of thinking of Walmart, which is a big-box, all-in-one retailer, think of a boutique yoga-wear retailer like Lululemon.

Specialty shops may have a lot of SKUs in stock and require a powerful retail solution to assist them to manage them. However, all of their SKUs will fall within one or two product categories. The distinction is between yoga trousers and yoga mats and yoga pants and tortilla chips, going back to our earlier analogy.

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Starbucks' previous attempts to include food in its product offerings have met with mediocre results. Currently, only one-third of customers buy food products at Starbucks. How does using vertical integration increase Starbucks' financial risk by buying and operating its own bakery supplier?
a. Demand is predictable.
b. The bakery supplier will begin to take precedence over the development of its beverages.
c. Starbucks can establish market power in the bakery industry.
d. Demand is unpredictable.

Answers

Answer:

d

Explanation:

The correct answer is (d) Demand is unpredictable.

By using vertical integration to buy and operate its own bakery supplier, Starbucks increases its financial risk because demand for food products is unpredictable. Unlike coffee, which has a steady demand, food products can be more sensitive to changes in consumer preferences and trends. This means that if Starbucks invests heavily in its bakery supplier, it may not see a return on its investment if demand for food products declines or shifts towards a different type of cuisine.

Furthermore, by focusing on the development of its own bakery supplier, Starbucks may neglect the development of its core beverages, which could lead to a decline in its coffee business. While establishing market power in the bakery industry may be a potential benefit, it comes with the risk of diverting attention and resources away from Starbucks' core business, which may not be worth it if demand for food products remains low.

All of the following are true about Business Associate Contracts, EXCEPT:
A. Both Covered Entities and Business Associates are required to ensure that a Business Associate Contract is in place in order to be in compliance with HIPAA
B. Business Associates are required to ensure that Business Associate Contacts are in place with any of the Business Associate's subcontractors
C. Covered Entities are required to obtain 'satisfactory assurances' from Business Associates that PHI will be protected as required by HIPAA
D. Business Associates are not required to obtain 'satisfactory assurances' from subcontractors that PHI will be protected as required by HIPAA

Answers

D. Business Associates are not required to obtain 'satisfactory assurances' from subcontractors that PHI will be protected as required by HIPAA is not true.

All of the statements except D are true regarding Business Associate Contracts (BACs) in compliance with HIPAA regulations. Business Associates (BA) and Covered Entities (CE) are required to ensure that a BAC is in place in order to be in compliance with HIPAA (A). BAs are required to ensure that BACs are in place with any of the BA's subcontractors (B). Covered Entities are required to obtain 'satisfactory assurances' from Business Associates that PHI will be protected as required by HIPAA (C). BAs are also required to obtain 'satisfactory assurances' from subcontractors that PHI will be protected as required by HIPAA. It is important for BAs to ensure that subcontractors understand and comply with HIPAA rules to ensure the protection of PHI.

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IN WHAT YEAR DID PRESIDENT GEORGE W BUSH HIGHLIGHT HEALTH INFORMATION TECHONOLOGY (HIT) IN HIS STATE OF THE UNION ADDRESS

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President George W. Bush highlighted the importance of Health Information Technology (HIT) in his 2004 State of the Union address.

He called for the widespread adoption of Electronic Health Records (EHRs) by 2014 and announced the creation of the Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology (ONC) to develop policies and standards to support HIT implementation.

This call to action was seen as a major milestone in the development of healthcare technology in the United States, and it helped to focus attention on the need for improved healthcare delivery and the potential benefits of HIT.

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What is Paid Video Promotion (Paid Media)

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Paid video promotion, also known as paid media, is a marketing strategy that involves paying for video content to be promoted across various digital platforms, including social media, websites, search engines.

This form of advertising is used to increase brand awareness, drive website traffic, generate leads, and ultimately, increase sales.

Paid video promotion can take many forms, including in-stream video ad-s, sponsored content, social media ads, and native advertising. In-stream video ads are commercials that play before or during online video content, while sponsored content is video content created by a brand that is featured on a platform like You-Tube or Face-book.

Paid video promotion can be an effective way to reach a larger audience, increase brand recognition, and generate leads. However, it requires careful planning and execution to ensure that the content resonates with the target audience and meets the brand's marketing objectives.

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Paid video promotion, also known as paid media, refers to a form of online advertising where a video is promoted by paying a fee to a third-party platform or social media channel to boost its visibility and reach a wider audience.

The primary objective of paid video promotion is to increase the number of views, engagement, and conversions for a particular video. The fee paid to the platform or channel depends on various factors such as the duration of the promotion, the target audience, the ad format, and the bidding system used by the platform.

Paid video promotion can take different forms, such as in-stream ads, which are video ads that appear before, during, or after a video that a user intends to watch. It can also take the form of display ads, which are banner-like ads that appear on the sidebar or above/below the video player. In addition, paid video promotion can also include sponsored content, which is when a brand or company pays an influencer or content creator to promote their video to their followers.

Overall, paid video promotion is an effective way to increase the visibility and reach of a video and can be used as part of a broader video marketing strategy to achieve specific business goals.

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an upgraded version of a cnc machine has a first cost of $200,000, an annual operating cost of $60,000, and a salvage value of $50,000 after its 8-year life. at an interest rate of 10% per year, the capitalized cost is closest to

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The capitalized cost of an upgraded version of a CNC machine is the total cost of the machine, including all operating costs such as maintenance, repairs, and replacement parts, divided by the present value of the machine's future benefits.

The capitalized cost for the upgraded CNC machine is calculated by taking the total cost of $200,000, adding the annual operating cost of $60,000 for the 8-year life of the machine, subtracting the salvage value of $50,000 at the end of the 8-year life, and then discounting this sum by the interest rate of 10% per year.

The capitalized cost of the upgraded CNC machine is then closest to $400,000. This capitalized cost represents the total cost of the machine, plus the cost of annual operating costs, discounted to its present value.

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please helpthis is all the information that was providedQuestion 26 20 pts Explain what is the marginal productivity of labour (MP) and explain why MPL is equal to real wage in the perfectly competitive labour market. Please use labour demand and labour su

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Marginal productivity of labor (MP) refers to the additional output produced when one more unit of labor is added while holding all other inputs constant.

In other words, it measures the increase in production when one more worker is hired.

In a perfectly competitive labor market, firms take the wage rate as given and are price takers in the market. This means that firms cannot affect the wage rate and must pay the prevailing wage rate to hire workers. In this market, the marginal productivity of labor (MPL) is equal to the real wage rate.

This is because in a perfectly competitive market, the demand for labor is a derived demand, meaning that the demand for labor depends on the marginal product of labor and the price of output.

On the other hand, if the wage rate is higher than the marginal product of labor, the firm will reduce the number of workers they hire. This is because the cost of labor is higher than the value they add to production, leading to decreased profits for the firm.

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Fontaine Incorporated issued a 10% stock dividend on its $20 par value common stock. On the distribution date, there were there were 12,000 shares of stock issued and 10,000 shares of stock outstanding. The market value of the stock was $25. As a result of the stock dividend, the amount of retained earnings decreased by ______. Multiple choice question. $0

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A stock dividend does not affect the company's assets or liabilities, so it does not directly impact the amount of retained earnings. The Correct option is C

Instead, a stock dividend is a distribution of additional shares of stock to existing shareholders. In this case, Fontaine Incorporated issued a 10% stock dividend, which means that shareholders would receive one additional share for every ten shares they already owned.

As a result, the number of outstanding shares increased from 10,000 to 11,000, but the par value of the stock remained the same at $20 per share. Therefore, the stock dividend did not affect the amount of retained earnings.

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Complete question:

Fontaine Incorporated issued a 10% stock dividend on its $20 par value common stock. On the distribution date, there were 12,000 shares of stock issued and 10,000 shares of stock outstanding. The market value of the stock was $25. What is the effect of the stock dividend on the amount of retained earnings?

A. The amount of retained earnings increased.

B. The amount of retained earnings decreased.

C. The amount of retained earnings remained unchanged.

D. The effect of the stock dividend on the amount of retained earnings cannot be determined from the information given.

A problem exists in an organization only if someone or some group takes on the responsibility of attacking it and if the organization has the ability to solve it.
Select one:
True
False

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Yes, the above statement is true. A problem exists in an organization only if someone or some group takes on the responsibility of attacking it and if the organization has the ability to solve it.

A firm, institution, group, or another type of body made up of one or more people and serving a specific function is referred to as an organization or organization. The word is derived from the Greek word organon, which also refers to an organ and several tools or instruments. An issue is typically thought of as a work, a circumstance, or a person that is challenging to handle or control because of its complexity and opaqueness. In common parlance, an issue is a question put out for resolution or a claim made for investigation or evidence.

Information, whether written or spoken, must be gathered and examined in order to diagnose a condition. If the company is particularly problematic, this data should be gathered more frequently. It can be obtained through employee surveys, performance reviews, and interviews.

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When an issue is identified within an organization, it is important for individuals or groups to take responsibility for addressing the problem.

This involves not only recognizing that the problem exists, but also taking action to find a solution. This may involve gathering information, collaborating with others, and developing strategies to address the issue. However, it is also important for the organization as a whole to have the ability and resources necessary to solve the problem. This may include having the necessary funding, personnel, or technological infrastructure in place to effectively address the issue. Without these resources, it may be difficult or impossible for the organization to effectively address the problem.

Furthermore, in some cases, the organization may not have the willingness or capacity to address the issue. This may occur due to factors such as competing priorities, lack of leadership, or resistance to change. In such cases, it may be necessary for individuals or groups to take action outside of the organization to address the problem.

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Sourness is due to what property of the beer?

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Sourness in beer is primarily due to the presence of organic acids, typically lactic acid and acetic acid.

These acids are produced by bacteria, such as Lactobacillus and Pediococcus, during the fermentation process. Unlike yeast, which converts sugar into alcohol, these bacteria consume sugars and produce acid as a byproduct.

The level of sourness in beer can vary depending on the specific strains of bacteria present, as well as other factors such as the type of malt and hops used in the brewing process. Sour beers have become increasingly popular in recent years, with many breweries specializing in producing a wide range of sour styles, from mildly tart to intensely acidic.

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which of the following is not consistent with the efficient market hypothesis? group of answer choices stock prices should follow a random walk. index funds should typically outperform highly managed funds. news has no effect on stock prices. there is little point in spending many hours studying the business pages looking for undervalued stocks.

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The answer is "news has no effect on stock prices." This statement is not consistent with the efficient market hypothesis, which suggests that all publicly available information is already reflected in stock prices, including news. Therefore, news should have an immediate effect on stock prices, making it inconsistent with the hypothesis.

The other statements are consistent with the efficient market hypothesis. The idea that stock prices should follow a random walk means that future price changes are unpredictable, and current prices reflect all available information. The statement that index funds should typically outperform highly managed funds is consistent with the EMH because highly managed funds generally have higher expenses, which reduces their net returns. Finally, the statement that there is little point in spending many hours studying the business pages looking for undervalued stocks is consistent with the EMH because it suggests that all available information is already reflected in stock prices, making it difficult to find undervalued stocks.

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ProDiscover Basic is an example of a type of software known as a

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ProDiscover Basic is an example of a type of software known as a digital forensic tool.

Digital forensic tools are software applications designed to help investigators collect, analyze, and preserve electronic evidence from digital devices. This includes data from computers, mobile devices, and other digital storage media.

ProDiscover Basic, in particular, is a digital forensic tool that provides a user-friendly interface for analyzing digital data. It is commonly used in law enforcement, legal, and corporate environments to investigate various types of digital crimes, including cyber attacks, fraud, and intellectual property theft.

Other examples of digital forensic tools include EnCase, Forensic Toolkit (FTK), and Autopsy. These tools are essential for digital investigators to examine electronic evidence in a forensically sound manner and present findings in court or other legal proceedings.

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