will give more points if correct

Answer:

75%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y=[tex]\frac{1}{2}x-2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Perpendicular lines have negative reciprocal gradients(slopes) so the slope of your new line would be 1/2. Then you use the point to find the new y-intercept

y=mx+b

2=[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex](8)+b

2=4+b

B=-2

y=[tex]\frac{1}{2}x-2[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the graph at the time given and determine how the line will continue based on its current trajectory;

A. T

B. S

C. 20 minutes

Answer:

x = 14+

Step-by-step explanation:

If 14 + 14 = 28

Then

28 > 27 is true.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  C. triangle MPO is congruent to triangle MNO by SAS

Step-by-step explanation:

Enough information is given in the diagram so that we know ...

  ΔMNO ≅ ΔOPM

by either the SSS or SAS congruence postulates.

What makes statement C false is the fact that the vertices listed are not corresponding vertices.

_____

Additional comment

The wording here is of the form <angle 1> is congruent to <angle 2> by <some triangle congruence postulate>. A triangle congruence postulate can be used to show triangle congruence. Angle congruence must be based on a different claim.

Answer:

x = 11

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the triangles are similar then the ratios of corresponding sides are equal, that is

[tex]\frac{3x+3}{x+7}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{38}{19}[/tex] = 2 ( multiply both sides by x + 7 )

3x + 3 = 2(x + 7)

3x + 3 = 2x + 14 ( subtract 2x from both sides )

x + 3 = 14 ( subtract 3 from both sides )

x = 11

Answer:

10.9

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

Hypotenuse = 12

One leg = 5

We need to find the another leg. Let it is b. We can solve it using Pythagoras theorem as follows :

[tex]H^2=h^2+b^2\\\\b^2=H^2-h^2\\\\b^2=12^2-5^2\\\\b=10.9[/tex]

So, another leg is 10.9.

Answer:

I may not be correct, depending on what you were taught, but it would be...

17/30

Step-by-step explanation:

(2/5×6/6)+(1/6×5/5)

12/30 + 5/30

17/30

keep in mind you don't add the denominators at all ( the numbers at the bottom half of the fraction)

Answer:

Look at the image.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it's 60 degree in my thinking

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this is the answer

Answer:

I think it's somewhere in the 80's or 70's

Step-by-step explanation:

bit you actually need a protractor to figure out the exact measurements

Answer:

6+4+15 = 25 and since there are 6 red marbles the answer is 6/25

Answer:

6 out of 25 chance/ 24%

Step-by-step explanation:

15 + 4 = 19 + 6 = 25

6/25 = 0.24 = 24%

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

It would be X=2 because axis of symmetry is the line passing through X=2.

4 × ( x + 4 ) = 3 × ( 3 + 5 )

4 × ( x + 4 ) = 3 × 8

Divide both sides by 4

x + 4 = 3 × 2

x + 4 = 6

Subtract both sides 4

x = 2

Answer:

its D

Step-by-step explanation:

..............................

180-65

Answer:

The probability that Kelly will place 1st and Andy will place 2nd is 1/90, or 1.11%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since Kelly Slater and Andy Irons are in a surf competition among 10 competitors, to determine, if all surfers are at an equal surfing level, then what is the probability that Kelly will place 1st and Andy will place 2nd, the following calculation must be performed:

1/10 x 1/9 = X

0.1 x 0.11 = X

0.01111 = X

1/90 = 0.011111 = X

Therefore, the probability that Kelly will place 1st and Andy will place 2nd is 1/90, or 1.11%.

Answer:

10 2/7

Step-by-step explanation:

Of means multiply

2/7 *36

72/7

Changing from an improper fraction

70/7 +2/7

10 2/7

Answer:

[tex] \frac{2}{7 } \: of \: \: 36 \\ = \frac{2}{7} \times 36 \\ = \frac{2 \times 36}{7} \\ = \frac{72}{7} \\ = 10 \frac{2}{7} \\ = 10.28[/tex]

✐ The answer in fraction form is 72/7, & in decimal form is 10.28.

ʰᵒᵖᵉ ⁱᵗ ʰᵉˡᵖˢ

# ꧁❣ RainbowSalt2²2² ࿐

Answer:

n - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

(n-1)(n-5) / 2(n+3) ×2(n+3) / (n-5)

Kindly check attached picture for simplification

Answer:

2x+6=0 x-4=0 2x=-6 x=-3 x=4

Answer:

- 3 and 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the answer is 68 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

you would change 5 hours and 30 minutes to 330 minutes and then you would do 374/330 and 330/330 that would be 1.13333333333 and 1 next you would do 1.13333333333 times 60 and 1 times 60 and it would equal to 68 miles in 60 minutes or 1 hour

Answer:

5/12

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability to roll a number<6 = 5/6 (each number has probability of 1/6, and there are 5 numbers < 6)

Probability to toss heads = 1/2

Condition "and" = multiplication of probabilities=5/6*1/2=5/12

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation for finding the perimeter of a rectangle is 2Lx2H

So since the length is 16, you multiply that by 2 to get 32.

Then you subtract 32 from 73 which leaves you with 41, then your equation is left as 2H=41, so you divide 41 by 2 which is 20.5, and that is your height

hope this helped!

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

73/16

16*5=73

Answer:

------------------

-------------------------

hope it helps...

have a great day!!

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

4x = 112

× = 112 ÷ 4

× = 28

Corresponding angles are equal

y = 28

Answer:

A)

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope I helped! Ask me anything if you have any questions! Brainiest plz! Hope you make a 100% and have a nice day! -Amelia♥

The value of tan(11pi/6) is -√3/(3), the correct option is B.

Trigonometric identities are the functions that include trigonometric functions such as sine, cosine, tangents, secant, and, cot.

We are given that;

The trigonometric function= tan(11pi/6)

The value of tan(11pi/6) can be found by using the unit circle or by using trigonometric identities. One way to find it is by using the identity tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) and plugging in 11pi/6 for x.

tan(11pi/6) = sin(11pi/6)/cos(11pi/6)

To find sin(11pi/6) and cos(11pi/6), we can use the reference angle pi/6 and recall that sin(pi/6) = 1/2 and cos(pi/6) = √3/2. Since 11pi/6 is in the fourth quadrant, where sine is negative and cosine is positive, we have:

sin(11pi/6) = -1/2

cos(11pi/6) = √3/2

Plugging these values into the expression for tan(11pi/6), we get:

tan(11pi/6) = (-1/2)/(√3/2)

tan(11pi/6) = -1/(√3)

We can rationalize the denominator by multiplying both numerator and denominator by √3:

tan(11pi/6) = (-1/(√3))(√3)/(√3)

tan(11pi/6) = -√3/(√3)(√3)

tan(11pi/6) = -√3/(√9)

tan(11pi/6) = -√3/(3)

Therefore, by the trigonometry the answer will be -√3/(3).

Learn more about trigonometric;

https://brainly.com/question/21286835

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Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

g = 25

Step-by-step explanation:

Move all terms that do not contain g to the right side of the equation. Do the opposite operation of -8 which would be +8. Add 8 to 17. Check by subtracting 8 from the total.