When the nurse observes secretions that have accumulated in the outer cannula of the patient who has a tracheostomy with a non-disposable inner cannula, the nurse should: suction the outer cannula using strict aseptic technique.
Tracheostomy is the creation of a small opening or hole in front of the neck so that a tube can be inserted through it, in order to help a patient breath. The tube inserted is connected to oxygen supply source and also to the breathing machine called ventilator.
Cannula is a small needle connected to a tube, which is inserted into the veins of a patient, in order to administer some medication or remove any waste fluid. Cannula can also be inserted into the nose and be used in delivering oxygen.
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the healthcare provider prescribes an intermittent infusion of nafcillin (unipen) 800 mg iv for a pediatric client. the drug is dispensed in a concentration of 250 mg/ml, and the recommended infusion concentration is 40 mg/ml. when adding the prescribed dose to the volume control device, how many ml of iv solution should the nurse add to dilute? (enter numeric value only. if rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)
First, determine how many milliliters of medication are required to provide 800 mg of nafcillin. Next, using equivalent fractions, calculate the recommended concentration by dividing the prescribed dose (800 mg) by the dose on hand (250 mg/ml). 800 mg/X = 40 mg/1 ml40X = 800 = 20 ml (total volume at recommended concentration)20 ml (total volume) minus the 3.2 ml (800 mg dose) equals an additional 16.8 ml of fluid to be added to the volume control device to achieve the recommended concentration
The injection of nafcillin is used to treat infections caused by specific types of bacteria. Nafcillin injection belongs to the penicillin class of medications. It works by destroying bacteria. Colds, flu, and other viral infections will not respond to antibiotics such as nafcillin injection.
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according to the mediterranean diet pyramid, how often should one eat fish and seafood? a. once a week b. never c. only once a month d. at least twice a week e. no more than a few times a month
According to the Mediterranean diet pyramid, one should eat fish and seafood :
d. twice a week
Oldways created the Mediterranean Diet Pyramid in 1993. It was in partnership with the Harvard School of Public Health and the WHO. It was given as a healthier alternative to the USDA's original food pyramid.
Fruits, vegetables, grains, olive oil, beans, nuts, legumes & seeds, herbs form the base of the Mediterranean pyramid.
Mediterranean diet pyramid describes the traditional diet and lifestyle of countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea and it can be seen as a guideline for following a Mediterranean diet.
Along it is non-restrictive and easy to follow, Mediterranean diet has shown to promote heart health, manage weight and delay neurodegenerative disorders. Although Mediterranean diet pyramid was created in the 1990s, it aligns with the diet's current healthy eating principles.
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a patient recently experienced muscle atrophy and noticed she did not have pain when she cut herself on a piece of glass. the provider decides to obtain a needle biopsy of the spinal cord under ultrasound guidance in the outpatient setting. the biopsy results come back as syringomyelia. what cpt® and icd-10-cm codes are reported for the biopsy procedure?
In the condition known as syringomyelia, a fluid-filled cyst inside the spinal cord known as a syrinx develops. You can find code 62269 by searching for Biopsy/Spinal Cord/Percutaneous in the CPT® Index.
The nerve fibres that transmit information to the brain and from the brain to the rest of the body can become compressed and injured when the syrinx grows larger over time causing Syringomyelia. Instructional remark for Biopsy code 62269 states to refer to 76942, 77002, and 77012 for radiological supervision and interpretation. You can separately bill for ultrasound advice for needle placement (76942) in Biopsy. For the expert services, modifier 26 is added. Syringomyelia in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index, which points you toward code G95.0. Code selection is confirmed through tabular list verification.
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why is the percent daily value for protein omitted from the nutrition facts food label? multiple select question. it would be too confusing for the consumer. most people do not know or care about their protein intake. protein is not a public health concern for the majority of people. it would be necessary to know the protein quality of a food which is expensive to determine.
percent daily value for protein is omitted from the nutrition facts food label because Protein deficiency is not a public health concern in the United States, so it is not required to be present in food.
The nutrients that should be consumed or not be consumed in excess of the Daily Values are represented by reference amounts in grams, milligrams, or micrograms. The %DV indicates the amount of a nutrient in a single serving to the total daily calorie intake. You can tell if a serving of food contains a lot or not enough of a particular nutrient using the %DV.
In light of the fact that protein deficiency is not a public health issue in the United States, it is not necessary for food to contain it. It would be unnecessary to Know a food's protein quality, which is expensive to determine.
Vitamin D, calcium, iron, and potassium DVs must be listed on labels; Vitamins A and C no longer need to be taken. Vitamin D, fiber, and sodium's percentage of the daily value were updated. Labels must specify the grams and percentage of the Daily Value of "added sugars."
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what type of resistance training scheme requires the completion of two exercises back-to-back followed by a short rest?
Resistance training scheme they requires the completion of two exercises back to back followed by a short rest is called superset.
A Short Rest is a stretch of Downtime that lasts at least an hour and is spent doing nothing more demanding than eating, drinking, reading, and attending to wounds.
A character's maximum number of Hit Dice, which is equal to the character's level, can be used at the conclusion of a Short Rest. The player rolls a die and applies the character's Constitution modifier to it after each Hit Die is used in this manner. The amount of Hit Points lost is recovered by the character. Each time a die roll is made, the player has the option of spending an extra Hit Die. Upon completing a Long Rest, as detailed below, a character recovers some wasted Hit Dice.
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eleven-year-old tommy eats large amounts of food and finds eating very enjoyable. he seems to have very little control over his appetite. his doctor suspects that tommy has a shortage of the hormone:
Eats large amounts of food, finds eating very enjoyable, and very little control over the appetite is symptoms of leptin deficiency.
What is leptin?Leptin is an appetite suppressant hormone produced naturally by our bodies. This hormone is produced by adipose or fat cells, so the levels are proportional to the amount of fat in the body. When body fat levels increase, the amount of leptin produced will also increase, this will suppress appetite. Meanwhile, as fat levels drop, leptin levels drop, and appetite suppression is removed, signaling the body "it's time to eat".
Apart from being an appetite suppressant, the hormone leptin also plays a role in many bodily functions, including fertility, immunity, and brain function. It can play a role in immune and inflammatory responses, the onset of puberty, bone formation, and wound healing.
Leptin works as a control tool that can prevent hunger or overeating. Leptin is carried by the bloodstream to the brain, where it sends a "full" signal to the hypothalamus, the part of the brain that controls when and how much to eat.
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The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with hypertension and is treated with combination therapy, aliskiren and enalapril. Which is the priority nursing action?.
Aliskiren was added to enalapril in individuals with chronic heart failure, however there was no improvement in the side effects in hypertension. In comparison to enalapril, noninferiority was not demonstrated for aliskiren.
Antihypertensive medications like enalapril have varying effects on blood pressure regulation, so for a synergistic effect, these medications are typically combined. Ninety percent of hypertension patients have an unknown underlying etiology. As a result, the primary function of antihypertensive medications such as enalapril is to change the body's regulatory systems (such as the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and baroreceptors) in order to maintain normal blood pressure. Enalapril at a dose of 5 or 10 mg twice daily for 2336 patients, aliskiren at a dose of 300 mg once daily for 2340 patients, or both therapies for 2340 patients of hypertension, to one of three groups (combination therapy). Heart failure hospitalization or death from cardiovascular causes made up the majority of the composite outcome in hypertension.
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what diagnosis would you give to an ex-29-week preemie who has delayed acquisition of developmental milestones and hypertonia and spasticity on exam?
The diagnosis which give to an ex-29-week preemie who has delayed acquisition of developmental milestones and hypertonia and spasticity on exam is cp.
What is hypertonia?In hypertonia, the muscles are too tight, making it difficult or impossible to move the arms or legs, for example. Signals that tell the muscle to contract are sent from the brain to the nerves and control muscular tone. Depending on the underlying cause and how it affects their life, each person's treatment and prognosis will be different.
Pharmacologics and treatment may be able to treat hypotonia. However, the underlying issues are frequently chronic. This can happen for a variety of reasons, such as a head injury, stroke, brain tumor, toxic chemicals that impact the brain, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease, or neurodevelopmental defects like cerebral palsy.
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a 35-year-old has been killed as a result of a terrorist attack. what should the nurse advise the friends and relatives of the victim to do during the early stages of the recovery process? select all that apply.
Nurse should support their family, friends other and community is generally helpful after such event.
What impact does a nurse's disposition have on a patient?A health system's capacity to deliver high-quality treatment and enhance patient outcomes may be seriously hampered by the negative attitudes of its nurses toward their patients. To make sure that patient care is not jeopardized, it is advised that all hospitals conduct routine assessments of nurses' attitudes.
Recieved support from family, friends, other survivors and community is generally helpful after such event. Reacreation and participation in activities help average stress reaction . Speaking out probably may or may not helpful to recover process .
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gabriel ran hard against a wall until he dislocated his shoulder, bit his lip until it bled, tore his clothing in various areas, and rolled in the dirt. he then went to the er and told them he was attacked and beaten. he complained of a massive headache, abdominal pain, and shoulder pain. gabriel meets the criteria for .
Gabriel satisfies the requirements for factitious disorder imposed on self, which is when a person runs hard against a wall till they dislocate their shoulder, bit their lip until it bleeds.
He then went to the emergency room and informed them of the attack and beating. He reported having a terrible headache, stomach pain, and shoulder pain. Mental and bodily symptoms of a factitious disorder: Both physical and mental sickness symptoms are manifested in those who have this ailment. Not otherwise specified factitious disorder A disorder of this kind is referred to as factitious disorder by proxy.
When a bone pops out of a joint, it causes a dislocation. Since a dislocation occurs when a bone is no longer in its proper place.
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an older resident at a long-term care facility has been placed on oxygen via a partial rebreather mask due to covid-19. while helping the resident prepare for sleep, the nurse notices the mask is no longer fitting properly. which question should the nurse prioritize?
When a nurse is attending to an older resident and notices that the mask is no longer fitting properly, the nurse should prioritize such questions as "Is your mask causing discomfort?"
What is a partial rebreather mask?In medical, a non-rebreather mask is a tool that helps administer oxygen therapy. A NRB needs the patient to be able to breathe on their own, but in contrast to a low-flow nasal cannula, the NRB enables the delivery of higher oxygen concentrations.
A FiO2 of between 0.6 and 0.8 is delivered via a partial rebreathing mask. To guarantee the delivery of the greatest FiO2 with sufficient CO2 evacuation, the reservoir bag must be inflated the entire time. Fresh gas flows of at least 8 L/min must be present for this. In addition to the partial rebreathing valves, non-rebreathing masks contain extra valves.
A partial rebreather mask is a medical tool that a healthcare professional uses to give oxygen to a patient.
The is device is used in the treatment of diseases that damage the respiratory system, including tuberculosis, lung cancer, cystic fibrosis, emphysema, mesothelioma, and covid-19 asthma.
Making ensuring the partial rebreather mask is properly fitted to the patient is one of the nurse's duties when using one.
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a nurse receives orders from the physician to mix a client's insulin in a syringe with two other medications. what is the recommended guideline in this situation?
Since the nurse receives orders from the physician to mix a client's insulin in a syringe with two other medications. the recommended guideline in this situation is option C: Call the pharmacist to determine compatibility of the drugs.
What Is a Pharmacist?Pharmacists is a person that is often known as a chemists, or a medical specialists who create, prepare, as well as store, and distribute pharmaceuticals as well as offer guidance and advise on how to utilize medications to get the most benefit from them, experience the fewest adverse effects, and prevent drug interactions.
Therefore, note that the putting of three medications together is not advised, but if it is necessary, see a pharmacist rather than a doctor to ascertain how the medications are able to work together, the similarity of their pH values, and the potential presence of preservatives in each medication. Nurses should have access to a drug compatibility table while making any form of medication.
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A nurse receives orders from the physician to mix a client's insulin in a syringe with two other medications. What is the recommended guideline in this situation?
-It cannot be done because it is not possible to mix more than two medications in one syringe.
- Call the physician to determine the necessity of mixing the three drugs or to see if they are compatible.
- Call the pharmacist to determine compatibility of the drugs.
-Check with the nursing team before mixing and administering the drugs.
hypothyroidism patients simply take supplemental thyroid hormone, however hypoparathyroidism patients do not simply take supplemental pth. what is a pharmacokinetic reason for this?
The PTH formulation generally are PTH(1-84) ,the full length molecule and other is PTH(1-34), a teriparatide which is shorter in length . These are not used in the treatment of hypoparathyroidism because of their pharmacokinetic profile. These molecules are rapidly absorbed and they don't work effectively .
Hypoparathyroidism occurs when the parathyroid glands don't produce enough parathyroid hormone. Parathyroid hormone controls the levels of calcium and phosphorus, so too little parathyroid hormone causes abnormal levels of Calcium.
Parathyroid hormone injection is used along with calcium and vitamin D to treat low levels of calcium in the blood in people with certain types of hypoparathyroidism.
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a client who experienced shock is now nonresponsive and having cardiac dysrhythmias. the client is being mechanically ventilated, receiving medications to maintain renal perfusion, and is not responding to treatment. in this stage, it is most important for the nurse to
A client who experienced shock is now nonresponsive and having cardiac dysrhythmias. the client is being mechanically ventilated, receiving medications to maintain renal perfusion, and is not responding to treatment. in this stage, it is most important for the nurse to encourage the family to touch and talk to the client.
What is cardiac dysrhythmias?Arrhythmia (also called arrhythmia) is an abnormal or irregular heartbeat. An abnormal heart rate means that your heart rate is either too fast (usually more than 100 beats per minute) or too slow (usually less than 60 beats per minute). On the other hand, an irregular heartbeat means that the rhythm of your heart is disturbed in some way. For example, the electrical signal that controls the heartbeat can be interrupted by scar tissue in the heart. Or the electrical signal may start too early and make your heart feel like it's skipping a beat. In this case, you will immediately notice a stronger pulse after a short pause.
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A single unit of whole blood contains 450mls of blood and 50mls of an anticoagulant. The primary components of whole blood are erythrocytes, platelets and plasma. When packed red blood cells are well preserved, they can be stored for up to………. before it is discarded
1 point
42 days at 4 degree Celsius
30 days at 2 degree Celsius
50 days at 2 degree Celsius
When packed red blood cells are properly preserved, they can be kept at 4 degrees Celsius for up to 42 days before being thrown away.
Briefing:Until they are used, PRBCs are kept in a blood bank refrigerated at a temperature of 1-6°C. The unit's expiration date is printed on it. The shelf life is 42 days from the day of collection (s).
What are red blood cells?The oxygen-carrying blood cell. Haemoglobin is found in red blood cells, and it is this substance that allows red blood cells to transport oxygen (and carbon dioxide). In addition to being a transport molecule, hemoglobin is also a pigment. It imparts the red color to the cell (and name).
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the mother of a 6-month-old child reports she has been hearing so much about autism spectrum disorder. she questions if this is something that can be tested for. what response by the nurse is appropriate?
Nurse is responded as "Screening is recommended between 18 and 24 months or when concerns are identified."
At 18 and 24 months of age, or whenever concerns about autism spectrum disorder are raised, the American Academy of Pediatrics advises doing a screening test for autism using a standardized developmental instrument. The test could be done even though the child is younger than the typical screening age if there are any found concerns.
A pediatrician typically does an autism screening during a regular well-child checkup. Inquiries regarding the child's actions at home and when interacting with other kids on the playground may be asked by the doctor, who may also observe the child. Identification of typical early indications of autism is the goal of an autism screening. Although not always present, the following are early indications of autism.
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a nurse is caring for a client who weighs 325 pounds. the client's spouse reports that the client snores loudly and stops breathing frequently when sleeping. for which possibly related symptom will the nurse assess?
The nurse will assess whether the client snores loudly and frequently stops breathing while sleeping for morning headaches.
A variety of sleep or health disorders, as well as personal habits, can cause you to wake up with a headache. Common causes include sleep apnea, migraines, and a lack of sleep. Teeth grinding, alcohol use, and certain medications, on the other hand, can cause you to wake up with a headache. Headache disorders, which are characterized by recurrent headaches, are among the most common nervous system disorders. Headache is a painful and incapacitating feature of a few primary headache disorders, including migraine, tension-type headache, and cluster headache.
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a patient with a known gastric ulcer is breought into the emergencvy department with a decreased level of conciousness, pallor, hypotension, tachycardia, and a rigid abdomen. in waht order would the nruse provide care for this patient
Hypovolemic shock is the kind of shock that a patient with a known history of stomach ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding and a recent history of passing a lot of blood will exhibit.
As he is tachycardic and hypotensive, the patient is now in the final stages of shock (significant as mechanisms to maintain a normal blood pressure is failing at this point).
Omeprazole in combination with metronidazole, clarithromycin, and metronidazole should be the patient's first line of treatment. For the treatment of Helicobacter pylori infection, the combination of metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin is effective, and even in the presence of metronidazole-resistant strains, this regimen is still quite successful.
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Jake wanted to improve his rock-climbing abilities so he decided to strengthen his forearms with wrist curls. Which principle of physical activity does this represent?.
Aerobic is the principle of physical activity does this represent with wrist curls
Because low-intensity aerobic activities require aerobic metabolism intervention because their energy processes depend on oxygen, they will aid jake in developing more flexibility.
On the other hand, aerobics entails prolonged motions that allow muscles to stretch more while continually contracting. Other options, which emphasise strength, are also ineffective for increasing flexibility.
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after reviewing the drugs that may interfere with warfarin, the students indicate that they understand the material when they identify what as requiring a dosage increase in the warfarin?
When the students identify phenytoin as requiring a warfarin dosage increase after reviewing the drugs that may interact with warfarin, they demonstrate that they understand the material.
Anticoagulant medications, such as warfarin, are frequently prescribed for people who have had a blood clot-related condition, such as a stroke. a coronary artery disease Deep vein thrombosis is a blood clot that forms in a deep vein in the body, typically in the leg. Oral anticoagulants are high-risk medications with the potential to cause bleeding. Warfarin has been used for over 70 years, and while it has been shown to increase the risk of bleeding, its effects can be reversed with vitamin K. Descriptions.
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when changing an ostomy pouch, which action reduces the client's risk for injury? select one: a. measuring output when emptying the contents of the pouch. b. promoting the client's autonomy with bowel elimination care. c. maintaining the client's bowel elimination function. d. protecting the skin from irritation caused by fecal drainage.
When changing an ostomy pouch an action which reduces the client's risk for injury is protecting the skin from irritation caused by fecal drainage.
One way to protect the skin from irritation caused by fecal drainage is to use a barrier cream. Barrier creams create a barrier between the skin and the stool, which can help to reduce irritation.
Another way to protect the skin is to make sure that the ostomy pouch is changed regularly. This will help to reduce the amount of time that the skin is exposed to stool.Hence by using a barrier cream or ointment around the stoma, as well as ensuring that the skin is clean and dry before attaching the new pouch infection can be avoided. It is also important to avoid over-tightening the pouch, as this can cause skin irritation.
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a nurse teaches a client with obesity about the various medication options for the treatment of obesity. which medication will the nurse include when teaching the client about the class of medications that stimulate noradrenergic receptors?
Norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter that phentermine interacts with in the brain and spinal cord: increases vigilance, arousal, and focus. helps maintain blood pressure during stress by constricting blood arteries. affects your mood, memory, and sleep-wake cycle.
An amphetamine-like prescription drug called phentermine (Adipex-P, Lomaira) is used to decrease appetite. By reducing your appetite or prolonging your feeling of fullness, it can aid in weight loss. For weight loss, phentermine and topiramate are also offered (Qsymia). A narcotic is not phentermine. Narcotics are used to treat moderate to severe pain because they work on opioid receptors. It is a stimulant too. It increases the release of norepinephrine and epinephrine while decreasing hunger.
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the nurse is discussing cardiac hemodynamics with a nursing student. the nurse explains preload to the student and then asks the student what nursing interventions might cause increased preload. which response by the student indicates understanding?
the nurse is conducting a home visit with a school-age child with a physical disability. what behaviors by the child alert the nurse to overprotective parenting?
Answer:
Stamp's feet and try to get away from the nursethe nurse is caring for a client with worsening respiratory acidosis. which of these interventions does the nurse anticipate if the client's condition continues to deteriorate? resolution of the underlying emotional cause mechanical ventilation reducing the amount of supplemental oxygen introduction of large muscle exercise
A patient with deteriorating respiratory acidosis requires mechanical ventilation. Resolution of the emotional issue at hand, reduction of oxygen intake, and introduction for the muscles exercise
The term mechanical ventilation, aided ventilation, or intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) refers to the use of a ventilator to partially or completely supply artificial ventilation. Muscles exercise With the primary objective of assisting in the delivery of oxygen and removal of carbon dioxide, mechanical ventilation moves air into and out of the lungs.
Mechanical ventilation is frequently needed in patients who are close to respiratory failure in order to improve gas exchange. Muscles exercise Although this type of assisted breathing is necessary for survival, it causes diaphragm weakening and muscle fibre atrophy when used frequently. Strong evidence exists that mechanical ventilation.
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a physician has ordered that a client with suspected lung cancer undergo magnetic resonance imaging (mri). the nurse explains the benefits of this study to the client. what is the reason the client with suspected lung cancer would undergo magnetic resonance imaging (mri)?
A physician has ordered that a client with suspected lung cancer undergo magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), so the nurse explains the benefits of this study to the client and the reason which the client with suspected lung cancer would undergo magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is that MRI can view soft tissues and can help stage cancers.
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) uses magnetic fields and radio frequency signals to provide an in depth diagnostic image. MRI will visualize soft tissues, characterize nodules, and facilitate stage carcinomas. the opposite choices describe totally different studies
An identification of lung cancer, however, needs a diagnostic assay. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) could also be a part of the analysis for a respiratory organ mass. It's particularly helpful in evaluating the brain and bones, however it doesn't visualize the respiratory organ well.
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approximately 26% of people have rh negative blood. we will check the blood tests of the next 12 people to enter an emergency clinic with injuries that may require transfusion. assume no two belong to the same family.
Approximately 26% of people have rh negative blood the blood tests of the next 12 people to enter an emergency clinic with injuries that may require transfusion is Std dev = 1.5195
P(X=n |N,p) = NCn*(p^n)*(1-p)^(N-n)
Expected number = n*p = 12 * 0.26 = 3.12Standard deviation = sqrt(npq) = sqrt(12*(0.26*(1-0.26)) = 1.52
A blood transfusion is a common medical operation in which you receive donated negative blood through a tiny tube inserted into a vein in your arm.
This potentially life-saving operation can assist in replacing blood that has been lost as a result of surgery or an injury. A negative blood transfusion may also be beneficial if an infection prevents your body from producing enough blood or some of the components of your blood.
In most cases, blood transfusions go smoothly. If issues do arise, they are frequently minor.
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What research question should I be asking about s lack of staff and how it impacts a situation?
If a topic is relevant, researchable, and significant, it is crucial to consider the underlying issues of the study effort.
How to formulate a research question:
Pick a fascinating general subject. The majority of professional researchers concentrate on subjects that they are really curious about.Perform some preliminary study on the broad subject.Think about your audience.Start posing inquiries.Analyze your query.The following qualities should characterize a solid research problem: It ought to fill a knowledge gap. It needs to be substantial enough to add to the body of the prior study. It ought to inspire more study.
The following traits are indicative of a solid research problem: It should fill in a knowledge gap. It ought to be important enough to add to the amount of knowledge already in existence. It ought to inspire more investigation.
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a 3-year-old child of vietnamese descent with a fever, decreased urine output, wheezing, and coughing is brought to the emergency department. on examination, the nurse discovers red, round, welt-like lesions on the child's upper back and chest. which question should the nurse ask next?
A 3-year-old child of Vietnamese descent with a fever, decreased urine output, wheezing, and coughing is brought to the emergency department and on examination, the nurse discovers red, round, welt-like lesions on the child's upper back and chest and the question which the nurse should ask next is about cultural background.
Many Vietnamese perform coining, a cultural apply within which a coin is repeatedly rubbed lengthwise on the oiled skin to disembarrass the body of a unwellness. Coining will manufacture weltlike lesions on the child’s back or chest, and youngsters subjected to the apply are usually thought to own been abused. Interviewing the family and assessing its cultural background facilitate distinguish between abuse and culture apply.
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a person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint. a person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint. true false
It is true that a person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.
A sprain is the injury to the ligaments around a joint. Ligaments square measure sturdy, versatile fibers that hold bones along. once a ligament is stretched too way or tears, the joint can become painful and swell.
A sprained ankle is the stretching or tearing of mortise joint ligaments, that support the joint by connecting bones to every different. A sprain happens once your mortise joint is forced to maneuver out of its traditional position, which may cause one or additional of the ankle's ligaments to stretch, part tear or tear utterly.
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