Fear of the unknown is believed to be the most distressing fear a preoperative client is likely to experience.
What is preoperative anxiety?Preoperative anxiety is the term for the psychological tension that preoperative events cause in surgical candidates, leading to stress both before and after surgery. Both children and adults may experience negative psychological and physical impacts from this disorder.Preoperative anxiety and fear can be reduced, for instance, through automated frequent communication outlining how hospitals have maintained safety during these uncertain times, giving patients information on why it is safe to attend the procedure, what happens before and after the procedure, or detailed explanations of what will happen before and after the procedure.Anxiety is crucial because it can influence every element of anaesthesia, including the preoperative visit, induction, perioperative, and recovery periods [2, 3].Learn more about preoperative anxiety refer to :
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the nurse is screening a client for genetic counseling. what musculoskeletal conditions does the nurse know to have a genetic influence? select all that apply.
what musculoskeletal conditions does the nurse know to have a genetic influence
A) explaining basic concepts of probability and disorder susceptibility
B)ensuring complete informed consent to facilitate decisions about genetic testing
D) knowing basic genetic terminology and inheritance patterns
The musculoskeletal system: what is it? Your bones, cartilage, ligaments, tendons, and connective tissues all make up your musculoskeletal system. Your muscles and other soft tissues are supported by your bones. They assist you in moving, support the weight of your body, and keep your posture.What musculoskeletal issues are typical?
Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, gout, spondyloarthritis, osteoporosis, osteopenia and related fragility fractures, traumatic fractures, and sarcopenia are only a few examples of disorders that affect the musculoskeletal system.
the full question was
A nurse is providing genetic counseling to a pregnant client. Which are nursing responsibilities related to counseling the client? Select all that apply.
a. explaining basic concepts of probability and disorder susceptibility
b. ensuring complete informed consent to facilitate decisions about genetic testing
c. instructing the client on the appropriate decision to be taken
d. knowing basic genetic terminology and inheritance patterns
e. avoiding explanation of ethical or legal issues and concentrating on genetic issues
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a 50-year-old man reports severe pain to both upper abdominal quadrants. he states that the pain moves to his back and that he is nauseated and has been running a fever. his wife advises that he does not take care of himself and that he drinks a lot of alcohol. what should you suspect?
Answer:
pancreatitis
Explanation:
When digestion enzymes that are remaining in the pancreas get activated, it irritates the pancreatic cells and results in inflammation. Acute pancreatitis can damage the pancreatic over time, which can result in chronic pancreatitis.
a child weighing 75 lbs. (34.1 kg) is admitted to the unit with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. the child has been started on an iv of d5 ns at 100 ml per hour and iv antibiotic therapy has been initiated. which assessment finding would need to be reported immediately to the healthcare provider?
28 mL per hour of urinary output, LOC change,130 mEq/L of sodium present. A child's urine output be greater than 1 mL/kg/hr. Toddler, who weighs 34.1 kg, has produce at least 34 mL of fluid every hour.
How much urine is usually produced during urinating?If you drink roughly 2 liters of water each day, your urine output should be between 800 and 2,000 milliliters per day. However, other laboratories might employ a little bit of variation in their values. Your doctor will define the significance of your specific numbers.
What is urine production?They are referring to your urine output. Oliguria is defined as having little or no urine production, whereas anuria is the opposite. Overly producing urine is referred to as polyuria.
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the nursing student correctly identifies the transmitter in the cholinergic neuropathways that appears insufficient in clients with alzheimer's disease is which?
When someone initially starts taking these medications, potential side effects are more likely, although they frequently Acetylcholine over time.
Diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, muscular cramps, reduced blood pressure, sleeplessness, exhaustion, and appetite loss are the adverse effects that are most likely to occur. Neurotransmitters are the substances that nerve cells in the brain release to communicate with one another. The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is crucial for memory. Acetylcholine levels in the brain of those who have Alzheimer's disease are low. Acetylcholine is broken down in the brain by cholinesterases. If their activity is reduced, there will be more acetylcholine accessible for brain cell communication.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has global aphasia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Speak to the client about one idea at a time
B. Ask the client to multi-task
C. Limit questions to yes and no answers
D. Focus on a single form of communication
The correct answer from the task given above about an action which a nurse should take about a patient with global aphasia is:
Speak to the client about one idea at a time.
The correct answer choice is option a.
What is meant by global aphasia?Global aphasia simply refers to a health condition in which an individual is suffering from the ability to have comprehensive conversation due to a language impairment . Clients like needs to be understood and to be dealth with by speaking to them one by one so they won't be confused during a particular conversation.
In conclusion, we can now therefore deduce from the explanation given above that this condition needs to be taken care of patiently.
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TRUE/FALSE. 17. once approved, an emergency operations plan should never be revised, since this would create potential confusion in responding agencies.
The answer is False, hence Once approved, an Emergency Operations Plan should be revised since this would create potential confusion in responding agencies.
An emergency is a situation that necessitates quick action because it endangers the environment, people, or property. The majority of emergencies necessitate an urgent response in order to prevent the sickness from getting worse, even if there are a few unique cases when mitigation may not be possible and organizations may only be able to provide palliative care after an emergency. Many less dangerous circumstances require the observer to determine if they constitute an emergency (or affected party). This is not always the case, even in circumstances where some emergencies are obvious (like a natural disaster that poses a serious threat to many people).
The complete question is:
Once approved, an Emergency Operations Plan should never be revised since this would create potential confusion in responding agencies.
Possible Answers:
a) True
b) False
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the nurse is assessing learning needs for a patient who has coronary artery disease. the nurse finds that the patient has recently made dietary changes to decrease fat intake and has stopped smoking. which is the best initial response by the nurse?
The nurse is assessing learning needs for a patient who has coronary artery disease and after seeing his progess the best initial response by the nurse will be you did a great job of making dietary changes and giving up smoking. For the health of your heart, this is crucial.
Cardiovascular Disease Plaque accumulation in the walls of the arteries supplying blood to the heart is what causes coronary artery disease (called coronary arteries). Deposits of cholesterol make form plaque. Over time, plaque formation causes the interior of the arteries to narrow.
Although there is no cure for coronary artery disease (CAD), it is treatable. This means that after receiving a CAD diagnosis, you must adjust to living with the condition for the remainder of your life. You can live a full life while having CAD by reducing your risk factors and letting go of your concerns.
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a client is diagnosed with colon cancer, located in the lower third of the rectum. what does the nurse understand will be the surgical treatment option for this client?
The nurse understand will be the surgical treatment option for this client is surgery to take away the phase of the colon with the most cancers (partial colectomy) together with close by lymph nodes, observed with the aid of using adjuvant chemo is the same old remedy for this stage.
The health practitioner takes out the a part of the colon with the most cancers and a small section of ordinary colon on both side. Usually, approximately one-fourth to one-1/3 of the colon is removed, relying on the dimensions and area of the most cancers.
The last sections of colon are then reattached.Surgery. The remedy of desire for colon most cancers is surgical resection, which includes getting rid of the most cancers via surgery. Surgery is achieved to take away the most cancers absolutely and reconstruct the bowel, if possible, so your postoperative bowel characteristic is ordinary or close to ordinary.
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the nurse is caring for a client with low back pain. which education about body mechanics will the nurse provide the client? select all that apply.
By using proper body mechanics when walking, bending, lifting , and performing other daily activities, can prevent injuries and muscle strain. Body mechanics can be compared to posture in motion.
Determining proper body alignment?You can quickly determine if your body is in proper alignment by watching how you walk. Simply examine how your feet are placed while you move about your house. Your foot's line of advancement should, under ideal circumstances, make an angle of 4–7 degrees with a line drawn from the heel's center to your second toe.
Which four body mechanics principles are there?Posture, Base of support and center of gravity, muscle groups, and lifting method are the four elements of body mechanics.
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most people have heard of an ob-gyn doctor, and most people know that this is a doctor who specializes in women's health. but what does this abbreviation mean exactly? choose the answer that has both words spelled correctly and both definitions correct.
An obstetrician focuses on pregnancy and delivery, whereas a gynecologist handles conditions specific to women's health.
A doctor who specializes in the reproductive systems, pregnancy, and delivery of women is called an obstetrician. Even though other medical professionals are competent to deliver babies, many women still visit an obstetrician, sometimes referred to as an OB/GYN. An obstetrician can look after you and give follow-up care including yearly Pap screenings for years following your pregnancy.
After graduating from medical school, trainees in obstetrics and gynecology have successfully completed a four-year residency program. They get instruction in prenatal health, pregnancy, labor and delivery, postpartum health concerns, genetics, and genetic counseling. A doctor who has completed residency training and passed difficult written and oral exams is an OB who has attained board certification.
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the nurse is assisting a client plan a therapeutic diet high in vitamin c to help with healing. which excellent sources of vitamin c would the nurse include in the plan? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Strawberries, oranges, and broccoli. Vitamin C is an antioxidant that helps protect your cells from the impacts of free radicals, which are chemicals formed when your body digests food.
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a cofactor for collagen formation and a major antioxidant that is rapidly depleted upon injury. In human/murine sepsis, parenteral Vit C treatment reduces proinflammatory responses while increasing antiinflammatory and proresolution effects. Vitamin C promotes a healthy immune system and may assist to reduce the immune function dip that occurs immediately after exercise. Athletes and fitness advocates who have personal or professional experience with this supplement may claim benefits.
The complete question is:
the nurse is assisting a client plan a therapeutic diet high in vitamin c to help with healing. which excellent sources of vitamin c would the nurse include in the plan? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Orange
Apple
Strawberries
Broccoli
Cabbage
Grapes
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label the superficial forearm muscles and aponeurosis (anterior view) by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.
The forearm muscles located in the superficial layer of the anterior compartment include the brachioradialis, flexor carpi radialis, pronator teres, and palmaris longus.
What purpose does an aponeurosis serve?
Aponeuroses, which are extensions of the external tendons on the surface of pennate muscles, serve as the insertion points for muscular fascicles and may be able to control the rotation of the fascicles and the dynamic gearing that occurs when the muscles contract.
What distinguishes an aponeurosis from a tendon?
A tendon looks extremely different from an aponeurosis. There are layers of tiny, thin sheaths that make up an aponeurosis. Tendons, on the other hand, resemble tough ropes. An aponeurosis' resilience comes from the fact that it is predominantly composed of bundles of collagen fibers that are dispersed in predictable parallel patterns
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the nurse is assessing pain of an 8-year-old who is alert and cooperative. what is the appropriate pain scale to use?
The nurse should use a Visual Analogue scale for pain assessment in an 8-year-old alert and cooperative child.
A wide concept, pain assessment involves clinical judgment based on observation of the kind, importance, and setting of the person's pain experience. It can be difficult to evaluate pediatric pain, especially in children who are pre-verbal and have developmental disabilities. The self-report of pain is thus replaced with physiological and behavioral methods. However, there is a chance of undertreating pain in kids with developmental difficulties and false assumptions can happen. To improve pain assessment in young kids, it's critical to pay attention to behavioral indicators mentioned by parents and other caregivers. Due to the subjectivity and complexity of pain, assessing it in infants and children can be difficult. restricted vocabulary, comprehension, and contextually articulated pain perception; dependence on others to evaluate pain. It might be challenging for some kids to tell the difference between pain, worry, and discomfort.
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to minimize the risk of foodborne bacterial infections in a cancer client who has received a hematopoietic stem cell transplant, the nurse would tell the client to:
Cook all meats, poultry, and eggs until they are well done ,to minimize the risk of foodborne bacterial infections in a cancer client who has received a hematopoietic stem cell transplant.
In hematopoietic cell transplantation, the patient receives extremely high doses of chemotherapy or radiation therapy, killing cancer cells and obliterating all normal cells growing in the bone marrow, including the vital hematopoietic stem cells. Bacterial foodborne infections happen when bacterium-contaminated food is consumed, and the bacteria foodborne infections then continue to multiply in the intestines, causing an infection that results in disease.
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a client is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of levothyroxine. when assessing this client, what adverse effects would the nurse expect to find?
Nervousness and tachycardia adverse effects would the nurse expect to find, a client is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of levothyroxine. when assessing this client
A heartbeat that exceeds 100 beats per minute is referred to as tachycardia in medicine. Tachycardia can result from a variety of different cardiac rhythm disorders (arrhythmias). Not always is a rapid heartbeat cause for alarm. As an illustration, the heart rate frequently increases during exercise or in reaction to stress. VT, or ventricular tachycardia, is a rapid, abnormal heartbeat (arrhythmia). It begins in the ventricles, the lowest chambers of your heart. A VT is characterised by three or more consecutive heartbeats that occur at a rate of greater than 100 per minute. VT can become life-threatening if it lasts for longer than a few seconds at a time.
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what did magendie learn from his experiment involving the dogs and nitrogen? group of answer choices nitrogen is nonessential in the diet nitrogen is essential in the diet peptides are essential in the diet peptides are nonessential in the diet
Because the dogs were without a nutritional supply of nitrogen, which is necessary and must be supplied through the food, the dogs were unable to live.
Magendie was so despised in Britain that Richard Martin (1754–1834) cited his experiments in the House of Commons when he proposed a measure to ban bear-baiting, which would go on to become the "Cruel Treatment of Cattle Act" of 1822, one of the earliest laws protecting animals.The Father of Modern Genetics is Gregor Mendel. In the field of science, he is well-known. He didn't get any of this credit, though, while he was still living. We'll revisit this later. A phrase using Magendie has given his experiments and inferences the highest endorsement. Magendie discovered that it produced when fed to dogs.
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correct question:
What did Magendie learn from his experiment involving the dogs and nitrogen?
1. nitrogen is nonessential in the diet
2. nitrogen is essential in the diet
3. peptides are essential in the diet
4. peptides are nonessential in the diet
Based on the video on Evolutionary Medicine, which of the following choices is an incorrect pairing of disease and ethnic background?
A. High HIV resistance in Europeans
B. Low Alzheimers rates in caucasians
C. High sickle-cell rates in Africans
D. Low Asthma rates in Asians
High HIV resistance in Europeans is an incorrect pairing of disease and ethnic background.
What is HIV?
HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus. It is a virus that attacks the immune system and weakens a person’s ability to fight off infections and diseases. HIV can lead to AIDS, which is the most advanced stage of HIV infection. There is no cure for HIV, but treatments can help people with HIV manage the virus and reduce their risk of transmitting it to others.
HIV resistance is a trait that is determined by specific genetic mutations and is not associated with any particular ethnic background. The genetic mutations that confer HIV resistance are rare, so it is highly unlikely that any particular ethnic group would have a greater prevalence of HIV resistance than another. In fact, HIV/AIDS has had a devastating impact on all ethnicities around the world.
Hence, Option A is correct.
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explain how energy is spent during physical activity and the three factors that determine how many calories a person expends during that activity.
Energy is spent by the number of movements we do during physical activity and the three factors that determine how many calories a person expends during that activity are basal metabolic rate, the thermic effect of food, and the thermic effect of physical activity.
Now while mentioning the three factors that determine how many calories a person expends during that activity. The first one is the basal metabolic rate- It is the number of calories you burn as your body performs basic life-sustaining functions. In other words, basal metabolic rate is known to be the calories burned if you attempted to stay in bed for twenty-four hours.
The thermic effect of food- It is known to be the amount of energy it requires for your body to digest, absorb, as well as metabolize the food you gulp. The Thermic Effect of Food makes up a part of your regular calorie expenditure. It normally represents about 10 percent of the caloric intake of healthy adults having a balanced diet.
Thermic effect of physical activity- This is known to be the amount of energy burned during all kinds of physical activity. This includes everything from standing up from a firmly seated position to the most intense high-intensity interval training workout.
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select all that apply what are some strategies that caregivers may use to reduce the development of dental caries and other related dental problems during childhood?
Seek early dental care, Drink fluoridated water, Limit intake of sticky, sugary foods are some strategies that caregivers may use to reduce the development of dental caries and other related dental problems during childhood.
The best amount of fluoride for avoiding tooth decay is 0.7 parts per million (ppm), or 0.7 milligrammes of fluoride per litre of water; this level is achieved by the procedure of water fluoridation. In most circumstances, your water system can notify you about the fluoride content of your drinking water. It will explain drinking water quality, including fluoride levels, if your water utility is obliged to publish a yearly Consumer Confidence Report.
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In some experiments on the pain of being rejected, participants played a ball-tossing game while their brains were being scanned in an fMRI. Those excluded during the game showed increased activity in the ______ areas of the brain involved in the experience of pain.dorsal anterior cingulate cortex and right anterior insula
A dorsal anterior cingulate cortex as well as the right anterior insula, regions of the brain involved in the perception of pain, were more active in those who were excluded during the game.
The anterior insula cortex's function is what?Due to its cerebral placement at the intersection of multiple pathways responsible for higher cognition and motivation, the anterior insula controls the entrance of subjective feelings in cognitive and motivational processes.
What takes place when there is damage to the anterior insular cortex?A damaged insula can cause lethargy, a loss of libido, and the inability to distinguish between fresh and bad food.The basic line is that the insula integrates the mind and body, as according Dr. Paulus and others.It offers previously unheard-of insight into the structure of human emotions.
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a pregnant client in the second trimester of pregnancy is admitted to the maternity unit with a suspected diagnosis of abruptio placentae. which finding should the nurse expect to note if this condition is present?
Uterine sensitivity. Abruptio placentae, which occurs after the 20th week of pregnancy but before the foetus is delivered, is the premature rupture of the placenta from the uterine wall.
Abdominal pain that is severe is a symptom of abruptio placentae. Placental abruption is accompanied by uterine pain, especially when the abruption is central and there is trapped blood behind the placenta. Upon palpation, the abdomen feels hard and board-like as the blood permeates the myometrium and irritates the uterus. Placenta previa is characterised by a soft abdomen and painless, bright crimson vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester of pregnancy.
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if you are doing an ultrasound of the abdomen and have the probe directed cranially toward the diaphragm, which type of artifact would you expect to see?
If you are performing an abdominal ultrasound while cranially pointing the probe at the diaphragm The mirror picture you anticipate seeing
Do you have a diaphragm?A diaphragm is present in all mammals, including humans. We cannot survive without one, and it is a vital component of the body. A person takes 23,000 breaths every day using their diaphragm, which means that if they lived to be 80 they would have taken around 673,000,000 breaths!
How come they stopped producing diaphragms?Compared to IUDs or the birth control pill, diaphragms are less effective. Because they are less successful at preventing an unexpected pregnancy than more widely used birth control options like with the pill and IUD, diaphragms have been replaced. Diaphragms are 88% effective when combined with spermicide.
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the nurse is assessing a client for the effectiveness of the antiparkinson drug. if the nurse determines the client has improvement in these movements, which factor will the nurse point out has improved?
The factor the nurse would point out has improved include fewer tremors in the head, legs, hands, jaw, or arms, there would be an increase in movement, and impaired balance and coordination would disappear.
Parkinson's disease is known to be a very rare disease that can be treated with the help of antiparkinson drugs. The nurse while assessing a client for the effectiveness of the antiparkinson drug would analyze whether the tremor in the head, legs, hands, jaw, or arms has lessened or not. And might ask the patient for the same.
Then the nurse would ask the patient how fast the movements can be made. And also the nurse would see if the lack of balance and coordination that was held previously in the patient has reduced or not. For this, the nurse might ask the patient to carry out certain exercises in front of the nurse, so that the nurse can assess it properly.
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The factor will the nurse point out has improved handling gastrointestinal dislocations in a patient.
The nurse should administer the next medicine cure with feeds to handle gastrointestinal dislocations in a guest who has been administered antiparkinson medicines.
Anti-Parkinson's medicines are substantially exercised to serve Parkinson's disorder. They aren't psychiatric medicines, which means they aren't certified to treat internal health problems.
But your doctor or psychiatrist may specify one of these medicines alongside an antipsychotic, to demote certain side effects from the antipsychotic.
You should only be specified an anti-Parkinson's medicine if you have elaborated Parkinsonism symptoms as a side effect of your antipsychotic,
and you can not exchange for an unlike antipsychotic or downgrade your cure, or you possess tried revamping the antipsychotic or disrating the cure, but this has not supported your Parkinsonism symptoms.To learn more about Nurses refer to
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a patient presents with high fever, fatigue and dyspnea. upon assessment you find tachycardia and tachypnea, labs show leukocytosis and x-ray shows consolidation in the lung. what disease process do you suspect the patient has?
Symptoms of a patient include a high temperature, exhaustion, and dyspnea. Tachycardia, tachypnea, leukocytosis, and lung consolidation are discovered during evaluation. The patient's illness process has pneumonia lobular
Lobar pneumonia is a kind of pneumonia that affects a sizable and continuous area of the lobe of a lung and is characterized by inflammatory exudate inside the intra-alveolar space that causes consolidation.One of the three anatomic types of pneumonia is this one (the other being bronchopneumonia and atypical pneumonia). Instead of developing in children with lobar pneumonia, circular pneumonia occurs as a result of undevelop.
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an adolescent is diagnosed with a perceived inability to ingest food related to recent seizure activity which assessment data would be appropriate for identifying hyponatremia
An adolescent is diagnosed with a perceived inability to ingest food related to recent seizure activity profuse diaphoresis, Rapid IV infusion of 5% dextrose in water assessment data would be appropriate for identifying hyponatremia.
Low levels of sodium in the blood are the defining feature of hyponatremia. Your body's neurons, muscles, blood pressure, and fluid balance all depend on salt. The normal range for milliequivalents per litre (mEq/L) of blood salt is 135 to 145. When your blood sodium level falls below 135 mEq/L, you develop hyponatremia. exaggerated hydration Low sodium levels may result from excessive water intake, which overwhelms the kidneys' capacity to eliminate water. When participating in endurance sports like triathlons and marathons, you lose sodium through perspiration, therefore drinking too much water can also cause your blood's sodium levels to drop.
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a client with right-sided heart failure is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. what information obtained from the client may indicate the presence of edema?
Capillaries, which are tiny blood veins in your body, can leak fluid and cause edema. In the surrounding tissues, the fluid accumulates and causes swelling. Long periods of sitting or remaining in one posture might cause mild episodes of edema. eating foods that are too salty.
Edema can be brought on by medications, pregnancy, infections, and a host of other medical conditions. When your small blood vessels leak fluid into the surrounding tissues, edoema results. The additional fluid accumulates, causing the tissue to expand. Almost anyplace in the body can experience it.How dangerous is edema?
Picture of an edoema
If you develop edoema or swelling in your body, it's crucial to visit your doctor. Your skin may stretch as a result of edema, and if it is left untreated, swelling may worsen and pose a major risk to your health. Depending on the etiology, edoema can be a short- or long-term condition.
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after teaching the caregiver of a client prescribed transdermal rivastigmine, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the caregiver makes which comment?
after teaching the caregiver of a client prescribed transdermal rivastigmine, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the caregiver makes which comment: "The patch should be placed on a hairless area."
Rivastigmine is used to treat mild to moderate dementia (memory loss and cognitive abnormalities) brought on by Parkinson's or Alzheimer's disease. Rivastigmine can help some patients' cognitive abilities, but it won't treat or stop the progression of Parkinson's or Alzheimer's disease. When using NSAIDs like aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen with rivastigmine, your risk of stomach/intestinal bleeding may rise, so be sure to carefully read the warnings on both prescription and over-the-counter drugs.
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the nurse is assigned to assist with caring for a client with abruptio placentae who is experiencing vaginal bleeding. the nurse collects data from the client, knowing that abruptio placentae is accompanied by which additional finding?
The nurse is assigned to assist with caring for a client with abruptio placentae who is experiencing vaginal bleeding. the nurse collects data from the client, knowing that abruptio placentae is accompanied by uterine tenderness on palpation.
The placenta previa or placental abruption is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding in a pregnant client. Abruptio placentae is accompanied by uterine pain, particularly when there is a central abruption and retained blood behind the placenta. On palpation, the abdomen will feel hard and board-like as the blood permeates the myometrium and irritates the uterus. In cases where the client is in labour and the uterine muscle is unable to relax, a persistent tetanic contraction may happen.
So option 2 is the correct answer.
Complete question:
The nurse is assigned to assist with caring for a client with abruptio placentae who is experiencing vaginal bleeding. The nurse collects data from the client, knowing that abruptio placentae is accompanied by which additional findings?
1. soft abdomen on palpation
2. uterine tenderness on palpation
3. no complaints of abdominal pain
4. lack of uterine irritability or tetanic contractions
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the nurse is preparing to assist with blood collection on a newly admitted patient who has been taking phenytoin for several years. the provider has ordered a complete blood count and liver function tests. which other blood test would be improtant for the nurse to discuss with the provider?
A full blood count and liver function tests have been requested by the doctor. which further blood tests would be crucial for the nurse to perform? blood sugar
How can a low blood count affect things?
Your body receives oxygen from red blood cells. The amount of hemoglobin in your blood serves as a gauge for the oxygen-carrying capacity of your red blood cells. You are anemic if your hemoglobin level is low, and your body must work significantly harder to provide oxygen to your tissues.
What is a blood count that is abnormal?
Anemia, heart disease, or a deficiency in iron in the body can all be indicated by abnormally high or low quantities of red blood cells, hemoglobin, or hematocrit. A bone marrow illness or autoimmune disorder may be indicated by a low white cell count.
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james' physician orders laboratory testing to assess his gfr. his gfr is 31 ml/min per 1.73 m 2 . james' kidney disease would be classified as stage .
James' physician orders laboratory testing to assess his GFR and his GFR is 31 ml/min per 1.73 m 2 so his kidney disease would be classified as stage 3 CKD.
A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) could be a biopsy that checks however well your kidneys are operating. Your kidneys have small filters known as glomeruli. These filters facilitate take away waste and excess fluid from the blood. A GFR check estimates what proportion blood passes through these filters every minute
In Stage 3 CKD, your kidneys have gentle to moderate harm, and that they arew less ready to filter waste and fluid out of your blood. This waste will build up in your body and start to hurt alternative areas, like to cause high vital sign, anemia and issues together with your bones.
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