Taking the drug in the early morning mimics usual adrenal secretions; food helps reduce gastric irritation for the medication schedule would a nurse teach when corticosteroid therapy is prescribed for a client with an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis
The main purposes of corticosteroid therapy are to lower inflammation and weaken the immune system. They are employed to treat ailments like asthma. hay fever and allergic rhinitis. Depending on the ailment being treated, corticosteroids are administered in a variety of ways: via the oral route. Tablets, capsules, or syrups are used to alleviate the pain and inflammation brought on by several chronic illnesses, including lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. using an inhaler and nasal spray. Short-term corticosteroid use is generally associated with mild side effects, such as cutaneous effects, electrolyte abnormalities, hypertension, hyperglycemia, pancreatitis, hematologic, immunologic, and neuropsychologic effects. However, clinically significant side effects can also occur on occasion.
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a client is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (ct) scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. which information in the client's history requires follow-up by the nurse?
The nurse should follow up on the client's risk factors for pulmonary embolism, medical history, current medications, allergies to contrast dye, recent travel, and signs or symptoms of pulmonary embolism in order to evaluate the client for pulmonary embolism using a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast.
The nurse should first review the client's risk factors for pulmonary embolism. This includes assessing for recent surgery, long periods of immobility, pregnancy, and any history of deep vein thrombosis. The nurse should also inquire about any recent medical history, as pulmonary embolism can be caused by medical conditions such as heart disease, cancer, and stroke.
The nurse should also ask the client about any current medications they may be taking. Certain medications, such as hormonal contraceptives and medications used to treat cancer, can increase the risk of pulmonary embolism. The nurse should also ask if the client has any allergies to contrast dye, as this can affect the accuracy of the CT scan.
The nurse should also inquire about any recent travel the client has done, as long-distance travel can increase the risk of pulmonary embolism. Furthermore, the nurse should assess for any signs or symptoms of pulmonary embolism, such as chest pain, dyspnea, and tachycardia.
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a patient came to the hospital because of a problem with anemia. she was given a blood transfusion, but the blood was mismatched, and she developed an anaphylactic reaction. because this new problem was caused by her medical treatment, it is called:
A patient came to the hospital because of a problem with anemia. she was given a blood transfusion, but the blood was mismatched, and she developed an anaphylactic reaction. because this new problem was caused by her medical treatment, it is called iatrogenic.
Iatrogenesis is the process through which any medical action, such as a diagnosis, intervention, mistake, or neglect, causes a disease, a dangerous complication, or other adverse effects. Ivan Illich first used the phrase in 1976 to make the case that industrialized nations' over use of medication lowers people's quality of life. The term was first used in this context in 1924. Iatrogenesis may arise in emotional distress as a result of medical hypotheses or professional remarks.
While some iatrogenic events—like the mistaken limb amputation—are visible, others—like drug interactions—might go unreported. 20 million adverse treatment-related events were anticipated to occur globally in 2013. Between an estimated 94,000 in 1990 and an estimated 142,000 in 2013, adverse consequences of medical treatment killed an estimated 142,000 persons.
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List four ways a language barrier can be overcome. (ME1000 Introduction to Healthcare)
Answer:
1. Using a translator or translation app to communicate in the other person's language.
2. Using gestures and body language to communicate.
3. Using pictures or drawings to convey meaning.
4. Finding a common language to communicate in, such as using a language that is spoken by both parties or using a language that is widely known, such as English.
Explanation:
There are four ways by which a language barrier can be overcome and easy to communicate: Using a translator, gestures, and body language to communicate, pictures or drawings to convey meaning.
Low treatment adherence, preventable medical errors, low health-seeking behavior, lengthened hospital stays, and dissatisfaction with the healthcare are some effects of language barriers on patients.
In between patients and healthcare professionals, communication promotes trust. Patients are far less likely to provide important information, both medical and nonmedical, that might be crucial to their health if they lack faith in healthcare organizations.
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which response by the nurse is best when a client who has had an st segment elevation myocardial infarction (stemi) asks about the resumption of sexual activity?
The best response by the nurse when a client who has had an ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) asks about the resumption of sexual activity would be to inform the client that they should discuss this with their healthcare provider.
After a STEMI, it is important for the client to follow their healthcare provider's instructions for post-STEMI care. This may include recommendations for resuming sexual activity. The nurse should not give specific recommendations about when to resume sexual activity, as this is a decision that should be made by the client and their healthcare provider based on their individual circumstances and medical history. Therefore, the best response by the nurse would be to encourage the client to discuss this with their healthcare provider.
before the initiation of anticholinergic medications, it is important for the nurse to screen patients for which condition?
The nurse should screen closed-angle glaucoma before the initiation of the anticholinergic medications.
Angle-closure glaucoma, this is a form of glaucoma, occurs when the iris bulges. A protruding iris partially or completely blocks the outflow angle. As a result, fluid cannot circulate through the eye and the intraocular pressure increases. Angle-closure glaucoma can occur suddenly or gradually. It develops rapidly and its symptoms include severe pain, redness, and nausea.
Acute angle-closure glaucoma is a medical emergency. If high pressure is not relieved within hours, it can permanently damage your eyesight. Peripheral laser iridotomy (LPI) performed 24-48 hours after checking intraocular pressure is considered the definitive treatment for AACG. This is the condition that should be screened before the start of the anticholinergic medications.
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the health care provider has ordered oral calcium for a client. the nurse understands that this medication is used to treat or manage which conditions? (select all that apply.)
the health care provider has ordered oral calcium for a client. the nurse understands that this medication is used to treat or manage which conditions
Bone loss
Fractures
Heartburn
When a person's diet does not provide them with adequate oral calcium, this medicine is used to prevent or cure low blood calcium levels. Low calcium levels can lead to a number of illnesses, including osteoporosis, osteomalacia, rickets, hypoparathyroidism, and a specific muscle ailment, which can all be treated with it. Additionally, it may be applied to some individuals to ensure they receive enough calcium. In the body, calcium serves a critical role. It is required for the healthy operation of cells, muscles, bones, and nerves. The body will experience symptoms if there is not enough calcium in the blood.
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which of the following is not a required element of a hip aa-compliant authorization to release medical record? revocation fees re-disclosure purpose of proposed use
For HIPAA compliance, revocation costs are not necessary. The HIPAA Privacy Rule established criteria for the permissible uses and disclosures of health information
Such as who can receive information and under what conditions protected health information can be shared. Under certain conditions, the HIPAA Privacy Rule authorizes healthcare providers, health care plans, healthcare clearinghouses, professional colleagues of HIPAA-covered companies, and other entities protected by HIPAA Rules to share health information. In general, permissible disclosure requirements are for treatment, payment, or national healthcare operations, as well as reporting concerns to public health agencies such as domestic violence.
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scott has requested that all written communications from his cardiologist's office be sent to his work address instead of his home address. the cardiology practice:
scott has requested that all written communications from his cardiologist's office be sent to his work address instead of his home address. the cardiology practice: B. Is not required to honor any confidential communication requests of this nature
A medical specialty that focuses on identifying and treating problems of the heart, blood vessels, and circulatory system is known as cardiology. Heart failure, irregular heartbeat, and coronary artery disease are some of these conditions. Heart diseases are the focus of the medical discipline of cardiology, a subspecialty of internal medicine. It focuses on the identification and management of problems such congenital heart defects, coronary artery disease, electrophysiology, heart failure, and valvular heart disease. the cardiovascular system's heart and blood arteries.
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which of the following precautions would be most appropriate when caring for a client being treated with radioactive iodine (rai) for a thyroid tumor? administer prescribed corticosteroids carefully. monitor the respiratory status. handle body fluids carefully. administer the prescribed medications at the same time each day.
The following precautions would be most appropriate when caring for a client being treated with radioactive iodine (rai) for a thyroid tumor handle body fluids carefully.
The nurse handles frame fluids cautiously to save you spread of contamination. Corticosteroids aren't prescribed for thyroid tumor. monitoring the breathing popularity and administering prescribed medicines at the identical time every day are unrelated to the care of a client receiving RAI.
Body fluids, physical fluids, or biofluids, on occasion frame drinks, are liquids within the human frame. In lean wholesome adult guys, the whole body water is set 60% (60–sixty seven%) of the overall body weight; additionally it is barely lower in girls (fifty two-fifty five%).
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the nurse is collecting a blood sample from a central venous access device (cvad). how much blood should the nurse collect in the discard tube?
a client has been largely unsuccessful in achieving adequate control of dyslipidemia through lifestyle changes and the use of a statin. as a result, the client has been prescribed cholestyramine. what change in this client's lipid profile will the nurse identify as the most likely goal of therapy?
The nurse will determine that the most likely therapeutic aim for this client is a decrease in LDL cholesterol levels.
Why is cholesterol so high?You develop high cholesterol when there is an excessive amount of the fats chemical termed as cholesterol in the body. It is mainly triggered by eating fatty foods, skipping workouts, being overweight, drinking, and drinking alcohol.Moreover, it can run in families. By consuming a healthy diet and increasing your physical activity, you can reduce your risk of heart.
Bananas lower cholesterol, right?The potassium and fiber in bananas can decrease cholesterol and blood pressure. One can maintain a healthy body and strong immune system by eating bananas, which are particularly well-known as a credible source of soluble fiber.
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six weeks ago a female patient suffered a t6 spinal cord injury. she then developed a blood pressure of200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia. she is likely experiencing:
Six weeks ago a female patient suffered a t6 spinal cord injury. she then developed a blood pressure of200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia. she is likely experiencing autonomic hyperreflexia.
Spinal cord damage is the most frequent cause of autonomic hyperreflexia. People with this illness have neurological systems that overreact to stimuli that don't disturb healthy people.
An abnormal or excessive response of the involuntary (autonomic) nerve system to stimuli is known as autonomic hyperreflexia. The reason will determine the best course of action. Drugs and medicines must be stopped if they are the source of the symptoms. Treatment is necessary for any condition that is producing symptoms. For instance, the doctor might look for symptoms of constipation and a clogged urinary catheter.
Anticholinergic medications should be used if the symptoms are brought on by a slowing heart rate.
Extremely high blood pressure needs to be treated right away, but carefully because it might decrease suddenly.
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the pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of cervical cells for cancerous cells. a new, rapid diagnostic test to detect human papilloma virus (hpv) dna before cancer develops is done without microscopic exam. the steps involved in this fasthpv test are listed below. what is the second step? group of answer choices add an rna probe for hpv dna. add enzyme-linked antibodies against dna-rna. lyse human cells. the order is unimportant. add enzyme substrate.
Second step is to add an RNA probe for HPV DNA.
Deoxyribonucleic acid is a polymer of polynucleotide chains that coil spherically each one-of-a-kind to form a double helix. The polymer includes genetic instructions for the development, functioning, boom, and replica of all seemed organisms and lots of viruses.
In all dwelling things, DNA is vital for an inheritance, coding for proteins, and offering instructions for life and its tactics. Human cells commonly consist of 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a complete forty-six chromosomes in every cell.
Mitochondria are structures within cells that convert the power from meals right into a shape that can be used by cells.
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a nurse is assisting a physician who is performing an otoscopic examination of a 3-year-old who has been pulling on his left ear. the physician reports that his left tympanic membrane is bright red with purulent fluid. what does the nurse interpret these findings as?
A doctor is performing an otoscopic examination of a 3 year old boy's era by has pulling on his left ear. The physician reports that his left tympanic membrane is bright red with purulent fluid. the nurse interpret these findings as (b) Acute otitis media.
Acute otitis media (AOM), sometimes known as an ear infection, is the second-most frequent paediatric emergency room diagnosis after upper respiratory infections. Acute otitis media can happen at any age, but between 6 and 24 months is when it is most frequently diagnosed..
Otoscopic examination is a clinical method used to check ear structures, particularly the middle ear, tympanic membrane, and external auditory canal. Clinicians apply the method while evaluating particular ear issues and doing routine wellness physical exams.
Acute otitis media (AOM), sometimes known as an ear infection, is the second-most frequent paediatric emergency room diagnosis after upper respiratory infections. Acute otitis media can happen at any age, but between 6 and 24 months is when it is most frequently diagnosed.
Complete question:
a nurse is assisting a physician who is performing the otoscopic examination of a 3-year-old boy who has been pulling on his left ear, the nurse finds that his left tympanic membrane is bright red and that the light reflex is not visible. The nurse interprets these findings to indicate a(n):
a. Fungal infection.
b. Acute otitis media.
c. Perforation of the eardrum.
d. Cholesteatoma.
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a client presents with respiratory acidosis and a wide qrs complex. a wide qrs is associated with what electrolyte abnormality?
Analyses of the blood show metabolic respiratory acidosis and an abnormal ECG in severe hyperkalemia (potassium >7,5 mmol/L). A risk factor for severe arrhythmias is low magnesium and low potassium levels.
Which electrolyte shortage is the most typical?The most typical electrolyte imbalance is hyponatremia. Congestive heart failure and hepatic cirrhosis are two conditions where a reduction in blood volume in circulation may be the cause.
What are irregularities in electrolytes?When specific minerals are present in your body in excess or insufficiently, an electrolyte imbalance results. This imbalance could be a symptom of kidney disease or another issue. Minerals called electrolytes release an electrical charge when they dissolve in bodily fluids like blood and urine.
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a nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of cancer. the nurse is teaching the client about medications to treat cancer, including erythropoiesis-stimulating agents. which statement by the client is correct regarding how these medications work?
erythropoiesis-stimulating agents control the generation of erythrocytes. Glycoproteins known as erythropoiesis-stimulating substances stimulate and control the formation of erythrocytes.
Glycoproteins are a class of molecules made up of protein and carbohydrate chains that play a key role in a variety of physiological processes, including immunology. Many viruses feature glycoproteins that not only aid in their ability to infiltrate body cells but can also act as crucial targets for treatment or prevention. Proteins called glycoproteins have glycans affixed to the side chains of amino acids. The saccharide polymers known as oligosaccharide chains, or glycans, can connect to either lipids (glycolipids) or amino acids (glycoproteins). Usually, a procedure known as glycosylation is used to create these connections.
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a client presents at the clinic reporting weight loss despite an increased appetite. for which condition should this client be assessed?
The most typical cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves' disease. thyroid nodules that are too active. This illness is also known as Plummer disease, toxic multinodular goiter, and toxic adenoma. When a thyroid adenoma produces excessive thyroid hormone, it results in this type of hyperthyroidism.
What causes subclinical hyperthyroidism most frequently?
Release of excessive thyroid hormone by the thyroid gland is the most frequent cause of endogenous subclinical hyperthyroidism (1). Toxic multinodular goiter is perhaps the most frequent cause of subclinical hyperthyroidism in older people (24).
What position is ideal for the client following the administration of a bisphosphonate drug?
To reduce the risk of reflux, patients should maintain an upright position (either sitting or standing) for at least 30 minutes following administration. For the best fracture reduction, compliance is also crucial
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what is essential for the nurse to assess prior to the patient taking sumatriptan-naproxen sodium (treximet)?
The patient's cardiac history is essential for the nurse to assess prior to the patient taking sumatriptan-naproxen sodium (Treximet).
The risk of myocardial infarction is raised for the patient using Treximet. The drug is consumed orally. It is not prohibited to take this medication if you are nauseated. With the drug, the patient is not required to eat.
It aids in the relief of migraine symptoms like nausea and vomiting in both adults and children over the age of twelve. Your ability to resume your usual activities is aided by prompt treatment, which may also reduce your need for more painkillers.
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prompt treatment of botulism is imperative because the illness has a high mortality rate if untreated. why does botulism have such a high mortality rate?
A neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum causes flaccid paralysis.
What principal factor leads to paralysis?The majority of paralysis cases result from strokes or accidents such broken necks or spinal cord damage. Nerve disorders like amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are among the other causes of paralysis. Guillain-Barre syndrome is an example of an autoimmune disease.
What is the duration of paralysis?Attacks may linger for an hour or even up to two days. Some persons experience fluctuating weaknesses. Your symptoms can worsen later on and your muscles might become permanently weak.
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the nurse is assessing a client who sustained a fractured radius. a cast was applied to the extremity approximately 1 hour ago, and the client is now complaining of increased pain and numbness to the finger tips. the client is most likely experiencing:
he nurse is assessing a client who sustained a fractured radius. a cast was applied to the extremity approximately 1 hour ago, and the client is now complaining of increased pain and numbness to the finger tips. the client is most likely experiencing compartment syndrome.
Compartment syndrome develops when the pressure inside a compartment rises, reducing blood supply to the area and perhaps injuring neighboring nerves and muscles. Wherever there is an enclosed compartment inside the body, it might happen, however it typically happens in the legs, feet, arms, or hands. Acute and chronic compartment syndrome, commonly known as exertional compartment syndrome, are the 2 main kinds of the condition.
Acute compartment syndrome: a medical emergency that typically follows a fracture or serious damage and necessitates immediate care.
Chronic compartment syndrome: develops gradually, frequently during and right away following repetitive exercise. normally ends minutes after the activity is stopped.
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the dsm-5 includes a group of criteria to explore various issues to determine how best to treat a sexual dysfunction. all of the following are used to assess a dysfunction, except for:
The following criteria are all utilized to evaluate a dysfunction, with the exception of contraceptive variables, in the dsm-5 in order to examine numerous difficulties and decide the best course of treatment for a sexual dysfunction.
What is sexual dysfunction?Sexual dysfunction is the term used in medicine to describe persistent, recurrent issues with sexual responsiveness, desire, orgasm, or pain that bother you or strain your connection with your partner. It is possible for sexual dysfunction to have factors other than underlying disease. Examples include stress, substance abuse, alcoholism, smoking, cycling, and relationship issues. Although it might be challenging to talk about, ED is a prevalent condition. In actuality, it is the most prevalent sexual issue among guys. According to the Urology Care Foundation, 30 million American men are thought to be affected.
What happens if you have sexual dysfunction?The phrase "sexual dysfunction" refers to a group of issues that have an impact on your sex life. Sexual dysfunction, among other issues, might lessen your desire for sex or your capacity to arouse yourself sexually. It might stop you from experiencing an orgasm, trigger an early ejaculation, or hurt when you're having sex.
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a client has a watery fluid leaking from a site of inflammation. the nurse would document this type of exudate as:
A client has a watery fluid leaking from a site of inflammation. the nurse would document this type of exudate as Serous.
When plasma penetrates the inflammatory site, a fluid with little protein is created called serous exudate. Bleeding into blood vessels causes hemorrhagic exudate, which has a red or crimson colour. Because it comprises broken-down tissue and white blood cell fragments, suppurative exudate has the consistency of pus. Meshwork is created using fibrous fluid, a viscous, thick liquid.
a fluid that is transparent to pale yellow and is found throughout the body, particularly in the spaces between organs and the membranes that cover or border them (such as the heart and pericardium or the stomach and peritoneum), and which, when present in significant amounts, signifies a sick condition.
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a client diagnosed with erectile dysfunction has been advised to take sildenafil. for up to how many hours does the action of the drug persist?
Sildenafil drug action can persist for up to 5 hours after administration for the treatment of erectile dysfunction.
What is erectile dysfunction?An erectile dysfunction is a male reproductive disorder that affects males which occurs when they fail to sustain an erection during coitus.
The clinical manifestations of erectile dysfunction in males include the following:
soft erections, trouble getting an erection, trouble maintaining an erection, or anxiety disorders.The first line treatment for erectile dysfunction include the following oral medications such as:
Sildenafil (Viagra),Tadalafil (Adcirca, Cialis),Vardenafil (Levitra, Staxyn),Avanafil (Stendra).The therapeutic effect of Sildenafil (Viagra),can last for up to 5 hours after administration.
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a patient is receiving chlorpromazine hydrochloride (thorazine) for migraine headache. what will the nurse teach the patient about this therapy?
This drug lessens migraine discomfort while also acting as an antiemetic. The drug may cause sleepiness in the patient and, as evidenced by studies, can lessen photophobia.
What is the role of a nurse?Nurses treat wounds, give medicine, do regular physicals, take thorough medical histories, monitor blood pressure and heart rate, run diagnostic tests, handle medical equipment, take blood samples, and admit and release patients in accordance with doctor's orders.
Can anybody work as a nurse?The California Board of Registered Nursing must grant you a license before you may work as an RN in California (BRN). Whatever the job's perceived difficulty or ease, you must satisfy educational criteria, pass a criminal history check, and complete the national license exam. Nursing is regarded as a high-stress and challenging profession owing to a variety of factors, including exams.
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wei has been in several medical facilities lately and read a few advertisements for a new prescription medication that now seems to have been recommended by multiple doctors, when in fact, none of the doctors have prescribed any medication. which type of memory error has wei experienced?
Answer:
Source monitoring
Explanation:
Wei has experienced source monitoring.
your patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe head injury. as you monitor his urine output, you find that it has fallen sharply. lab tests indicate that his serum osmolality is lower than normal (i.e., his plasma is too dilute). what should you suspect?
Serum osmolality is indicated by the ADH that increases and decreases the water output in the urine. If ADH is over secreted then in this case, there is more secretion of water in the urine.
What is ADH ?It is the antidiuretic hormone. When the serum osmolality decreases in this case, body stops releasing ADH.
The serum osmolality is indicated by these following :
1. Antifreeze or other type of poisoning.
2. Dehydration or over hydration.
3. Too much or the little salt in blood.
4.Diabetes insipidus.
5. Stroke.
If any of these conditions are happening then in this case the body is suffering from the conditions are happening that are making the osmolality level as lower.
Water constantly does leave the body as we breathe, sweat and urinate. If we do not drink the enough of water, then the concentration of the chemicals in our blood (serum osmolality) increases. When serum osmolality increases, your body releases ADH.
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a client experiencing a severe major depressive episode is unable to address activities of daily living. which is the appropriate nursing intervention?
Feed, bathe, and dress the client as needed until the client can perform these activities is the appropriate nursing. a client experiencing a severe major depressive episode is unable to address activities of daily living.
A person will generally have a low or depressed mood and/or a loss of interest in most activities during a depressive episode, along with a variety of other depressive symptoms such fatigue, changes in appetite, feelings of worthlessness, and repeated thoughts of death. Even while depression might happen just once in a person's life, most people have many bouts. These episodes are characterised by symptoms that last for the majority of the day, almost every day, and may include: melancholy, tearfulness, emptiness, or hopelessness. angry outbursts, impatience, or frustration—even in the face of trivial issues.
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The suffix -plas/ia is a compound suffix (2 or more parts) that refers to:
death and dying
an infection or disease
a painful condition
formation, growth or development
The suffix -plas/ia is a compound suffix (2 or more parts) that refers to formation, growth or development and is therefore denoted as option D.
What is Medical terminology?This is referred to as the words and language used specifically in the medical and health fields. This is important as it ensures that there is effective communication between healthcare professionals.
It helps to save time and energy which may arise from errors from understanding what parties mean during the treatment of patients. They have prefixes and suffixes which have different meanings and an example is the suffix -plas/ia.
This meas that there is formation, growth or development such as plasmolysis etc and is therefore the reason why option D was chosen as the correct choice.
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which method is the most reliable for determining if a patient is the victim of intimate partner violence?
The most reliable for determining if a patient is the victim of intimate partner violence is history and physical data.
Intimate partner violence (IPV) is a significant but preventable disease that affects millions of women regardless of age, economic status, race, religion, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or educational background. It is a public health problem. People exposed to IPV can experience lifelong consequences, including emotional trauma, permanent disability, chronic health problems and even death.
Intimate partner violence (IPV) is a pattern of aggressive and coercive behavior that may include physical harm, psychological harm, sexual violence, progressive isolation, stalking, warfare, intimidation, and forced reproduction.
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a 42-year-old client, diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv), has been receiving antiretroviral therapy for several years. recently, raltegravir was added to the drug regimen. when assessing the success of this addition to the treatment, the nurse should prioritize which laboratory value?
The client has been getting antiretroviral medication for a number of years after receiving an HIV diagnosis based on CD4 count. Raltegravir was most recently included to the medication regimen.
What does a multi-drug regimen mean?
Dual medication therapy is the practice of taking many antibiotics simultaneously. Most medications are administered as pills. In the beginning, antibiotics such rifampin, ethambutol, and isoniazid are utilized. Patients with HIV and TB, people with drug-resistant TB, and pregnant women with TB receive special care.
What is a medication dosage schedule?
The frequency (dosing interval) and dosage at which a medication is to be delivered are defined. The dosage schedule is based on connections between exposure and bacterial responses (see dose finding).
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