Answer:
B
Explanation:
I believe this is the correct one
Following the sbar, the nurse identifies which of the following potential or actual problem(s) when planning care for mona hernandez, who has been diagnosed with pneumonia? (select all that apply.)
1. Difficulty breathing
2. Not able to tolerate activity
3. Ineffective respiratory gas exchange
4. Acute pain
5. metabolic acidosis
The following potential or actual problems when planning care for mona Hernandez who has been diagnosed with pneumonia are:
Acute pain.Ineffective respiratory gas exchange.Difficulty breathing.Not able to tolerate activity.Viruses that infect the lungs and respiratory tract can cause pneumonia. Common colds and flu are the most common causes of viral pneumonia in adults. The respiratory syncytial virus is the most common cause of viral pneumonia in young children. Doctors diagnose pneumonia based on medical history, physical examination, and test results.
Pneumonia can be difficult to diagnose because the symptoms are similar to those of a cold or flu. You may not realize your condition is more serious until it lasts longer than these other conditions. Recovery from pneumonia can take time. Some people feel better and can return to normal daily activities within a week. For others, it may take a month or more. Most people continue to feel tired for about a month.
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what are some exercise, and dieting plan to lose 60kg
Answer:
workout piggy
Explanation:
solution to you losing weight
What indicates impaired liver function?
Elevated levels of bilirubin (jaundice) is indicated by impaired liver function.
What is bilirubin test?
Bilirubin is a yellowish chemical produced by the breakdown (destruction) of hemoglobin, which is a significant component of red blood cells.
Red blood cells are gradually broken down in the body as they age. Bilirubin is liberated from damaged red blood cells and transported to the liver. Bilirubin is released by the liver in the form of bile. Bilirubin will not be appropriately secreted if the liver is not functioning properly. If the bilirubin level is higher than expected, it may indicate that the liver is not functioning properly.
Bilirubin levels in the blood fluctuate in hepatitis C patients.
When bilirubin levels remain elevated for an extended length of time, it usually indicates significant liver disease and possibly cirrhosis.
When bilirubin levels remain elevated for an extended length of time, it usually indicates significant liver disease and possibly cirrhosis.
Bilirubin levels that are too high might cause jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes, darker urine, and lighter-colored bowel movements).
Other than liver illness, elevated bilirubin levels can occur for a variety of reasons.
Elevated bilirubin levels (jaundice) may suggest liver injury or disease, or some types of anaemia. Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) (GGT). GGT is a type of enzyme found in the blood. Increased levels may indicate liver or bile duct disease. The enzyme L-lactate dehydrogenase (LD).
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The typical-use failure rate for a contraception method takes into account which of the following?
A) human error
B) daily use
C) familiarity with the method
D) perfect use
Name the bones of the skull and describe their main features as seen from the lateral, frontal, internal, and inferior views.
Answer:
Calvarium (roof): the frontal, occipital and parietal bones tend to grow slightly earlier
Base: the sphenoid, ethmoid, occipital and temporal bones tend to grow slightly later
Explanation:
should be right
patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to eat or drink because:
Answer: substances in the stomach increase the risk of aspiration.
Explanation:
which of the following research techniques is an appropriate method for studying cognitive development of individuals during the sensorimotor period?
The following research techniques is an appropriate method for studying cognitive development of individuals during the sensorimotor period incorporating information / restructuring information.
The sensorimotor level generally takes region in the first two years of a toddler's life. it's miles marked by the child discovering the difference among themselves and their environment. At that factor, they'll use their senses to examine things approximately both themselves and their environment.
At some stage in the sensorimotor degree, toddlers examine through the usage of their senses to discover their environments. supplying quite a number sports that involve the 5 senses assist them increase their sensory abilities as they pass through the substages.
They awareness on what they see, what they may be doing, and physical interactions with their on the spot surroundings. due to the fact they do not yet understand how matters react, they are constantly experimenting. They shake or throw matters, placed matters of their mouth, and find out about the sector via trial and mistake.
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physicians were given incentives to use e-prescribing under which federal mandate
Answer:
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
Source: Internet
Hope this helps!!
Under HIPAA requirements, eligibility for the pre-existing conditions exclusion waiver under new coverage is lost if:____.
Under HIPAA requirements, eligibility for the pre-existing conditions exclusion waiver under new coverage is lost if: 63 Days .
The HIPAA protection Rule, all included entities need to: make sure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all e-PHI. hit upon and safeguard towards anticipated threats to the safety of the facts. shield in opposition to anticipated impermissible makes use of or disclosures that are not allowed by way of the rule.
The purpose of a HIPAA compliance tick list is to ensure that businesses subject to the administrative Simplification provisions are privy to which provisions they are required to comply with, and the way nice to reap – and maintain – HIPAA compliance.
HIPAA violations arise when an corporation runs afoul of the standards defined by means of this 1996 U.S. Federal regulation. Many HIPAA violations are associated with getting access to or sharing sufferers' blanketed health statistics (PHI). but, violations also can consist of gadgets along with no longer schooling team of workers or tracking get admission to logs.
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Which neurons in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus respond to an increase in blood leptin levels? A) NPY and AgRP-containing neurons C) Adipocytes B) MSH and CART-containing neurons D) TSH and ACTH-containing neurons
Alpha-MSH and CART-containing neurons in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus that respond to an increase in blood leptin levels
How does the hypothalamus respond to high levels of leptin?
Importantly, obese people exhibit high circulating levels of leptin, yet the hypothalamus no longer responds normally to this hormone to suppress appetite or to increase energy expenditure.
What are CART neurons?
The cocaine- and amphetamine-regulated transcript (CART) is a major neuropeptide involved in the regulation of diverse biological processes, including appetite control, maintenance of body weight, reward and addiction, psychostimulant effects, and neuroendocrine functions.
What does MSH do in humans?
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone describes a group of hormones produced by the pituitary gland, hypothalamus, and skin cells. It is important for protecting the skin from UV rays, development of pigmentation, and control of appetite.
Thus, MSH and CART-containing neurons are the correct options.
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NEED ASAP
Upload your case study that considers the following:
In what type of organization does the medical coding professional work?
What standards are most likely to be broken in that environment?
What's going to happen to patients, employees, etc.?
What is your responsibility as a Christian in the event you learn of such violations?
What is your responsibility as a Christian in the event you are unintentionally guilty of breaking the code of ethics?
The function of a medical coder is to read the patient's clinical file and extract the relevant information from it, so that these are stored in a database, after classification, with international codes, of all identified diagnoses and procedures performed.
The most likely patterns to be broken in this environment are coding errors, your responsibility as a Christian if you learn of such violations, is to remedy and clarify with the truth, the possible errors.
Who are medical coding specialties?A medical coding specialist works in the medical records billing department of a healthcare organization, such as a hospital or clinic, classifying illnesses and procedures to facilitate billing and reimbursement from Medicare or health insurance companies.
Where do medical coders make the most money?Medical coders can make money anywhere as long as they have the exceptional skills and experience required. But, for the sake of clarity, there is some part of the world that pays medical coders more than others.
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In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient?
The physically uncooperative patient is Lateral decubitus.
Four-point immobilization which stabilizes both arms and legs is usually reserved for violent patients who pose a danger to themselves and others. The caregiver may use a combination of chemical sedation and her four-point immobilization to keep the patient calm while the patient poses a threat. Lay the patient on their back. Use multiple straps or other restraints to ensure proper patient immobilization.
Wear a surgical mask if the patient spits on the rescuer. From this position, it is easier for the patient to bite you. Positional suffocation can occur. Shackles can cause circulation problems in your wrists and ankles. The patient should be immobilized in a supine or lateral position. If necessary place one arm overhead and the other by your side.
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A nurse is giving a client barium swallow test. What is the most important assessment a nurse would make to ensure that a client does not retain any barium after a barium swallow?
-
a.Placing any stool passed in a specific preservative.
b. Observing the color of urine.
c. Monitoring the volume of urine.
d. Monitoring the stool passage and its color.
The most important assessment a nurse would make to ensure that a client does not retain any barium after a barium swallow is Monitoring the stool passage and its color. Option D.
Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein produced by gastric parietal cells and is required for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Pepsin is an enzyme in the stomach that helps digest proteins from the food you eat. The chief cells of the stomach secrete pepsin as an inactive zymogen called pepsinogen.
Parietal cells in the stomach wall secrete hydrochloric acid which lowers the pH of the stomach. Low-activity bowel sounds are the auscultation of one or two bowel sounds in 2 minutes. Note the color of the vomit. Because the person is vomiting, caregivers first examine the color and appearance of the vomit for obvious bleeding or other signs of compromised homeostasis.
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16. What is one symptom of heart disease? ( Olow blood sugar O high blood sugar O reduced blood flow to the heart O increased blood flow to the heart
High blood pressure can strain your heart, damage blood vessels, and increase your risk of heart attack, stroke, and eye or kidney problems
answer: increased blood flow to the heart
Which statement best describes how heredity affects a person’s likelihood of acquiring a mental illness?
If a parent or sibling has a mental illness, a person will have the same mental illness.
If a family member has a mental illness, a person is more susceptible to having a mental illness.
If a parent has a mental illness, a person is less likely to acquire the illness since most mental health disorders skip a generation.
If a parent or sibling has a mental illness, a person will be twice as likely to pass the gene to his or her children.
Answer:
If a family member has a mental illness, a person is more susceptible to having a mental illness.
Explanation:
as you know genetics are passed down from generation to generation and to know if you are gonna have the same illness as a family member of your is a guess. the probability of having it is 50-60% of a chance.
1. Is Syphilis a bacteria or a virus?
2. What are 3 Symptoms or Signs of Syphilis?
3. what are Treatments for Syphilis?
Which statement about bag-valve-mask (bvm) resuscitators is true?
a. BVMs are readily available at all emergency scenes.
b. Monitoring the victim for full exhalation is not required.
c. Ventilations are more effective when two rescuers operate the BVM.
d. When used by a single rescuer, BVMs allow easy coordination with chest compressions.
Using the theories of resuscitators, we got that statement about bag-valve-mask (bvm) resuscitators is true is c)Ventilations are more effective when two rescuers operate the BVM.
A two-person technique is the preferred methodology for the BVM ventilations as it provides better seal and the ventilation volume.
· Bag-Valve-Mask (BVM) apparatus are also known as the manual resuscitators and as the self-inflating resuscitation systems examples include Laerdal TM.
The bag valve mask (BVM), sometimes known by the proprietary name Ambu bag or generically as the manual resuscitator or "self-inflating bag", is the hand-held device commonly used to provide positive pressure ventilation to patients who are not breathing or not the breathing adequately.
Hence, the statement about bag-valve-mask (bvm) resuscitators is true is option c) Ventilations are more effective when two rescuers operate the BVM.
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Select the correct answer. birth control methods can be temporary or permanent. which is a permanent method of birth control? a. condom b. outercourse c. implant d. vasectomy
Answer:
D. Vasectomy
Explanation:
Tor F If someone stops drinking alcohol and switches to soft drinks and coffee they will be ok to drive after an hour.
Answer:
no i think
Explanation:
two students are discussing whether running or walking is better for a person's health. which piece of evidence would best strengthen the argument that running is better for a person's health?(1 point)responsesrunning is more likely to cause injury than walking.running is more likely to cause injury than walking.sprinting for short periods of time while running can increase health benefits.sprinting for short periods of time while running can increase health benefits.a person must spend more time walking than running to get the same benefits.a person must spend more time walking than running to get the same benefits.walking has the same effect on blood pressure as running.
The piece of evidence would best strengthen the argument that running is better for a person's health is that sprinting for short periods of time while running can increase health benefits and is denoted as option B.
What is Exercise?This is referred to as a form of physical activity which makes an individual fit and improves the general well being Examples include running, walking etc and they have their different effect on the body.
Running is better for a person's health because it helps to increase the heart rate and blood is pumped to more parts of the body thereby delivering adequate amount of oxygen and nutrients.
It also reduces the risk of a person having cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension , stroke etc which is therefore the reason why option B was chosen.
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The prevalence of ______ tends to be higher in populations that consume diets rich in sodium.
flurosis
diabetes
hypertension
goiter
The prevalence of hypertension tends to be higher in populations that consume diets rich in sodium.
How does high sodium cause hypertension?
Salt makes your body hold onto water. If you eat too much, the extra water in your blood means there is extra pressure on your blood vessel walls, raising your blood pressure.
Does sodium immediately affect blood pressure?
Consuming highly salty foods may begin to impair the functioning of blood vessels within 30 minutes.
What happens when sodium intake is high?
But too much sodium in the diet can lead to high blood pressure, heart disease, and stroke. It can also cause calcium losses, some of which may be pulled from the bone.
Thus, diets rich in sodium can cause hypertension.
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Symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include all of the following EXCEPT:_____.
a. restlessness.
b. nausea and vomiting.
c. weakness in the limbs.
d. irritability
Symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include all the following except weakness in the limbs. The correct option is c.
What is nicotine?Nicotine is a substance that came from a plant. It is highly addictive and not good for the health and the mind.
Nicotine is absorbed into your bloodstream and goes to your adrenal glands just above your kidneys. The glands release adrenaline which increases your blood pressure, breathing, and heart rate. Adrenaline also gives you a lot of good feelings all at once.
There are symptoms of physical, mental, and emotional withdrawal from nicotine. The toughest days are almost often days three through five of the first week. When the nicotine has fully left your system, headaches, cravings, and insomnia will start to affect you.
Therefore, the correct option is c. weakness in the limbs.
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What body structure/region normally encounters both inhaled air as well as ingested food and drink?.
Because it transports both food and air, the Pharynx is a component of both the respiratory and digestive systems.
What is Pharynx and where is it situated?
Pharynx is the hollow tube within the neck that runs from behind the nose to the top of the trachea (windpipe) and oesophagus (the tube that goes to the stomach). Depending on body size, the pharynx is about 5 inches long. It is also known as the throat.
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What is respiratory system?
The respiratory system is a network of organs and tissues that help people breathe. Your airways, lungs, and blood vessels are all part of it. The muscles that power your lungs are part of your respiratory system. These components collaborate to transport oxygen throughout the body and remove waste gases like carbon dioxide.
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which of the following are true regarding the role of horizontal gene transfer in the evolution of life?
Horizontal gene transfer has been implicated in the evolution of antibiotic resistance in bacteria.
What is evolution?
Evolution is the gradual change in the inherited traits of biological populations over several generations. These traits are the expressions of DNA is passed down through reproduction from parent to offspring. Because of mutation, genetic recombination, as well as other sources of genetic variation, different traits frequently exist within a population. This variation is subjected to evolutionary processes like natural selection (including mate choice) as well as genetic drift, which cause some traits to become more or less prevalent within a population. This is when evolution occurs. Heritable traits evolve over successive generations as a result of shifting evolutionary pressures which determine whether a trait would be common as well as rare within a population.
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a claims examiner reviews health-related claims to determine whether the costs are reasonable and medically necessary.
Employed by third-party payers, a claims examiner reviews health-related claims to ascertain if the charges are reasonable and medically required in light of the patient's condition.
What duties does a claim examiner have?
Examining Claim Findings and Payment ProceduresCarrying out administrative tasksAsking Questions of Others
Skills of claim examiners:
Claim examiners need to have a strong understanding of the written word.The fact that claims examiners provide written reports on their findings necessitates the need for strong writing abilities.Examiners have the logic and reasoning needed to assess and settle claims thanks to critical thinking and decision-making.Negotiation skills are crucial, especially when two parties disagree on a filing's legality or the details required to resolve a claim.Understanding medical terminology and having paralegal or investigative skills are also crucial.To learn more about claim from the given link
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How many calories on average are consumed, per person, at Thanksgiving dinner?
Answer: Somewhere between 500 and 700 calories
Explanation:
Why is there no health risk for researchers working at the burial site? plague is now a treatable disease plague bacteria cannot survive very long in soil human beings can no longer be affected by the bacteria that cause plague there are no rats buried nearby and no fleas to carry the disease.
There is no health risk for researchers working at the burial site is because A) plague is now a treatable disease.
What causes plague?
The zoonotic bacteria Yersinia pestis, which is typically present in small mammals and their fleas, is the source of the contagious disease known as plague. The plague can be transmitted from animals to people by biting an infected flea, coming into direct touch with contaminated tissues, or breathing infected respiratory droplets.
There are two main clinical subtypes: bubonic and pneumonic plagues. Buboes, or painful, swollen lymph nodes, are what set the most common disease, known as "bubonic plague," apart.
Historically, deadly pandemics that spread widely were brought on by the plague. During the "Black Death" of the fourteenth century, around 50 million people perished in Europe. Antibiotics and plain sense infection prevention techniques have made the plague treatable.
Therefore, Option (A) is right. The fact that the plague is now a treatable illness means that there is no health danger for academics doing their research at the burial site. As a result, the answer to this question should be (A).
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Match each number to the appropriate muscle from the word bank below! (Due before class ends pls help!)
1. Deltiods
2. Pectoralis major
3. Triceps
4. Trapezius
5. Quadriceps
6. Abdominals
7. Glueteus maximus
10. Biceps
11. Hamstrings
12. Erector Spinae
Different types of muscle are
1. Deltiods: Your shoulder, a ball-and-socket joint that joins your arm to your body's trunk, contains the deltoid muscles. Your arms can be moved in a variety of ways with the aid of your deltoid muscles. Additionally, they safeguard and support your shoulder joint.
2. Pectoralis major: The largest and most superior muscle of the anterior chest wall is the pectoralis major. It is a substantial fan-shaped muscle that forms the anterior wall of the axilla and is located beneath the breast tissue.
3. Triceps: On the dorsal side of the upper arm, there is a big, thick muscle called the triceps brachii. On the back of the arm, it frequently takes the form of a horseshoe. The elbow joint extension is the main purpose of the triceps.
4. Trapezius: Either of a pair of substantial triangular muscles that move the head and shoulder blade and span the back of the neck and shoulders.
5. Quadriceps: A knee extensor and a hip flexor, the quadriceps femoris. It is made up of the rectus femoris, three vastus muscles, and one other muscle.
6. Abdominals: The abdominal region of the trunk connects the thorax and pelvis, and the abdominal muscles are the muscles that make up the abdominal walls.
7. Glueteus maximus: The gluteus maximus is a quadrangular-shaped, large, meaty muscle. It is a sizable muscle that contributes significantly to keeping the upper body in an upright position.
8. Latissimus Dorsi: The majority of the lower posterior thorax is taken up by the large, flat latissimus dorsi muscle. Although the muscle primarily serves the upper extremity, it is also thought of as a respiratory auxiliary muscle.
9. Gastrocnemius: The gastrocnemius muscle is a sophisticated muscle that is crucial to posture and walking. It impairs hip and lumbar motion as well as the entire lower limb.
10. Biceps: The biceps or biceps brachii is a sizable muscle that is located on the front of the upper arm, between the shoulder and the elbow (Latin: musculus biceps brachii, "two-headed muscle of the arm").
11. Hamstrings: The rear of the thigh is where the hamstring muscles are located. There are three hamstring muscles: Biceps femoris, Semitendinosus, and Semimembranosus.
12. Erector Spinae: The spinal erectors, also known as the erector spinae, are a group of muscles that rotate and straighten the back.
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dietary iron consumption is especially important for reproductive-age females
true
or
false
Decribe effective communication trategie for gathering information, educating patient, and the importance of applying thee kill
Effective Health Communication Strategies:
1. Be Humble and Sit Down:
When a patient and their provider sit together during office visits and hospital check-ins, the two parties can more easily build trust. When a provider sits down with a patient to talk, the patient perceives the visit to be longer and more intimate. This can help patients who are nervous about communicating.
2. Speak in Simple English:
When communicating with patients, providers should avoid using medical terms and instead use plain language. Speaking in plain language shows patients that providers are interested in having a two-way conversation with them rather than simply delivering a speech.
3. Maintain Confidentiality in Communications:
Only members of the patient's care team should have access to individual case files. Avoid casually discussing patient issues with anyone outside the team.
What is Effective Communication?
The process of exchanging ideas, thoughts, opinions, knowledge, and data so that the message is received and understood with clarity and purpose is known as effective communication. Both the sender and the receiver are satisfied when we communicate effectively.
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